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Medical and Biochemistry Quiz

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the major iron storage compound?

a)

Hemosiderin

b)

Ferritin

c)

Siderotic granules

d)

Transferrin

2.

A 72-year-old woman has the following results: Hemoglobin: 6 g/dL MCV: 114 fL MCH: 39 pg MCHC: 34 g/dL Oval macrocytes on Wright stain Serum B12: 55 pg/mL (Normal: 200–1000 pg/mL) Serum folate: 7 ng/mL (Normal: 1–10 ng/mL) Anti-intrinsic factor antibodies: positive What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Folate deficiency

b)

Liver disease

c)

Pernicious anemia

d)

Reticulocytosis

3.

Which condition results from decreased synthesis of globin chains?

a)

Beta-thalassemia

b)

Hemoglobin C disease

c)

Hemoglobin M

d)

Sickle cell disease

4.

What is the normal myeloid-to-erythroid (M:E) ratio for an adult bone marrow?

a)

1:1.5

b)

3:1

c)

5:1

d)

9:1

5.

The failure of granulocytes to develop past the band or two-lobed stage is characteristic of:

a)

Bernard-Soulier syndrome

b)

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

c)

May-Hegglin anomaly

d)

Pelger-Huet anomaly

6.

A patient has markedly elevated WBC count with neutrophilia, left shift, toxic granulation, vacuoles, Döhle bodies, and increased LAP score. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

b)

Chronic myelogenous leukemia

c)

Leukemoid reaction

d)

Pelger-Huet anomaly

7.

Lymphocytes with cytoplasmic projections and a positive tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase stain are most likely found in:

a)

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

b)

Acute lymphocytic leukemia

c)

Sezary syndrome

d)

Hairy cell leukemia

8.

Plasma cells evolve from which cell line?

a)

Lymphocytic

b)

Monocytic

c)

Myelocytic

d)

Megakaryocytic

9.

A peripheral smear stained with Prussian blue shows siderocytes. On a Wright-stained smear, these would appear as:

a)

Basophilic stippling

b)

Howell-Jolly bodies

c)

Heinz bodies

d)

Pappenheimer bodies

10.

A “dry tap” bone marrow aspiration is most commonly associated with:

a)

Iron deficiency anemia

b)

Myelofibrosis

c)

Vitamin B12 deficiency

d)

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

11.

Which red cell inclusion consists of precipitated RNA and appears as fine blue granules with Wright’s stain?

a)

Howell-Jolly bodies

b)

Basophilic stippling

c)

Heinz bodies

d)

Pappenheimer bodies

12.

After exposure to an oxidizing drug, a patient with G6PD deficiency would most likely have:

a)

Target cells

b)

Spherocytes

c)

Heinz bodies

d)

Acanthocytes

13.

Which finding is characteristic of hereditary spherocytosis?

a)

Macrocytosis

b)

Increased osmotic fragility

c)

Presence of sickle cells

d)

Hypochromia

14.

In the Kleihauer-Betke test, fetal hemoglobin (HbF) appears as:

a)

Colorless cells

b)

Pink-stained cells

c)

Blue granules in cells

d)

Green-stained cells

15.

The term “shift to the left” in a WBC differential refers to:

a)

Increased mature neutrophils

b)

Increased immature neutrophils (bands, metas, etc.)

c)

Decreased lymphocytes

d)

Increased basophils

16.

Which of the following pairs of fasting plasma glucose values demonstrates unequivocal hyperglycemia that can be used toward the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?

a)

160 mg/dL on two separate occasions

b)

100 mg/L and 125 mg/dL

c)

75 mg/dL on two separate occasions

d)

93 mg/dL and 195 mg/dL

17.

Which serum enzyme is elevated in all hepatobiliary disorders?

a)

Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT)

b)

AST

c)

Creatinine kinase

d)

Amylase

18.

Aldosterone regulates the levels of which electrolyte?

a)

Sodium

b)

Magnesium

c)

Calcium

d)

Bicarbonate

19.

A deficiency of which vitamin produces abnormal bone mineralization and can lead to osteomalacia?

a)

Vitamin B12

b)

Vitamin K

c)

Vitamin C

d)

Vitamin D

20.

Absorption of vitamin B12 in the gastrointestinal tract requires the presence of:

a)

Gastrin

b)

Intrinsic factor

c)

Secretin

d)

Folic acid

21.

Which enzyme is specific for acute pancreatitis and is not elevated in salivary gland disorders?

a)

Lipase

b)

Amylase

c)

Cholinesterase

d)

Acid phosphatase

22.

Which protein is increased in diseases with expanded fluid volume and is a marker for congestive heart failure (CHF)?

a)

BNP

b)

CK

c)

Troponin

d)

Myoglobin

23.

An increase in which protein is associated with primary carcinoma of the liver and is a useful tumor marker?

a)

Alpha-1-fetoprotein

b)

Haptoglobin

c)

Ceruloplasmin

d)

C-reactive protein

24.

The very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) fraction primarily transports:

4 lines
25.

Which protein is a marker for liver cancer?

a)

Alpha-1-fetoprotein

b)

Haptoglobin

c)

Ceruloplasmin

d)

C-reactive protein

26.

The very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) fraction primarily transports:

a)

Triglycerides

b)

Cholesterol

c)

Phospholipids

d)

Chylomicrons

27.

A blood sample for a trough drug level should be drawn:

a)

Shortly before drug administration

b)

During the distribution phase of the drug

c)

1.5 hours after drug administration

d)

During phase 1 biotransformation

28.

Which disorder is related to mucus accumulation, recurrent infection with unusual pathogens, and increased inflammation in the lungs?

a)

Acute pancreatitis

b)

Chronic pancreatitis

c)

Cystic fibrosis

d)

Pancreatic cancer

29.

Urea/BUN is produced from:

a)

The catabolism of proteins and amino acids

b)

Oxidation of purines

c)

Oxidation of pyrimidines

d)

The breakdown of complex carbohydrates

30.

Calcium concentration in the serum is regulated by:

a)

Insulin

b)

Parathyroid hormone

c)

Thyroxine

d)

Vitamin C

31.

Ninety percent of the copper present in the blood is bound to:

a)

Transferrin

b)

Ceruloplasmin

c)

Albumin

d)

Cryoglobulin

32.

Urobilinogen is formed in the:

a)

Kidney

b)

Spleen

c)

Liver

d)

Intestine

33.

Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) is characteristically elevated in diseases of the:

a)

Intestine

b)

Kidney

c)

Pancreas

d)

Liver

34.

The presence of which isoenzyme indicates acute myocardial damage?

a)

CKMM

b)

CKMB

c)

CKBB

d)

None

35.

The conversion of glucose to lactate or pyruvate is called:

a)

Gluconeogenesis

b)

Glycolysis

c)

Glucogenesis

d)

Glycogenolysis

36.

TSH is produced by the:

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Pituitary gland

c)

Adrenal cortex

d)

Thyroid

37.

A 45-year-old woman has fatigue, heat intolerance, and hair loss. Total and free T4 are low, and TSH is markedly elevated. This is consistent with:

a)

Graves disease

b)

An adenoma of the thyroid

c)

Thyrotoxicosis

d)

Primary hypothyroidism

38.

Crystals found in urine that are associated with pathogenic disease include:

a)

Calcium oxalate and uric acid

b)

Leucine and tyrosine

c)

Heavy amorphous phosphates

d)

Triple phosphate and ammonium biurate

39.

A 23-year-old female has burning on urination. Urinalysis shows large blood, positive nitrite, and positive leukocyte esterase. Microscopic exam reveals many bacteria, 20–40 WBCs, and 5–10 RBCs. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Urinary tract infection

b)

Menstrual contamination

c)

Normal urine in an adult female

d)

Pyelonephritis

40.

A 40-year-old male’s urinalysis reveals few squamous epithelial cells, rare mucus, and rare WBCs. These findings suggest:

a)

Pyelonephritis

b)

Glomerulonephritis

c)

Hepatitis

d)

Normal urine

41.

Motility during urine sediment examination is most noticeable with:

a)

Spermatozoa

b)

Candida albicans

c)

Trichomonas vaginalis

d)

Escherichia coli

42.

The only type of urinary cast capable of polarization is the:

a)

Waxy cast

b)

Hyaline cast

c)

Fatty cast

d)

Granular cast

43.

The major constituent of urinary casts is:

a)

Lipoprotein

b)

Bence Jones protein

c)

Uromodulin protein

d)

Amino acids

44.

The type of cast most closely associated with tubular damage is the:

a)

WBC cast

b)

Epithelial cell cast

c)

RBC cast

d)

Fatty cast

45.

A negative reagent strip test for glucose with a positive Clinitest result suggests:

a)

Juvenile diabetes

b)

Glycosuria

c)

Galactosuria

d)

Peroxide contamination

46.

A positive reagent strip test for blood but no RBCs seen microscopically is called:

a)

Hematuria

b)

Oliguria

c)

Hemoglobinuria

d)

Hemosiderinuria

47.

Difficulty interpreting reagent strip color reactions in thick orange urine is most likely due to:

a)

Vegetarian diet

b)

Elevated urobilinogen

c)

Phenazopyridine

d)

Cloudy specimen

48.

Bilirubin concentrated on the surface of an absorbent pad is the principle of which test?

a)

Nitrite

b)

Acetest

c)

Clinitest

d)

Ictotest

49.

Excessive fat metabolism is indicated by urinary presence of:

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Glucose

c)

Ketones

d)

Protein

50.

Reagent strip reaction for ketones primarily detects:

a)

Acetone

b)

Acetoacetic acid

c)

Beta-hydroxybutyric acid

d)

Phenylacetone

51.

Identify the following cell:

4 lines
52.

Identify the following cell:

4 lines
53.

Identify the following cell

4 lines
54.

Identify the following RBC inclusion

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55.

Identify the following RBC inclusion

4 lines
56.

Identify the following crystals:

4 lines
57.

Identify the following cast:

4 lines
58.

Identify the following casts:

4 lines
59.

Identify the following crystals:

4 lines
60.

Identify the following crystals:

4 lines