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[HRM] 40 câu

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What best defines Human Resource Management (HRM)?

a)

Managing financial assets to maximize ROI

b)

Policies and practices for recruiting, training, rewarding, and appraising people

c)

Techniques to automate production lines

d)

Methods to increase plant capacity

2.

Which statement best contrasts Personnel Management (PM) with HRM?

a)

PM is integrated and strategic; HRM is transactional

b)

PM treats labor as expendable; HRM treats people as assets

c)

PM emphasizes speed; HRM emphasizes bureaucracy

d)

PM focuses on customers; HRM focuses on rules

3.

Which HRM model is known for balancing stakeholder interests and employee well-being?

a)

Fombrun model

b)

Harvard model

c)

Guest model

d)

Taylor model

4.

Strategic HRM primarily aims to link HR policies with:

a)

Government regulations

b)

Labor union demands

c)

Organizational strategic goals and performance

d)

Social events planning

5.

Which is NOT an external HRM environmental force?

a)

Suppliers

b)

Judiciary

c)

Organizational culture

d)

Globalization

6.

Manpower planning ensures:

a)

The firm has enough of the right people at the right time

b)

Only external hiring is used

c)

Training budgets are eliminated

d)

Pay is fixed for five years

7.

A key reason for manpower planning interest is:

a)

Celebrity endorsements

b)

Skill shortages

c)

Festival seasons

d)

Office interior design

8.

Demand forecasting for HR often starts from which business input?

a)

Random headcount wishes

b)

Sales forecasts and targets

c)

Facility floor plans

d)

Competitors’ mission statements

9.

Which tool belongs to HR demand forecasting?

a)

AIDA model

b)

Markov analysis

c)

Kaizen costing

d)

5S methodology

10.

Supply forecasting looks at:

a)

Only external labor markets

b)

Only internal transfer policies

c)

Internal and external HR supply sources

d)

Competitors’ pricing

11.

Reconciling HR demand and supply primarily yields:

a)

A new mission statement

b)

Numbers to recruit or make redundant

c)

A legal compliance checklist

d)

New ad designs

12.

Which is an example action plan in manpower planning?

a)

Recruitment plan

b)

Stadium seating plan

c)

Travel itinerary

d)

Office paint plan

13.

Job Analysis focuses on:

a)

The person only

b)

The job itself, not the current holder

c)

Shareholder returns

d)

Competitors’ logos

14.

Job Analysis results typically produce:

a)

Job description and job specification

b)

Financial statements

c)

Marketing personas

d)

Plant layout

15.

Which is NOT a data collection method for Job Analysis?

a)

Observation

b)

Interviews

c)

Checklists

d)

Price skimming

16.

Job Design is best described as organizing:

a)

Office furniture

b)

Tasks, duties, and responsibilities into one unit of work

c)

Sales territories

d)

Brand guidelines

17.

Moving employees laterally among roles to broaden skills is:

a)

Job enrichment

b)

Job rotation

c)

Job crafting

d)

Job outsourcing

18.

Adding more tasks at the same responsibility level is:

a)

Job enlargement

b)

Job evaluation

c)

Job bidding

d)

Job grading

19.

Designing jobs with more autonomy and challenge is:

a)

Job enrichment

b)

Job scanning

c)

Job pooling

d)

Job shadowing

20.

AIDA in recruitment advertising stands for:

a)

Attention, Interest, Desire, Action

b)

Assess, Interview, Decide, Appoint

c)

Analyze, Input, Develop, Audit

d)

Ask, Inform, Decide, Approve

21.

Recruitment primarily aims to:

a)

Search for and obtain applicants for jobs

b)

Eliminate all screening

c)

Replace selection

d)

Fix pay scales

22.

A benefit of effective recruitment is to:

a)

Increase the pool of candidates at minimum cost

b)

Guarantee zero turnover

c)

Avoid any legal obligations

d)

Remove training needs

23.

Which factor influences recruitment INTERNALLY?

a)

Unemployment rate

b)

Recruitment policy

c)

Political pressure

d)

“Sons of soil”

24.

Which generally comes after personnel planning and job analysis?

a)

Selection tests

b)

Recruitment planning

c)

Final job offer

d)

Probation review

25.

In selection, which step typically verifies past records?

a)

Preliminary interview

b)

Reference and background check

c)

Physical examination

d)

Job offer

26.

A common rating error where raters are too generous or harsh is:

a)

Central tendency

b)

Leniency/severity

c)

Status effect

d)

Recency only

27.

“Halo error” refers to:

a)

Rating all dimensions high/low based on one trait

b)

Giving only mid-scores

c)

Ranking by seniority

d)

Ignoring job standards

28.

Which is NOT a typical objective of performance appraisal?

a)

Confirm probation

b)

Determine training needs

c)

Decide pay raises

d)

Set corporate tax rates

29.

Performance appraisal contributes to competitive advantage by:

a)

Aligning performance with strategy and development

b)

Eliminating coaching

c)

Fixing grades permanently

d)

Hiding feedback

30.

Job Evaluation vs. Performance Appraisal—what’s TRUE?

a)

Job evaluation rates the person’s output

b)

Job evaluation assesses the job’s relative value

c)

Performance appraisal values job worth in market

d)

Performance appraisal is done before hiring

31.

Training (in T&D) is:

a)

Teaching new employees basic skills to perform their jobs

b)

A substitute for strategy

c)

Only ethics workshops

d)

Always off-the-job

32.

Systematic training benefits include:

a)

Longer learning time

b)

Improved performance and fewer accidents

c)

Higher wastage

d)

Guaranteed promotions

33.

The T&D process generally begins with:

a)

Pay benchmarking

b)

Needs assessment

c)

Exit interviews

d)

Ad creation

34.

In needs assessment, if the performance gap requires both training and non-training measures, that is:

a)

S1

b)

S2

c)

S3

d)

S5

35.

Which is a common technique to assess current employees’ training needs?

a)

Market share analysis

b)

Performance analysis

c)

Celebrity surveys

d)

Patent review

36.

In the Job Characteristics Model, which is NOT a core characteristic?

a)

Task significance

b)

Autonomy

c)

Feedback

d)

Seniority pay

37.

The MPS (Motivating Potential Score) emphasizes especially:

a)

High autonomy and feedback to raise motivation

b)

Only pay increases

c)

Only task identity

d)

Only skill variety

38.

Which theory of remuneration focuses on perceived fairness of pay?

a)

Reinforcement theory

b)

Equity theory

c)

Agency theory

d)

Expectancy theory

39.

Which is a classic wage concept?

a)

Venture wage

b)

Minimum, fair, and living wage

c)

Relative deprivation wage

d)

Prestige wage

40.

A downside of individual incentives may be:

a)

Reduced supervision and accidents

b)

Jealousies and difficulty in setting standards

c)

Automatic quality improvement

d)

Guaranteed satisfaction