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STAN PREPARATION

Total questions: 301

Worksheet time: 11hrs 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Kofi is n years old now. How old was he 5 years ago?

a)

n - 5

b)

n + 5

c)

n - 10

d)

n + 10

2.

Kofi is n years old now. How old will he be 10 years from now?

a)

n - 5

b)

n + 5

c)

n - 10

d)

n + 10

3.

Kofi is n years old now. If his age in 10 years time will be four times his age 5 years ago, how old is he now?

a)

n - 5

b)

n + 5

c)

n - 10

d)

n + 10

4.

Convert 2342five to a base ten numeral.

a)

2 342

b)

2 347

c)

2 348

d)

2 352

5.

Given that f = 8 and u = 17, find v where f2 = u2 - v2

a)

15

b)

20

c)

25

d)

30

6.

6m2 + 16m

a)

2(3m2 + 8m)

b)

2m(3m + 8)

c)

2m(3m - 8m)

d)

not factorable

7.
Factorise 4x + 14
a)
2(2x+7)
b)
4(x+10)
c)
4(x+3)
d)
2(x+12)
8.
Factorise 8x + 12
a)
4(x+2)
b)
8(x+4)
c)
4(x+3)
d)
4(2x+3)
9.
Factorise fully: 6x + 18
a)
3(2x + 6)
b)
6(x+3)
c)
2(3x+9)
d)
6(x+12)
10.
Factorsie fully: 20x + 30
a)
10(2x+3)
b)
10(x+3)
c)
5(4x+6)
d)
2(10x+15)
11.
Factorise fully 10x + 15
a)
5(x+3)
b)
2(5x+7)
c)
10(x+5)
d)
5(2x+3)
12.
Factorise fully 8x+32
a)
8(x+4)
b)
4(2x+16)
c)
2(4x+16)
d)
4(2x+8)
13.
Factorise fully: ab + 4b
a)
a(b+4)
b)
b(a+4)
c)
ab(1+4)
d)
b(a+4b)
14.
Factorise 6b + 8
a)
4(2b+2)
b)
2(3b+4)
c)
2(b+4)
d)
4(3b+2)
15.
Factorise fully: 18x + 24
a)
6(2x+4)
b)
2(9x+12)
c)
3(6x+8)
d)
6(3x+4)
16.
Factorise
x2 + 8x + 12
a)
(x + 3)(x + 4)
b)
(x + 6)(x + 2)
c)
(x + 4)(x + 4)
d)
(x + 1)(x + 12)
17.
Factorise
x2 + 15x + 36
a)
(x + 6)(x + 6)
b)
(x + 9)(x +4)
c)
(x + 4)(x + 9)
d)
(x + 12)(x + 3)
18.
Factorise
x2 + 4x - 12
a)
(x + 6)(x - 2) 
b)
(x - 4)(x + 2)
c)
(x - 6)(x + 2)
d)
(x - 6)(x - 2)
19.
Factorise
x2 - 6x - 16
a)
x(x - 6)
b)
(x - 8)(x - 2)
c)
(x + 2)(x - 8)
d)
(x - 4)(x - 4)
20.
Factorise
x2 - 8x + 12
a)
(x - 12)(x + 4)
b)
(x + 6)(x - 2)
c)
(x + 6)(x + 2)
d)
(x - 2)(x - 6)
21.
Factorise
x2 - 7x + 6
a)
(x - 6)(x - 1)
b)
(x + 4)(x + 2)
c)
(x + 1)(x + 6)
d)
(x - 10)(x + 3)
22.

Factorise the expression:


x2 + x - 6

a)

(x + 3)(x - 2)

b)

(x + 2)(x - 3)

c)

(x + 6)(x - 1)

d)

(x + 1)(x - 6)

23.

Factorise the expression:


x2 + 5x + 6

a)

(x + 3)(x + 2)

b)

(x + 2)(x - 3)

c)

(x + 5)(x + 1)

d)

(x - 2)(x - 3)

24.

Factorise the expression:


x2 - 2x - 24

a)

(x + 6)(x - 4)

b)

(x - 6)(x + 4)

c)

(x - 12)(x + 2)

d)

(x - 6)(x - 4)

25.

Factorise the expression:


x2 - 6x - 27

a)

(x - 9)(x - 3)

b)

(x - 9)(x + 3)

c)

(x - 3)(x + 9)

d)

(x + 3)(x + 9)

26.
Your 3 year investment of $20,000 received 5.2% interest compounded annually.  What is your total return?
a)
$23,285.05
b)
$3,285.05
c)
$2,385
d)
$32,285
27.
You borrowed $59,000 for 2 years at 11% which was compounded annually.  What total will you pay back?
a)
$13,693.90
b)
$1,363.90
c)
$72,693.90
d)
$73,793.90
28.
Your 6 year investment of $40,000 at 14% interest compounded annually is worth how much now?
a)
$47,798.90
b)
$87,798.90
c)
$127,798
d)
$7,798
29.
Find the total amount in the account to the nearest cent if the interest is compounded annually. 
$2750 at 8% for 2 years
a)
$220
b)
$440
c)
$660
30.

Jay'den earned $475 from mowing lawns last summer. He deposited this money in an account that pays an interest rate of 3.8% compounded annually.


What will be his balance after 15 year?

a)

$827.52

b)

$831.10

c)

$839.45

d)

$846.80

31.

Hei-Hei has $1500 in a retirement account earning 5% interest compounded annually. After 5 years how much does Hei-Hei have in the account?

a)

$1750

b)

$2010.14

c)

$2500

d)

$1914.42

32.

Henry deposits $750 into a college savings account that is compounded annually when his parents received as a stimulus package. If Henry lets the money sit in the account without adding or removing any and receives a 8.5% interest rate, how much money will he have total after 5 years?

a)

$1127.74

b)

$1535.24

c)

$2345.67

d)

$850.76

33.

Julia invested $1000 for college in an account earning 5% compounded annually. When she checked the account after 4 years, how much money did she find in the account?

a)

Not enough

b)

$563.24

c)

$1215.51

d)

$3200.12

34.

John invested $6,000 into an account that pays 8% annual compound interest. What will the balance of his account be after 6 years?

a)

9,521.25

b)

10,851.26

c)

3,521.25

d)

2,986.24

35.

Samantha made an initial investment of $16,500 into her retirement account. It will pay 12.5% interest compounded annually. What will her balance be after twenty years?

a)

173,994.05

b)

186,789.26

c)

157,494.05

d)

152,383.26

36.
What does the "I" in the interest formula stand for?
a)
Principal
b)
Interest
c)
Rate
d)
Time
37.
John put 14,000 Euros in an account at a simple interest rate of 1% per year.  How much interest will he get after 12 years?
a)
16,800 Euros
b)
168,000 Euros
c)
1,680 Euros
38.
Maria borrowed $3,000 at a simple interest rate of 4% per year.  How much did she have to repay after 4 years?
a)
$480
b)
$3,480
c)
$4,800
d)
$7,800
39.
What does the "r" in the interest formula stand for?
a)
Principal
b)
Interest
c)
rate
d)
time
40.
Anna invested $2,500 at an annual rate of 5%.  How long will it take until Anna earns $1,125 in interest?
a)
5 years
b)
8 years
c)
10 years
d)
9 years
41.
Jack deposited $1,400 in his bank account.  After 3 years, the account earned $294 in interest.  Find the simple interest rate.
a)
5%
b)
8%
c)
7.25%
d)
7%
42.
The rate is given as a percent (%).  Before using it in the simple interest formula, you must first convert it to a______.
a)
fraction
b)
decimal
c)
ratio
d)
dollar amount
43.
The Principal and Interest are always___________.
a)
fraction
b)
decimal
c)
percent
d)
dollar amount
44.
If the time is given in months, you must first _____________ by 12.
a)
add
b)
subtract
c)
multiply
d)
divide
45.
Mr. Peterson paid $1,020 in interest for a loan, which was given to him at a rate of 5% for 3 years.  How much money did he borrow originally?
a)
$5,400
b)
$6,800
c)
$3,240
d)
$14,620
46.

What is the upper bound and lower bound of 390 grams, measured to the nearest 10 grams?

a)

395 and 385

b)

390.5 and 389.5

c)

400 and 300

d)

400 and 350

47.

What is 89,555 rounded to the nearest 10, 100 and 1,000?

a)

89560 89500 and 89000

b)

89550 89600 and 89600

c)

89560 89600 and 90000

d)

89560. 89600. and 89000

48.

Round 248.561 to 1 decimal place

a)

248.5

b)

249

c)

248.56

d)

248.6

49.

Round 53,879 to 2 significant figures.

a)

53,800

b)

53,900

c)

53,88

d)

54,000

50.

A bag of flour has a mass of 1500 g (to the nearest 10 g). Find the maximum mass of 10 bags of flour.

a)

15050 g

b)

15000.5 g

c)

15000 g

d)

15050 kg

51.

A piece of A4 paper is 21.1 cm by 29.7 cm measured to the nearest 0.1cm. What are the lower and upper bounds of its area, in square centimetres, correct to 1 dp?

a)

624.1325 and 629.2125

b)

624.1 and 629.2

c)

624.13 and 629.21

d)

624 and 629

52.

A cuboid measures 2 x 11 x 9 m measured to the nearest metre.

What is the least possible volume of the cuboid?

a)

198.5

b)

382.375

c)

197.5

d)

223.125

53.

A formula describing the driving force,F, in Newtons of a vehicle is given by f = Pvf\ =\ \frac{P}{v}    whereP is the power in Watts, and v is the velocity in ms\frac{m}{s}  

  P=145 to 3 sfP=145\ to\ 3\ sf  
v=23.4 to 1 dpv=23.4\ to\ 1\ dp  
Work out the lower bound for the driving force of the car. Work\ out\ the\ lower\ bound\ for\ the\ driving\ force\ of\ the\ car.\  
Give your answer to a suitable deg⁡ree of accuracy.Give\ your\ answer\ to\ a\ suitable\ \deg ree\ of\ accuracy.  

a)

6.23

b)

6.16

c)

6.25

d)

6.17

54.

v = abv\ =\ \sqrt{\frac{a}{b}}  
a = 6.43 correct to 2 decimal places
b = 5.514 correct to 3 decimal places.
By considering bounds, work out the value of v to a suitable degree of accuracy.

a)

1.079

b)

1.0799

c)

1.08

d)

1.0795

55.

If A = BCA\ =\ \frac{B}{C}   what is the maximum and minimum value of A, if B is 100m correct to the nearest 5 m and C is 10 m correct to the nearest meter?  \  

a)

10.79 cm2cm^2   and 9.28 cm2cm^2  

b)

10.78 cm2cm^2  and 9.29  cm2cm^2  

c)

10.79 cm2cm^2   and 9.29  cm2cm^2  

d)

10.78 cm2cm^2   and 9.28  cm2cm^2  

56.

Which property does this represent:

7(x + 9)= 7x + 63

a)

Commutative Property of Addition

b)

Distributive Property

c)

Associative Property of Addition

d)

Associative Property of Multiplication

57.

Which number is irrational?Which\ number\ is\ irrational?  

a)

9.6

b)

45\sqrt{45}

c)

3/8

d)

100\sqrt{100}

58.

A decimal that never ends or repeats is which type of number?

a)

Rational

b)

Irrational

59.

What type of number is π ?

a)

Rational

b)

Irrational

60.

Product of  20\sqrt{20}  and  5\sqrt{5}  is...

a)

Rational

b)

Irrational

61.

Sum of 3\sqrt{3}  and  10\sqrt{10}  is...

a)

Rational 

b)

Irrational

62.

6⋅3\sqrt{6}\cdot\sqrt{3}  is...

a)

Rational

b)

Irrational

63.

Why is 2 irrational?Why\ is\ \sqrt{2}\ irrational?  

a)

The decimal ends.

b)

The decimal repeats.

c)

The decimal goes on forever.

d)

The decimal does not end and does not repeat.

64.
What is the definition of an integer
a)
All positive and negative whole numbers
b)
Decimals or fractions that terminate for repeat
c)
All positive whole numbers
d)
0
65.
List all the classifications of numbers that apply to the real number. 
-18/6
a)
Rational
b)
Rational, Integer, Whole
c)
Natural, Whole, Integer, Rational
d)
Rational, Integer
66.

-14 could be classified as all of these EXCEPT?

a)

Integer

b)

Real

c)

Rational

d)

Whole

67.
Which statement is NOT true?
a)
Every rational number is a real number.
b)
Every counting number is a whole number.
c)
Every integer is a rational number.
d)
Every decimal number is an irrational number.
68.

A number that can be written in the form a/b where a and b are integers is a ________________ .

a)

Irrational Number

b)

Rational Number

c)

Whole Number

d)

Integer

69.
Which of the following is rational?
a)
.211232112421125. . . .
b)
π
c)
√25
d)
√12
70.
Which of the following numbers is irrational?
a)
√8
b)
¾
c)
2
d)
-1.325
71.
A fraction is which type of number?
a)
Rational
b)
Irrational
72.
Which number falls between 4.5 and 4.6? 
a)
4.05
b)
4.61
c)
4.58
d)
4.50
73.

Is π2\frac{\pi}{2}  rational or irrational?

a)

Rational

b)

Irrational

74.

Is 773\frac{77}{3}  rational or irrational?

a)

Rational

b)

Irrational

75.

Is 10×210\times\sqrt{2}  rational or irrational?

a)

Rational

b)

Irrational

76.
1/10 of 546.24 is _____________.
a)
54.624
b)
5.4626
c)
54624
d)
5462.4
77.
72 × 10 3
a)
72000
b)
720
c)
7200
d)
0.072
78.
3.45 ÷ 100=
a)
0.345
b)
34.5
c)
0.0345
d)
345
79.
14.08  ÷ 10=
a)
1.408
b)
140.8
c)
14.08
d)
1.480
80.
6 × 10 3
a)
60
b)
600
c)
6000
d)
0.006
81.
What is 1954 ÷ 10?
a)
1954
b)
195.4
c)
19540
d)
19.54
82.
What is 567834 ÷ 1000?
a)
5.67834
b)
56.7834
c)
5678.34
d)
567.835
83.
What is 0.09863 x 100?
a)
9863
b)
0.9863
c)
98.63
d)
0.0009863
84.
24 divided by 1,000 =
a)
.24
b)
0.024
c)
.0024
d)
24
85.
1/10 of 2.45 is ______________.
a)
0.0245
b)
24.5
c)
245
d)
0.245
86.
pV = nRT
solve for R
a)
R= pV/nT
b)
R= p/n + V/T
c)
R= pV - nT
d)
R= (pV-n)/T
87.
Solve m - n = 5 for m.
a)
m = 5 + n
b)
m = -5 - n
c)
m = -5 + n
d)
m = 5 - n
88.
Solve -2 = 4r + s for s.
a)
s = -2 + 4r
b)
s = 2 - 4r
c)
s = -2 - 4r
d)
s = 2 + 4r
89.
a)
(2.5+h)f
b)
g=1
c)
f(5+h)/2
d)
(5f+h) / 2
90.
Solve for F.
S = 3F - 24 
a)
F = (S + 24)/3
b)
F = S/3 + 24
c)
F = 3S + 24
d)
F = 3(S + 24)
91.
Solve for b.
y = mx + b
a)
b = y - mx
b)
b = y/mx
c)
b = y + mx
d)
b = ymx
92.
Solve for x:
a)
x = yb - v
b)
x = by - v
c)
x = by + v
93.
ax + c = R
(solve for x) 
a)
ax = R + c
b)
ax = R - c
c)
x = a(R-c)
d)
x = (R-c)/a 
94.
Solve for y:
3x + y = 12
a)
y = -3x +12
b)
x = y + 4
c)
x = y + 12
d)
y = 3x -12
95.
Solve for z:
A = nz + d
a)
z = A/nd
b)
z = (A - d)/n
c)
z = A/(n + d)
d)
z = A / (n - d)
96.
Solve the following equation,
x + 7 = 28
a)
x = 35
b)
x = 4
c)
x = 196
d)
x = 21
97.
Solve the following equation,
3x + 6 = 21
a)
x = 9
b)
x = 5
c)
x = 15
d)
x = 27
98.

Which equation below would give you the answer no solution?

a)

3x + 3 = 3x + 3

b)

3x + 3 = 6x + 6

c)

3x + 3 = 3x + 2

d)

3x + 3 = 0

99.
Solve for x.
a)
55
b)
60
c)
15
d)
35
100.
Solve     -20 = -4x - 6x
a)
x = -2
b)
x = 10
c)
x = 2
d)
x = -10
101.

chromosome

a)

all the DNA in a cell

b)

genes that determine heritable traits

c)

a threadlike structure of DNA packaged with proteins

102.

maternal

a)

coming from or related to the father

b)

coming from or related to female members of the family

c)

coming from or related to the mother

d)

coming from or related the family

103.

paternal

a)

coming from or related to the father

b)

coming from or related to female members of the family

c)

coming from or related to the mother

d)

coming from or related the family

104.

gene

a)

a sequence of DNA that codes for a heritable trait

b)

traits inherited from the parents

c)

the DNA in a cell organized by size and staining pattern

d)

a threadlike structure of DNA packaged with proteins

105.

allele

a)

a sequence of DNA that codes for a heritable trait

b)

alternate forms of a gene that lead to different traits

c)

the DNA in a cell organized by size and staining pattern

d)

a threadlike structure of DNA packaged with proteins

106.

genotype

a)

a sequence of DNA that codes for a heritable trait

b)

alternate forms of a gene that lead to different traits

c)

the DNA in a cell organized by size and staining pattern

d)

the genetic traits that an individual inherited from their parents

107.

homozygous

a)

having no alleles for a particular gene

b)

having 3 alleles for a particular gene

c)

having identical alleles for a particular gene

d)

having different alleles for a particular gene

108.

heterozygous

a)

having no alleles for a particular gene

b)

having 3 alleles for a particular gene

c)

having identical alleles for a particular gene

d)

having different alleles for a particular gene

109.

A _______ is an alternative form a gene.

a)

chromosome

b)

sister chromatid

c)

allele

d)

telomere

110.

A trait that is always expressed if present is _____________________

a)

Recessive

b)

Dominant

c)

Strong

d)

True

111.

A trait that is masked unless 2 copies are present is ________________________

a)

recessive

b)

dominant

c)

weak

d)

hidden

112.
What is the definition of Homozygous?
a)
When one allele is dominant and one is recessive
b)
When an individual has two sets of the same allele.
c)
when it is neither dominant or recessive
113.
What is the definition of heterozygous? 
a)
when an individual has two sets of the same allele
b)
when it is neither dominant or recessive
c)
A pair of genes where one is dominant and one is recessive.
114.
The genotype is the ______________.
a)
physical appearance
b)
Genetic makeup
c)
Alleles gained from one parent
115.
The phenotype is the _______________.
a)
physical appearance of an organism
b)
Genetic makeup 
c)
Alleles acquired from a specific parent.
116.
How much of your DNA do you inherit from your mom?
a)
10%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
it varies
117.
T - tall and t = short
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
a)
tt
b)
Tt
c)
Bb
d)
TT
118.
B = brown fur  b = white fur
In the punnett square, what is the probability for white fur? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
119.
In the punnett square shown, what must the genotype of the missing parent be?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
d)
Tt
120.

Two brown eyed parents (Bb) have a baby. What is the chance their baby is blue eyed?

a)

0 %

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

121.

Aa, DD, Ba, and yy are all examples of ---

a)

genotypes

b)

phenotypes

122.
In a certain species of plant, the color purple (P) is dominant to the color white (p).
According to the Punnett Square, what is the probability of an offspring being white?
a)
25%
b)
0%
c)
100%
d)
50%
123.
Purple (P) is dominant to the white (p).
According to the Punnett Square, what is the probability of an offspring being purple?
a)
25%
b)
0%
c)
100%
d)
50%
124.
What genotype would go in box 2?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
125.
What genotype would go in box 3?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
126.

Coat color in a dog breed is determined by incomplete dominance where three colors are produced (Brown, tan and white), and the brown coat allele (B) has incomplete dominance over the white coat allele (b). Which offspring ratio would be expected from a cross between a brown dog and a white dog?

a)

A. 2 BB: 2 Bb

b)

B. 4 Bb

c)

C. 1 BB: 2 Bb: 1 bb

d)

D. 2 BB: 2 bb

127.

Human blood type is determined by multiple alleles (A, B, and O). Which ratio would result from a cross between a man with Type AB blood and a woman with Type O blood?

a)

A. 50% Type A, 50% Type O

b)

B. 75% Type A, 25% Type B

c)

C. 50% Type A, 50% Type B

d)

D. 100% Type O

128.
The process of making changes in the DNA code of a living organism is called
a)
selective breeding 
b)
genetic engineering
c)
inbreeding
d)
hybridization
129.
Two organisms that are closely related would have
a)
very similar DNA sequence
b)
exactly the same DNA sequences
c)
no proteins in common
d)
completely different DNA sequence
130.
According to this cladogram, birds are LEAST related to -
a)
Amphibians
b)
Sharks
c)
Ray Finned Fish
d)
Crocodiles
131.
On the cladogram, which organism is the closest relative of the human?
a)
Frog
b)
Hare
c)
Caiman
d)
Parrot
132.

The bones of the forelimbs of the whale, the human and the bat are very similar. This indicates that they all may

a)

have descended from a common ancestor

b)

belong to the same species

c)

Have to range great distances to eat

133.
Which of the following terms refers to the different possibilities of a gene?
a)
chromosome
b)
DNA
c)
Punnett Squares
d)
allele
134.
Tt is-
a)
homozygous dominant
b)
homozygous recessive
c)
heterozygous
d)
none of these
135.
Which of the following genotypes is homozygous recessive?
a)
RR
b)
Rr
c)
rr
d)
None of the Above
136.
Brown (B) is dominant over white (b). Which genotype is a purebred for brown fur?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
d)
All of the above
137.
Mutations are a change in what?
a)
DNA
b)
tRNA
c)
genotype
d)
phenotype
138.
The differences among a species, like different bird beaks, are called
a)
genes.
b)
variations.
c)
traits.
d)
theories.
139.

All matter consists of particles called

a)

Units

b)

Atoms

c)

Cubes

d)

Pints

140.

Atoms consist of parts called protons, neutrons, and

a)

Electons

b)

Haptons

c)

Neptons

d)

Wontons

141.

Each protons has a _______________ electrical charge

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

Neutral

d)

Shocking

142.

Each electron has a _________________ electrical charge

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

Neutral

d)

Shocking

143.

Each neutron has an electrically_________________charge

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

Neutral

d)

Shocking

144.

The nucleus of an atom contains protons and_______________

a)

Electrons

b)

Haptons

c)

Neutrons

d)

Wontons

145.

Electrons move around_________________the nucleus

a)

Inside

b)

Outside

c)

On top of

d)

Without

146.

An element is determined by the number of ___________________ (also known as its atomic number).

a)

Neutrons

b)

Electrons

c)

Protons

d)

Wontons

147.

The modern periodic table is organized by _________________ atomic number.

a)

Increasing

b)

Decreasing

c)

Reducing

d)

Developing

148.

who discovered the first scientific and systematic periodic table

a)

Henry Mosley

b)

Dmitri Mendeleev

c)

John Dalton

d)

sir Isaac Newton

149.

Which one is correct about mendeleev's periodic law

a)

Properties of elements are periodic function of their atomic mass

b)

the physical and chemical properties of elements are periodic function of their atomic number.

c)

physical properties of elements are periodic function of their atomic weight.

d)

chemical properties of elements are periodic function of their atomic number.

150.

choose the correct statement

a)

the vertical column in the periodic table is called period

b)

the vertical column in the periodic table is called group

c)

the horizontal row in the periodic table is not called period

d)

none of the above

151.

how many groups are there in modern periodic table

a)

8

b)

9

c)

18

d)

17

152.

Number of valence electrons in halogens is ..........

a)

1

b)

4

c)

3

d)

7

153.
The atomic number tells you what?
a)
number of electrons
b)
number of protons
c)
number of neutrons
d)
both electrons and protons in an atom.
154.
Elements which are shiny, conduct electricity and heat are called
a)
metal
b)
nonmetal
c)
metalloid
d)
nonexistent
155.
Which is a halogen?
a)
Helium
b)
Chlorine
c)
Oxygen
d)
Neptune
156.
Which is an alkali metal?
a)
Magnesium
b)
Iron
c)
Sodium
d)
Europium
157.
If an atom had the same properties as fluorine (F), it would probably be located in
a)
period 1.
b)
period 2.
c)
group 2.
d)
group 17.
158.
Atoms with similar properties are most likely located...
a)
in the same period.
b)
in the same group.
c)
in different periods.
d)
to the right and left of each other.
159.
What is the element symbol for boron? 
a)
B
b)
Bo
c)
Bn
d)
W
160.
Each element is unique based on its number of protons, also known as the...
a)
atomic mass
b)
valence number
c)
atomic symbol
d)
atomic number
161.
The atomic number of this pictured element is
a)
28
b)
58.6934
c)
Ni
d)
Nickel
162.
what does the 6 represent?
a)
Atomic mass
b)
atomic number
c)
chemical symbol
d)
element name
163.
Group Name and Number for Neon
a)
Alkaline Earth Metals 2 or 2A
b)
Noble Gases 18 or 8A
c)
Halogens 17 or 7A
d)
Alkali Metals 1 or 1A
164.
Characteristic that can be observed such as color, state, or hardness
a)
physical property
b)
chemical property
c)
density
d)
mass
165.
What are the three states of matter?
a)
solid, volume, mass
b)
density, volume, mass
c)
solid, liquid, gas
d)
density, gas, volume
166.
A state of matter that has a definite volume and shape.
a)
solid
b)
liquid
c)
gas
d)
matter
167.
The amount of space something takes up
a)
density
b)
volume
c)
mass
d)
matter
168.
What is one way matter change states?
a)
matter loses mass
b)
heat is added
c)
it doesn't change
d)
by doing nothing
169.
Water in the form of a gas is called _________.
a)
water vapor
b)
gasoline
c)
ice
d)
liquid
170.
Liquid matter takes the shape of _______.
a)
a gas
b)
water
c)
a pet
d)
Its container
171.
Water in its solid form is _____________.
a)
a vapor
b)
ice
c)
a liquid
d)
boiling
172.
________________ is anything that has mass and takes up space.
a)
volume
b)
matter
c)
mass
d)
weight
173.
______________ does not have a definite shape or volume.
a)
liquid
b)
solid
c)
gas
174.
a type of matter that can be found on earth as a solid, liquid, and gas
a)
gold
b)
water
c)
oxygen
d)
rock
175.
What causes a change in the state of matter?
a)
physical properties
b)
chemical energy
c)
temperature
176.
What is vaporization?
a)
a liquid becoming a gas
b)
a gas becoming a liquid
c)
a liquid becoming a solid
d)
a gas becoming a solid
177.
________________ is a form of vaporization that takes place ONLY on the surface of a liquid.
a)
evaporation
b)
boiling
c)
freezing
d)
melting
178.
The change from a gas to a liquid by cooling
a)
condensation
b)
evaporation
c)
sublimation
d)
deposition
179.
________________ is a form of vaporization that takes place throughout the entire liquid.
a)
evaporation
b)
boiling
c)
freezing
d)
melting
180.
Faster moving particles have more _____________ energy (heat)
a)
free
b)
thermal
c)
potential
d)
responsive
181.
Both the melting point and __________ point occur at the same temperature.
a)
condensation
b)
boiling
c)
freezing
d)
sublimation
182.
Both the boiling point and __________ point occur at the same temperature.
a)
condensation
b)
deposition
c)
freezing
d)
sublimation
183.
During the process of sublimation...
a)
a solid turns directly into a gas
b)
a liquid turns to a gas
c)
a solid turns into a liquid
d)
a gas turns directly into a solid
184.

Thermal energy is energy that comes from

a)

cooling

b)

heat

c)

ice

d)

water

185.

As particles are heated they will

a)

contract

b)

expand

186.

As particles are cooled they will

a)

contract

b)

expand

187.

The picture below is an example of _________________.

a)

osmosis

b)

isotonic

c)

diffusion

d)

active transport

188.
What is diffusion?
a)
when molecules move 
b)
when molecules move from a high concentration to a low concentration.
c)
no movement 
d)
molecules move everywhere
189.
Where is there a low concentration of dye?
a)
at the bottom of cup
b)
in the color
c)
at the top of cup 
d)
no concenteraion gradient
190.
Where is there a low concentration of perfume?
a)
in the bottle
b)
on the hand
c)
in the room
d)
in the top
191.

What is DIFFUSION?

a)
b)
c)
d)
192.

Diffusion occurs only in solids

a)

True

b)

False

193.

Diffusion is the free movement of particles from an area of __________ concentration to an area of ________ concentration.

a)

High to high

b)

High to low

c)

Low to low

d)

Low to high

194.

An increase in temperature does what to diffusion?

a)

Speeds it up

b)

Slows it down

c)

Stops it

d)

No effect

195.

When does diffusion stop?

a)

After a day and a night

b)

When the particles are evenly spread out

c)

When there are no particles left

d)

When all the particles leave the system

196.

What component would be most important to a long distance runner?

a)

Reaction time

b)

Cardiovascular endurance

c)

Agility

d)

Muscular Strength

197.

The ability of a muscle to work for an extended period of time.

a)

Body composition

b)

Muscular Strength

c)

Muscular Endurance

d)

Flexibility

198.

A joints ability to move through its full range of motion.

a)

Body Composition

b)

Muscular Strength

c)

Muscular Endurance

d)

Flexibility

199.
What is the ability of the heart, lungs, blood vessels, and blood to work efficiently and to supply the body with oxygen?
a)
Muscular Endurance
b)
Body Compostion
c)
Cardiovascular Endurance
d)
Speed
200.
Which component of fitness can be developed by lifting heavy weights with few repetitions?
a)
Muscular Fitness
b)
Cardiovascular Fitness
c)
Muscular Endurance
d)
Muscular Strength
201.
The push-up test measures_________?
a)
Flexibility
b)
Cardiovascular Endurance
c)
Body Composition
d)
Muscular Endurance and Muscle Strength
202.
The components of fitness are....
a)
Muscular strength, muscular endurance, cardiovascular endurance, flexibility, body mass index
b)
Emotional Health, social health, heart health.
c)
Mental health, emotional health, spritual health
d)
Muscular mass,  Muscular endurance, body fat
203.
The right mix of healthy eating and exercise will help control weight this is called...
a)
Body Composition
b)
Muscular Strength
c)
Power
d)
Agility
204.
Yoga helps improve which component of fitness the most...
a)
Flexibility
b)
Speed
c)
Muscle Strength
d)
Agility
205.
The sit and reach is an example of what component of fitness?
a)
Endurance
b)
Flexibility
c)
Strength
d)
Body Composition
206.

Skill component that describes the ability to quickly change control and direction

a)

agility

b)

balance

c)

coordination

d)

speed

207.

Skill component that describes the ability to stabilize or control the body while standing or moving.

a)

agility

b)

coordination

c)

balance

d)

reaction time

208.

Skill component that describes the ability to use the body parts and sense together with efficient movements.

a)

reaction time

b)

agililty

c)

power

d)

coordination

209.

The ability to use your entire body for long periods of time without stopping is called..................

This requires a strong heart, and lungs.

a)

Cardiovascular Endurance

b)

Muscular Strength

c)

Speed

d)

Muscular Endurance

210.

What skill component describes the amount of force you can create when performing a task.

a)

speed

b)

power

c)

balance

d)

coordination

211.

What skill component is described by moving as quickly as you can?

a)

speed

b)

power

c)

coordination

d)

reaction time

212.

Skill component that describes how quickly your body can respond to what your brain senses.

a)

reaction time

b)

coordination

c)

speed

d)

power

213.

_________________ is how food affects the health of the body.

a)

metabolism

b)

nutrition

c)

survival

214.

one of these is NOT a class of food nutrient.

a)

crude oil

b)

fats and oil

c)

protein

215.

_______________ is an example of food rich in Vitamins.

a)

cheese

b)

milk

c)

orange

216.

_______________ is a type of food rich in protein.

a)

beans

b)

wheat

c)

yam

217.

Which system of the body allows gas exchange between cells and the environment?

a)

circulatory system

b)

digestive system

c)

respiratory system

218.

Which system of the body ingests food and breaks it down into usable nutrients?

a)

digestive system

b)

muscular system

c)

circulatory system

219.

________________ are groups of organs and tissues that work together to perform important jobs for the body.

a)

nutrition

b)

body systems

c)

illnesses

220.

(a)   is one of the function of the digestive system.

221.

The _____________ system of the body is made up bones, ligaments and tendons.

a)

muscular

b)

skeletal

c)

respiratory

222.

Football is a ____________ game.

a)

local

b)

team

c)

fair

223.

Which of these cannot be used to clean our teeth?

a)

Chewing stick

b)

Toothpaste

c)

Gum

224.

It’s good to cut our nails with our teeth.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Uncertain

225.

Footwear is what people wear on their feet.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Uncertain

226.

One of these is not an example of a clothing item.

a)

Trouser

b)

Hijab

c)

Canvass shoe

227.

Clean teeth prevent tooth __________ and decay

a)

smell

b)

taste

c)

sight

228.

We avoid injuries in games by __________.

a)

careful playing

b)

cheating

c)

playing rough

229.

Games are ______ of any kind.

a)

games

b)

sports

c)

play

230.

Which of these is a football skill?

a)

Heading

b)

Landing

c)

Sprinting

231.

Football involves _____.

a)

competition

b)

stars

c)

playing roughly

232.

Swimming is an example of physical exercise.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Uncertain

233.

The last stage in high jump is _______.

a)

run-up

b)

flight

c)

landing

234.

___________ is a short distance race.

a)

Jog

b)

50 metre dash

c)

Sprint

235.

Which of the following is not a basic movement?

a)

Walking

b)

Eating

c)

Leaping

236.

We avoid injuries in games by ____________.

a)

playing roughly

b)

playing carefully

c)

not playing at all

237.

An example of Chinese martial art is _____________________

a)

boxing

b)

wrestling

c)

kungfu

238.

Adequate nutrition can prevent _____________________.

a)

Cholera

b)

drunkenness

c)

sickness

239.

Judo and karate are examples of _____________________

a)

punishment

b)

handwork

c)

martial arts

240.

The unhealthy condition of the body is ___________________

a)

exercise

b)

illness

c)

balance

241.

Physical activities should be carried out on ________________

a)

workshop

b)

court

c)

field

242.

The disease that can be transferred from one person to another is _________________.

a)

communication

b)

communicable

c)

transportation

243.

It is good to seek and get medical assistance on time when ill.

a)

not true

b)

true

c)

none of the above

244.

Taekwondo is the ________________________art of self-defence and one of the oldest form of martial art.

a)

Korean

b)

Nigerian

c)

Ghanaian

245.

When the swimmer faces up throughout which makes breathing easier and the arms move in a windmill style is ______________________.

a)

Leg stroke

b)

back stroke

c)

head stroke

246.

________________ is taking your bath before going into the swimming pool.

a)

warm up

b)

shower

c)

pole

247.

Which of the following is not a type of long races?

a)

800m

b)

1500m

c)

600m

d)

Marathon

248.

The racing event is won by __________ in time

a)

slowest

b)

biggest

c)

smallest

d)

fastest

249.

________ are the individual running events carried out on the tracks over a long distance.

a)

long race

b)

short race

c)

relay races

d)

middle race

250.

In running phase, arms swinging alternatively and with elbow at ________ degree.

a)

10

b)

15

c)

60

d)

90

251.

the distance run by each athlete in relay race is called __________

a)

hand

b)

finger

c)

leg

d)

toes

252.

__________ rhythmic involves the use of the fundamental movement to bring out new, effective and imaginative patterned movement and sounds.

a)

creative

b)

develop

c)

moving

d)

sounding

253.

______________ is the transfer of baton from first runner to the next runner until I reach the last runner.

a)

run exchange

b)

stick exchange

c)

baton exchange

d)

quick exchange

254.

Good _______ without slowing down is important in the finishing phase of long races.

a)

talking

b)

speed

c)

dragging

d)

distance

255.

The following are pattern of creative rhythmic activities except ________

a)

dancing

b)

hopping

c)

looking

d)

marching

256.

which of the following is not a command in starting a relay races?

a)

On your mark

b)

stand

c)

set

d)

go

257.

Hockey is a game played by two teams of ____________players each.

a)

11

b)

22

c)

5

d)

7

258.

In hockey,______are the goal poachers;they collect the ball from the mid fielder.

a)

Goal keeper

b)

Defenders

c)

Attackers

d)

Midfielder

259.

Midfielders in hockey are also called______

a)

Forwards

b)

Full backs

c)

Half backs

d)

None of above

260.

All of these are techniques in hockey EXCEPT______

a)

Throwing

b)

Dribble

c)

Push

d)

Drive

261.

A team of handball players consists of_____

a)

10

b)

4

c)

3

d)

7

262.

All of these are skills in handball EXCEPT_____

a)

Roll in

b)

Throwing

c)

Catching

d)

Shooting

263.

In handball, the ability of moving the ball from the opponent is_____

a)

Shooting

b)

Throwing

c)

Dribbling

d)

Catching

264.

.___________is the escape of blood from the blood vessels

a)

Wound

b)

Sprain

c)

Bleeding

d)

Dislocation

265.

._____ and_______are some of the styles in long jump.

a)

Run up

b)

Scissor

c)

Fosbury flop

d)

The sail

266.

.___________is the last stage in long jump.

a)

Run up

b)

Landing

c)

Take off

d)

Throwing

267.

An organized noise to produce a pleasant sound to the ear is_____________

a)

Noise

b)

Drama

c)

Music

d)

Sound

268.

_______________are diseases spread by another.

a)

Headache

b)

Water borne diseases

c)

Organism

d)

Stomach ache

269.

A track and field event in which athletes run a present distance carrying a balon before passing it onto the next runner is__________

a)

Long jump

b)

Relay race

c)

Football

d)

Hockey

270.

._______________________are combinations of physical movements with sounds,beats,or music that leads people to satisfy their needs for self-expression

a)

Rhythmic activities

b)

Physical fitness

c)

High jump

d)

Long jump

271.

These are the examples of locomotive movement EXCEPT.

a)

Galloping

b)

Hopping

c)

Sliding

d)

Hanging

272.

These are the basic skills in Handball EXCEPT_________.

a)

Throwing

b)

Catching

c)

Dribbling

d)

Kicking

273.
Yoga helps improve which component of fitness the most...
a)
Flexibility
b)
Speed
c)
Muscle Strength
d)
Agility
274.
 Bench pressing heavier weights helps accomplish which health related component of fitness the most...
a)
Body Composition
b)
Flexibility
c)
Muscle Endurance
d)
Muscle Strength
275.

What are the benefits of being active?

a)

Healthier lifestyle

b)

Decrease risks of cancer

c)

Decrease heart rate

d)

All of the above

276.

What do we call physical activity done to keep the body fit and healthy?

a)

Program

b)

Endurance

c)

Flexibility

d)

Exercise

277.

What sport is this?

a)

Water Polo

b)

Running

c)

Gymnastics

d)

Yoga

278.

The practice or skill of using a bow to shoot arrows.

a)

Paragliding

b)

Riding

c)

Running

d)

Archery

279.
What sport is it?
a)
Football
b)
Baseball
c)
Karate
d)
Sumo
280.
What sport is it?
a)
Baseball
b)
Basketball
c)
Cycling
d)
Horse riding
281.
What sport is it?
a)
Skiing
b)
Ice hockey
c)
Skating
d)
Cricket
282.
What sport is it?
a)
Horse riding
b)
Skiing
c)
Speed skating
d)
Ski jumping
283.
What sport is it?
a)
Ski jumping
b)
Skiing
c)
Basketball
d)
Skating
284.

What's the name of this sport?

a)

skate boarding

b)

rollerblading

285.

What's the name of this sport?

a)

volleyball

b)

basketball

286.

What's the name of this sport?

a)

wrestling

b)

weightlifting

287.

1- Why the warm-up is necessary in PE class?

a)

to increase heart rate

b)

to increase body temperature

c)

all of above

288.

1- What is the importance of safety in PE class?

a)

to avoid injuries

b)

to enjoy playing

c)

to play together

289.

A person or a team that has won an important sports event

a)

champion

b)

record

c)

medal

290.

A group of people who play a sport or a game

a)

team

b)

player

c)

fans

291.

Which sport has eleven players on the field but only ONE player can touch the ball with their hands.

a)

Soccer

b)

Cricket

c)

Hockey

d)

Rugby

292.

Which of the following sports does not involve a ball?

a)

Tennis

b)

Squash

c)

Badminton

d)

Soccer

293.

Which three sports form a triathlon?

a)

Cycling, running, discus

b)

Javelin, swimming, cycling

c)

Swimming, cycling, running

d)

Running, cycling and shooting

294.

It is the ability to react and make decisions.

a)

Coordination

b)

Endurance

c)

Reaction Time

d)

Strength

295.

It is the ability of the body part to move at the joint in full range of motion.

a)

Balance

b)

Agility

c)

Flexibility

d)

Speed

296.

Identify and classify the pictures as shown based on the components of health and skill-related fitness

a)

Balance

b)

Cardiovascular

c)

Strength

d)

Speed

297.

Identify and classify the pictures as shown based on the components of health and skill-related fitness

a)

Speed

b)

Cardiovascular

c)

Power

d)

Agility

298.

The ability to control and stabilize the body when a person is standing or moving is an example of:

a)

Agility

b)

Speed

c)

Balance

299.

Who invented the game of basketball?

a)

John Smith

b)

Labron James

c)

James Naismith

d)

Stephen Curry

300.

True or False: Balance is a skill related component that is needed for sports such as surfing or snowboarding.

a)

True

b)

False

301.

___________ is the ability to move various body parts in harmony together

a)

reaction time

b)

balance

c)

coordination

d)

power