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OBMS,LIGHT,INSTRUMENTS

Total questions: 38

Worksheet time: 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which system sends maintenance data to ground?

a)

ACARS

b)

ARINC

c)

OBRM

2.

During the CMC self-test process, if a fault is detected the result is

a)

Displayed on MCDU

b)

Displayed on ECAM

c)

transferred to Air Traffic Information Management System (ATIMS)

3.

The CMS allows the operator to obtain troubleshooting data from the systems and to initiate self-tests via MCDU. This mode is available

a)

In flight only.

b)

on ground only.

c)

during normal system operation.

4.

The CMC records all the fault history in the

a)

volatile memory.

b)

non volatile memory.

c)

Random access memory.

5.

When performing interruptive BITE test, the aircraft must be

a)

In flight mode with airspeed above 80knots.

b)

On ground with airspeed below 80knots.

c)

On ground with airspeed above 80knots.

6.

If a flight crew reported that the aircraft had to be flown with a constant rudder trim and carried out an interruptive BITE check that reveals nothing. What should be the next step?

a)

Check the fault history.

b)

Troubleshoot the rudder trim.

c)

Perform a continuity check on the system.

7.

On-board Maintenance System (OMS) has been developed to assist the Maintenance personnel in

a)

rectifying faults of complex avionics systems.

b)

fault finding complex avionics systems.

c)

identification of complex avionics systems.

8.

How can the Central Maintenance Computer functions be accessed?

a)

Through the Control Display Unit.

b)

Through the Built In Test Equipment system.

c)

Through the Flight Management System.

9.

When the aircraft speed is below 80 kts for more than 30 seconds, the Central Maintenance System (CMS) menu switches to

a)

flight mode.

b)

ground mode.

c)

landing mode.

10.

Failure that is still apparent even after reset is called

a)

Soft failure

b)

Hard failure

c)

Latched failure

11.

Interruptive BITE is carried out

a)

During start up.

b)

Continuously during normal system operation.

c)

By the maintenance personnel on ground.

12.

The tail navigation light should have an angle of divergence of

a)

180 degrees

b)

120 degrees

c)

140 degrees

13.

Port and starboard steady navigation light must be visible through

a)

70 degrees

b)

110 degrees

c)

180 degrees

14.

Fluorescent tubes for the cabin lighting are powered by

a)

AC

b)

DC

c)

Either AC or DC

15.

28V DC is supplied to the emergency lighting system for

a)

Emergency operation

b)

Battery charging

c)

Emergency exit lights only

16.

If the emergency lighting system has to be switched on immediately for safety reasons, this is done by setting the

a)

Switch emergency light to ON.

b)

Switch emergency light to ARM.

c)

switch emergency light to EMG.

17.

Fluorescent escape path lights are installed in the

a)

cabin floor of the aircraft.

b)

above door of the aircraft.

c)

every seat of the aircraft.

18.

Left and right wing strobe lights are coloured in

a)

green.

b)

red.

c)

white.

19.

All internal and external lighting system can be controlled from the

a)

Control Display Unit (CDU).

b)

cockpit overhead switch panel.

c)

cabin main control panel.

20.

An EXIT sign light is installed at each emergency exit to enable the passengers to locate the exits easily in bad light or smoke conditions. It is supplied with

a)

6.1V DC.

b)

115 V AC.

c)

28 V DC.

21.

Before shutting down the engine, the emergency light switch must be

a)

set to the NULL position.

b)

set to the ON position.

c)

set to the OFF position.

22.

How long will the emergency lights stay illuminated when the main aircraft power supply fails?

a)

10 minutes.

b)

20 minutes.

c)

30 minutes.

23.

Port and starboard wing navigation lights are coloured

a)

red for port and green for starboard.

b)

green for port and red for starboard.

c)

white for port and red for starboard.

24.

During the normal straight and level flight, the gyro of an electrical artificial horizon is kept erect in pitch by

a)

pendulous vane erection unit and commutator switch.

b)

ball-type erection unit and mercury switch system.

c)

Torque Motor and Levelling Switch System.

25.

How does a change of gyro rotor speed affect the gyro rate of precession?

a)

If the rotor speed increases, the rate of precession increases.

b)

If the rotor speed decreases, the rate of precession decreases.

c)

If the rotor speed increases, the rate of precession decreases.

26.

Random drift of a gyro is caused by

a)

error in roll when aircraft is turning.

b)

aircraft turning with an error in roll.

c)

gyro friction and imbalance.

27.

During compass swing, the compass recorded North error -2 degrees and South error - 2 degrees. What is the coefficient 'C' of the compass?

a)

+2 degrees.

b)

-2 degrees.

c)

0 degrees.

28.

Which barometric instrument uses a restrictor to compute its output?

a)

Machmeter.

b)

Vertical Speed Indicator.

c)

Airspeed Speed Indicator.

29.

What is the maximum altitude range for radio altimeter?

a)

1,500 ft.

b)

2,500 ft.

c)

10,000 ft.

30.

A Pilot wants to set the Command bars in flight director indicator to provide vertical guidance to hold the aircraft at the desired altitude. The pilot will select

a)

GA mode.

b)

IAS mode.

c)

ALT mode.

31.

What is the warning activated by the Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) if it indicates that the aircraft is descent after takeoff?

a)

PULL UP light and DON'T SINK audio

b)

PULL UP light and SINK RATE audio

c)

MINIMUMS audio is heard.

32.

Rapid response type thermocouple is used for

a)

Turbofan engine.

b)

Turbojet engine

c)

Turboprop engine

33.

What is the formula of coefficient 'B' in compass swing procedure?

a)

Deviation on South - Deviation on North divide by 2

b)

Deviation on North - Deviation on South divide by 2

c)

Deviation on east - deviation on west divide by 2

34.

A technician push and turn the caging knob on a heading indicator to set the instrument are to

a)

indicate the same heading as the magnetic compass.

b)

indicate the same heading as the Global Position indicator.

c)

indicate the same heading as the Automatic Direction Finder.

35.

The output voltage of a thermocouple is determined by

a)

the temperature at the hot junction using bridge rectifier.

b)

the resistance of the thermocouple lead using shunt resistor.

c)

the temperature difference between the hot and cold junction.

36.

Magnetic variation is the difference in angle between

a)

true north and magnetic north

b)

magnetic heading and aircraft heading

c)

the compass north and magnetic north

37.

The Ground Proximity Warning Computer in mode 4 would use which inputs to issue a warning?

a)

A low range altimeter and rate of change of low range altimeter

b)

A low range altimeter and configuration of aircraft

c)

A low range altimeter and GPS

38.

During an automatic landing, the aircraft descent rate is sensed by

a)

pitch rate gyros

b)

radio altimeters

c)

vertical accelerometers