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Job Design and HRM Quiz

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Job design primarily means

a)

Organizing tasks, duties, responsibilities into one job

b)

Scheduling shifts for existing jobs

c)

Benchmarking pay across firms

d)

Mapping the company structure

2.

Which set lists the job design factors?

a)

Organizational, Environmental, Behavioral

b)

Financial, Legal, Cultural

c)

Strategic, Tactical, Operational

d)

Technical, Political, Ethical

3.

In the diagram, what follows Job Design?

a)

Productive and satisfying job

b)

Strategic planning cycle

c)

Recruitment and selection

d)

Training and appraisal

4.

The feedback arrow loops back to

a)

The factors influencing job design

b)

The payroll and benefits desk

c)

Customer service workflow

d)

The external labor market

5.

Job Rotation is best described as

a)

Periodic movement among tasks or positions

b)

Adding similar-level tasks to a role

c)

Giving more autonomy and accountability

d)

Splitting one job into micro steps

6.

Job Enlargement means

a)

Adding more tasks at the same responsibility level

b)

Moving staff between roles on a schedule

c)

Delegating key decisions to the jobholder

d)

Outsourcing noncore duties to vendors

7.

Job Enrichment focuses on

a)

Greater autonomy, feedback, learning, accountability

b)

More tasks with unchanged responsibility

c)

Faster rotation across departments

d)

Tighter supervision and detailed rules

8.

On the comparison chart, which shows highest impact and complexity?

a)

Socio-technical systems

b)

Job enrichment

c)

Job engineering

d)

Job rotation

9.

On the chart, which has lowest impact and complexity?

a)

Job rotation

b)

Job enlargement

c)

Job enrichment

d)

Job engineering

10.

Which is listed as a contemporary job design issue?

a)

Telecommuting

b)

Brand repositioning

c)

Equity financing

d)

Office relocation

11.

Which approach stresses careful written contracts?

a)

PM

b)

HRM

c)

HRM

d)

PM

12.

Which approach is described as fast?

a)

HRM

b)

PM

c)

PM

d)

HRM

13.

How are people viewed in the respective approaches?

a)

HRM

b)

PM

c)

PM

d)

HRM

14.

Which is a valid Action Plan after reconciling HR numbers?

a)

Redundancy plan

b)

Paint refresh

c)

Coffee supplier swap

d)

Logo update

15.

Which item is unique to Manpower Planning vs Recruitment?

a)

Demand/supply forecasting and reconciliation

b)

AIDA copywriting

c)

Interview scoring

d)

Offer letter templates

16.

One JCM psychological state is:

a)

Knowledge of results

b)

Pride in uniform

c)

Brand loyalty

d)

Vacation readiness

17.

Which is a core JCM characteristic?

a)

Task significance

b)

Seniority

c)

Brand affinity

d)

Span of control

18.

Which model balances stakeholder interests and employee well-being?

a)

Harvard

b)

Fombrun

c)

Guest

d)

Harvard

19.

In the Harvard model, which group is under HRM Policy Choices?

a)

Employee influence; HR flow; rewards; work systems

b)

Commitment; competence; congruence; cost effectiveness

c)

Hiring; training; appraisal; compensation

d)

Selection; appraisal; rewards; HRD

20.

In the Guest model, which are Behavioral Outcomes?

a)

Motivation; cooperation; organizational citizenship

b)

Commitment; quality; flexibility

c)

Productivity; innovation; quality

d)

Individual well-being; organizational effectiveness

21.

What similarity is noted across all three models?

a)

All link HR to better performance

b)

Only Harvard connects HR to profit

c)

Only Guest ties HR to quality

d)

Fombrun denies the HR-performance link

22.

In the Harvard model, which are Long-term Consequences?

a)

Individual well-being; organizational effectiveness; societal well-being

b)

Commitment; competence; congruence; cost effectiveness

c)

Motivation; cooperation; organizational citizenship

d)

Hiring; training; appraisal; compensation

23.

Which model is described as performance-focused with limited welfare?

a)

Fombrun

b)

Harvard

c)

Guest

d)

Harvard

24.

How is the Guest model characterized in the text?

a)

Integrates both; aligns strategy and commitment

b)

Purely people-oriented with stakeholder balance

c)

Purely performance-focused with limited welfare

d)

Avoids commitment and strategy emphasis

25.

In the Harvard model, which set is under Stakeholders' Interest?

a)

Shareholders; management; employee groups; government; community; unions

b)

Workforce traits; business strategy; labor market

c)

Hiring; training; appraisal; compensation

d)

Commitment; competence; congruence; cost effectiveness

26.

Which assumption is stated for Strategic HR?

a)

Supports long-term goals via people development

b)

Optimizes short-term performance and benefits

c)

Balances organization and employee interests

d)

Emphasizes immediate efficiency over well-being

27.

Verifying education and employment is the role of:

a)

Background analysis

b)

Panel interview

c)

Assessment center

d)

Induction

28.

Aptitude and personality measures are:

a)

Selection tests

b)

Exit interviews

c)

Job offers

d)

Wage surveys

29.

In Recruitment, which step answers 'where/how/when to source'?

a)

Screening

b)

Strategy development

c)

Job offer

d)

Onboarding

30.

Which feature best distinguishes Recruitment from Selection?

a)

Recruitment ends at receiving applications

b)

Recruitment runs medical exams

c)

Recruitment issues contracts

d)

Recruitment does reference checks

31.

According to JCM, to raise MPS you should especially raise:

a)

Autonomy and feedback

b)

Seniority and hours

c)

Office size and parking

d)

Team size and span of control

32.

Which external items typically appear on an HRM environment diagram?

a)

Strategy, task, leadership

b)

Judiciary, suppliers, globalization

c)

Unions, culture, professional bodies

d)

Job analysis and job design

33.

In the S1-S5 diagnosis, 'training only' solution corresponds to:

a)

S2

b)

S1

c)

S4

d)

S5

34.

The typical first step in the training process is:

a)

Implementation

b)

Needs assessment

c)

Evaluation

d)

Budgeting

35.

The formula for MPS (Motivating Potential Score) is:

a)

(SV + TI + TS)/3 × Autonomy × Feedback

b)

SV × TI × TS × Autonomy

c)

SV + TI + TS + Autonomy + Feedback

d)

(Autonomy + Feedback)/2 × SV

36.

'Unions' are categorized as:

a)

Internal forces

b)

External forces

c)

Cultural forces

d)

Technological forces

37.

S3 indicates the solution requires:

a)

Training + non-training actions

b)

Training only

c)

Layoffs only

d)

Appraisals only

38.

S2 indicates the gap can be closed by:

a)

Non-training only

b)

Training only

c)

Neither

d)

Overtime

39.

Measuring results of training is:

a)

Evaluation

b)

Recruitment

c)

HRIS

d)

Payroll audit

40.

Delivering the program is called:

a)

Implementation

b)

Objective setting

c)

Screening

d)

Background check

41.

In the Harvard model, what comes after HRM Policy Choices?

a)

HR Outcomes

b)

Long-term Consequences

c)

Stakeholders Interest

d)

Situational Factors

42.

In the Guest model, which stage is just before Performance Outcomes?

a)

Behavioral Outcomes

b)

HR Outcomes

c)

HRM Practices

d)

Final Outcomes

43.

Which set is shown as negative Performance Outcomes in the Guest model?

a)

Low productivity, absenteeism, turnover

b)

Productivity, innovation, quality

c)

Profits, ROI

d)

Commitment, quality, flexibility

44.

Which model explicitly lists Employee influence under policy choices?

a)

Harvard

b)

Guest

c)

Fombrun

d)

Strategic HR

45.

Which model links Selection, Appraisal, Rewards to OE?

a)

Fombrun

b)

Guest

c)

Harvard

d)

Strategic HR

46.

Which model emphasizes balancing stakeholder interests and well-being?

a)

Harvard

b)

Fombrun

c)

Guest

d)

Strategic HR

47.

Which model is characterized as mechanistic in the text?

a)

Fombrun

b)

Harvard

c)

Guest

d)

Strategic HR

48.

Which model is described as more humanistic in the text?

a)

Harvard

b)

Guest

c)

Fombrun

d)

Strategic HR

49.

Which model is said to strike a balance between strategy and engagement?

a)

Guest

b)

Harvard

c)

Fombrun

d)

Strategic HR

50.

Which item is listed under Situational Factors in the Harvard model?

a)

Workforce characteristics

b)

Employee influence

c)

Profits

d)

Motivation

51.

In the Guest model, which belong to HRM Practices?

a)

Hiring, training, appraisal, compensation

b)

Commitment, quality, flexibility

c)

Motivation, cooperation, citizenship

d)

Profits, ROI

52.

Which option is not part of HR Outcomes in the Harvard model?

a)

Flexibility

b)

Commitment

c)

Competence

d)

Congruence

53.

Which model lists Societal well-being as a result?

a)

Harvard

b)

Fombrun

c)

Guest

d)

Strategic HR

54.

Which item belongs in Job Description?

a)

Machines, tools, equipment

b)

Emotional traits

c)

Physical skills

d)

Sensory demands

55.

Which item belongs in Job Specification?

a)

Education, experience, training

b)

Job title, location

c)

Materials and forms

d)

Working hazards

56.

Which appears under Job Description?

a)

Supervision given or received

b)

Judgement and initiative

c)

Communication skills

d)

Physical efforts

57.

Which appears under Job Specification?

a)

Emotional characteristics

b)

Job summary and duties

c)

Machines and tools

d)

Working conditions

58.

In the process diagram, what follows Gather Information?

a)

Process Information

b)

Strategic Choices

c)

Job Specification

d)

HR Planning

59.

What is the final output in the process flow?

a)

Job Specification

b)

Job Description

c)

Gather Information

d)

Strategic Choices

60.

Which is a listed method for collecting job data?

a)

Observation

b)

Focus group

c)

Role play

d)

Web poll

61.

Which pair are listed methods?

a)

Interviews and Diary

b)

Brainstorm and Audit

c)

Benchmark and Survey

d)

Simulation and Trial

62.

Which HR activity is guided by JA in hiring?

a)

Recruitment & Selection

b)

Asset tracking

c)

Event planning

d)

Brand design

63.

Which HR activity uses JA to set pay?

a)

Remuneration

b)

Safety & Health

c)

Personnel files

d)

Corporate PR

64.

Which phase recognizes both outside labor market and internal policies?

a)

External & Internal Environment

b)

Employment Interview

c)

Selection Decision

d)

Evaluation

65.

What follows the Preliminary Interview in the flow?

a)

Selection Tests

b)

Reference Analysis

c)

Job Offer

d)

Physical Exam

66.

Which step verifies past employment, education, and records?

a)

Reference & Background Analysis

b)

Employment Interview

c)

Preliminary Interview

d)

Evaluation

67.

Which stage directly precedes the Employment Contract?

a)

Job Offer

b)

Selection Decision

c)

Physical Examination

d)

Evaluation

68.

At which point are many applicants first screened out?

a)

Preliminary Interview

b)

Employment Contract

c)

Evaluation

d)

Job Offer

69.

What is the intended outcome of 'new methods of selection'?

a)

Address bias and boost transparency

b)

Replace interviews entirely

c)

Lower training budgets only

d)

Guarantee perfect validity

70.

Which sequence places appraisal correctly in the chain?

a)

Job Analysis → Performance Standards → Performance Appraisal

b)

Performance Standards → Job Analysis → Appraisal

c)

Appraisal → Job Analysis → Standards

d)

Job Analysis → Appraisal → Standards

71.

Which is a listed objective of performance appraisal?

a)

Decide upon a pay raise

b)

Allocate office space

c)

Set product pricing

d)

Approve vendor contracts

72.

What does Job Evaluation primarily assess?

a)

The job's value from factors like responsibility, skill, conditions

b)

The employee's performance against set standards

c)

The team's outcomes for the quarter

d)

The firm's market position in the industry

73.

Job Evaluation is usually carried out

a)

Before an employee is appointed to the job

b)

After the annual performance cycle

c)

During the probationary period only

d)

After a promotion has been granted

74.

A key purpose of Job Evaluation is to

a)

Establish fair pay differentials

b)

Approve annual leave requests

c)

Allocate project teams

d)

Plan corporate advertising

75.

Regarding requirement, Job Evaluation is

a)

Not mandatory; sometimes used for lower-level jobs

b)

Mandatory for every job in all firms

c)

Optional but only for senior management

d)

Enforced by law in all industries

76.

Who typically conducts Job Evaluation?

a)

A job evaluation committee of internal and external members

b)

An employee self-review without oversight

c)

A peer-only panel from the same unit

d)

A single line manager acting alone

77.

What does Performance Appraisal primarily assess?

a)

The employee's on-the-job performance

b)

The comparative worth of the job

c)

The external wage levels in the market

d)

The physical hazards of the workplace

78.

Performance Appraisal is conducted

a)

After hiring and placement into a job

b)

Before recruitment begins

c)

Prior to any job analysis work

d)

Before the wage survey step

79.

A main purpose of Performance Appraisal is to

a)

Decide promotions, rewards, penalties, training, transfers

b)

Set pay differentials only

c)

Verify degrees and certificates only

d)

Classify jobs into grades only

80.

Regarding frequency, Performance Appraisal is

a)

Regular and compulsory for all jobs

b)

Occasional and optional for most jobs

c)

Done only for new employees

d)

Limited to temporary workers

81.

Who may carry out Performance Appraisal?

a)

Self, peers, supervisors, groups, or a combination

b)

External consultants only

c)

HR payroll staff only

d)

Union representatives only

82.

Choose the correct Job Evaluation sequence.

a)

Objectives → Job Analysis → JD & JS → Evaluation Programme → Wage Survey → Employee Classification

b)

Job Analysis → Objectives → Evaluation Programme → JD & JS → Classification → Wage Survey

c)

Objectives → JD & JS → Wage Survey → Job Analysis → Programme → Classification

d)

JD & JS → Objectives → Programme → Job Analysis → Wage Survey → Classification

83.

Choose the correct Performance Appraisal sequence.

a)

Objectives → Establish Expectations → Design Programme → Appraise → Performance Interview → Archive Data → Use Data

b)

Establish Expectations → Objectives → Appraise → Design Programme → Use Data → Archive Data → Interview

c)

Objectives → Appraise → Design Programme → Establish Expectations → Interview → Use Data → Archive Data

d)

Design Programme → Objectives → Establish Expectations → Archive Data → Appraise → Interview → Use Data

84.

Which level asks if trainees liked the programme and facilities?

a)

Reaction

b)

Learning

c)

Behaviour

d)

Result

85.

Which measures fit the Learning level?

a)

Written tests, performance tests, graded simulations

b)

Appraisal by superior, peer, client, subordinate

c)

Accidents, quality, productivity, profits

d)

Questionnaires

86.

Which level checks if trainees use new skills on the job?

a)

Behaviour

b)

Reaction

c)

Result

d)

Learning

87.

Which group are Result-level measures?

a)

Accidents, quality, productivity, turnover, morale, costs, profits

b)

Written tests, simulations, task scores

c)

Appraisals by different raters

d)

Course reaction questionnaires

88.

Choose the correct order of levels (low to high).

a)

Reaction → Learning → Behaviour → Result

b)

Learning → Reaction → Result → Behaviour

c)

Behaviour → Result → Reaction → Learning

d)

Result → Behaviour → Learning → Reaction

89.

What does skill variety mainly capture?

a)

Use of diverse activities and abilities

b)

Control over schedules and methods

c)

Clarity of performance results

d)

Completion of an entire work cycle

90.

Task identity refers to

a)

Finishing a whole piece of work with a clear start-end

b)

The job's effect on other people

c)

Freedom to choose procedures

d)

Receiving timely performance cues

91.

Task significance is about

a)

The job's impact on others inside or outside the organisation

b)

The number of tools used on the job

c)

The sequence of activities within a shift

d)

The amount of pay tied to the job

92.

Autonomy in the model means

a)

Independence and discretion in organising and executing work

b)

Feedback from supervisors and clients

c)

Finishing a job from start to finish

d)

Variety in tasks within a role

93.

Feedback is best defined as

a)

Direct, clear, timely information on one's own performance

b)

Periodic rotation across departments

c)

Authority to set personal objectives

d)

Formal approval to finish a project

94.

Which set feeds experienced meaningfulness of work?

a)

Skill variety, task identity, task significance

b)

Autonomy, feedback, task identity

c)

Skill variety, autonomy, feedback

d)

Task significance, autonomy, feedback

95.

Which core characteristic leads to experienced responsibility for outcomes?

a)

Autonomy

b)

Feedback

c)

Task identity

d)

Skill variety

96.

Which core characteristic produces knowledge of results?

a)

Feedback

b)

Autonomy

c)

Task significance

d)

Skill variety

97.

When the psychological states are strong, the model predicts

a)

High motivation, performance, and satisfaction

b)

Low autonomy and low turnover

c)

High pay and low absenteeism

d)

Stable hours and wider task lists

98.

Choose the correct MPS expression.

a)

(SV + TI + TS)/3 × Autonomy × Feedback

b)

(SV × TI × TS)/3 + Autonomy + Feedback

c)

(Autonomy + Feedback)/2 × (SV + TI + TS)

d)

(SV + TI + TS + Autonomy + Feedback)/5

99.

For a job to have high motivating potential, which condition must hold?

a)

At least one of SV, TI, TS is high and both autonomy and feedback are high

b)

All five characteristics must be at maximum

c)

Autonomy alone must be high

d)

Feedback alone must be high