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SOAL UJIAN RATING D VERSI 2

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Civil Aviation Safety Regulations Part 69 on Licensing, Rating, Training and Proficiency of Aviation Navigation Personnel is contained in

a)

Minister of Transportation Regulation Number 62 of 2017

b)

Minister of Transportation Regulation Number 93 of 2016

c)

Minister of Transportation Regulation Number 64 of 2011

d)

Minister of Transportation Regulation Number 87 of 2021

2.

The following equipment is included in the Data Processing rating group in accordance with the regulation of the Minister of Transportation number 87 of 2021 are

a)

ATC Automation, Message Handling System, A-SMGCS, AIM Automation

b)

SMR, ATIS, MLAT, ADSB

c)

Microwave Landing System, Voice Recorde, Direct Speech

d)

ADSC, GBAS, PAR

3.

Regulations on Technical Operating Guidelines Civil Aviation Safety Regulations Part 172-03 Performance Requirements, Maintenance Procedures, And Reporting Of Aviation Telecommunication Facilities are contained in

a)

KP 103 of 2015

b)

KP 35 of 2019

c)

KP 017 of 2017

d)

PR DJPU 08 of 2025

4.

Regulation on Technical and Operating Standards (Manual Of Standard CASR 171-02) Technical Specifications of Aviation Telecommunication Facilities contained in

a)

KP 103 of 2015

b)

KP 528 of 2015

c)

KP 017 of 2017

d)

KP 35 of 2019

5.

Which of the following statements is not a primary objective of maintaining aeronautical telecommunication facilities?

a)

Ensuring Availability

b)

Ensuring Reliability by increasing the Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)

c)

Increasing the Mean Time To Repair (MTTR)

d)

Preventing facilities from operating outside of established standards

6.

In the options below, which are AFTN stations in Indonesia except

a)

port station

b)

Communication Center station

c)

Sub Center station

d)

Tributary Station

7.

The following are the conditions for exchanging messages over the AFTN network except

a)

send information in the form of text

b)

Messages sent up to 1800 characters long

c)

Send to more than 21 addresses

d)

Transfer data by using serial transmission

8.

How many digits is the AFTN sequence number according to Annex 10 Volume 2

a)

3 digit

b)

4 digit

c)

5 digit

d)

Answers a and b are correct

9.

Mention the function of "Init." on the AMSC ELSA AROMES 1003QI+ server monitor display

a)

For information on each channel

b)

Information on AMSC equipment

c)

Format removable storage

d)

Shutdown

10.

Explain the function of “Q” on the AMSC ELSA AROMES 1003QI+ Server display

a)

Indicate a monitored channel

b)

Indicate the transmit sequence number

c)

Indicate the message queue on the channel

d)

Indicate alternate channels

11.

What are the following options that are part of the heading in the AFTN message format

a)

FF WIIIYFYX

b)

NNNN

c)

ZCZC IRA001 090200

d)

090200 WAAAYFYX

12.

A feature in AMSC Server that functions to provide message delivery with AFTN format sent through the system in accordance with the distribution list of each address that has been pre-configured through Supervision & Correction Terminal is

a)

AFTN Message Diversion (Route Alternative)

b)

Message Cancellation

c)

Preterdemined Distribution (PDAI)

d)

AFTN Routing Indicator Analysis

13.

Select the correct statement from the AMSC Server display below

a)

messages that go out through channel 01 will not be sent or held so that the Q queue will increase

b)

Messages that go to channel 01 will be alternated to channel 02.

c)

Messages sent and received on channel 02 will be alternated to channel 01.

d)

Messages sent over channel 01 will be sent over channel 1

14.

The cable distance between AMSC Server to an AFTN Teleprinter is shorter than 50 meters, so when installing it is expected to get the best and optimal results. Choose the method used to get optimal results

a)

Current-Loop and ITA-2 to avoid garble even at low speeds

b)

RS-232 and IA-5 for optimal and high reliability.

c)

Current-Loop and IA-5 for fast.

d)

RS-232 and ITA-2 for best speeds

15.

Priotity Indicator on the AFTN message that will be sent that shows important / emergency messages that must arrive at the destination immediately, namely

a)

SS

b)

DD

c)

FF

d)

KK

16.

The AMHS facility at Airnav Indonesia JATSC office operates normally for 715 hours out of 720 hours (24 hours x 30 days) in a month. Calculate availability at AMHS facilities in months

a)

99,3 %

b)

90 %

c)

99 %

d)

100 %

17.

The unit consists of the main CPU and auxiliary CPU where the processing of incoming and outgoing data is coordinated by this unit. This statement is a function of

a)

Technical Supervision

b)

Monitor Teleprinter

c)

Statistik Printer

d)

Message Processing Unit

18.

A facility contained in the AMSC Server that is used to detect errors in the input message (Incoming Message Fault) and indicate the fault automatically to the source station (sender) or to the system operator to take corrective action is

a)

Service Message Generator

b)

Circuit Protection

c)

Midnight Check

d)

System Overload Protection

19.

The correct statement is the difference between AMSC and AMHS is

a)

The total number of characters on AMSC is 2400 characters while AMHS is unlimited

b)

AMHS supports text, xml, images, videos and attachments while AMSC only supports text

c)

AMSC uses the X400 protocol while AMHS uses the x25 protocol

d)

AMHS uses AFTN address while AMSC uses O/R address

20.

What protocol is used in AMHS in exchanging messages

a)

X40

b)

X27

c)

X400

d)

X250

21.

Choose the right answer that is the priority message on AMHS

a)

SS, DD&FF, GG&KK

b)

Normal, abnormal, Contingency

c)

Special Service, Normal Service , Abnormal service

d)

Urgent, Normal, Non Urgent

22.

Choose the correct answer which is a function of the Message Transfer Agent

a)

Message submission

b)

Message delivery

c)

Storage

d)

Routing

23.

What transport protocol is used if communication between AMHS uses ATN

a)

ISO 8073 Class 4 Transport Protocol (TP4)

b)

ISO 8073 Class 3 Transport Protocol (TP0)

c)

ISO 8073 Class 2 Transport Protocol (TP2)

d)

ISO 8073 Class 1 Transport Protocol (TP1)

24.

What is the communication protocol used between user agent and the message transfer agent in Figure X400 Architecture and AMHS Protocol

a)

P1

b)

P2

c)

P3

d)

P7

25.

The figure below is an illustration of the delivery of the "probe" service. Select the following multiple choice which is correct. Why the service probe is not addressed to the Destination User Agent

a)

Service probe is not addressed to the user agent because the function of generating delivery report and non delivery report is Message Transfer Agent

b)

Service probe is not sent to the destination user agent because there is a disruption to the Message transfer agent network and destination user agent

c)

The service probe is not addressed to the destination user agent because it is considered the wrong format by the Message Transfer Agent Destination

d)

All Answers are Correct

26.

The economic life of ATS System based on PER.046/LPPNPI/XII/2014 is

a)

RDPS FDPS 10 years, ASMGCS 10 years, Data Recording 10 years

b)

RDPS FDPS 10 years, ASMGCS 15 years, Data Recording 10 years

c)

RDPS FDPS 25 years, ASMGCS 10 years, Data Recording 10 years

d)

RDPS FDPS 10 years, ASMGCS 10 years, Data Recording 15 years

27.

The maximum CPU and Memory load requirements on servers and workstations in accordance with hardware specifications based on KP 103 Year 2015 are

a)

CPU maximum load 50% of CPU capacity and Memory maximum load 75% of memory capacity

b)

CPU maximum load 75% of CPU capacity and Memory maximum load 75% of memory capacity

c)

CPU maximum load 50% of CPU capacity and Memory maximum load 50% of memory capacity

d)

Maximum CPU load 50% of CPU capacity and No maximum Memory load on Memory usage

28.

Based on the Linux filesystem hierarchy below, the syntax is used to move from the sdd directory to /,  except

a)

cd ../../

b)

cd

c)

cd /sdd/home/   

d)

cd /

29.

RAID system (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) that use the mirroring method is 

a)

RAID 0

b)

RAID 1

c)

RAID 5

d)

RAID 6

30.

The update rate of a radar data on ATCAS is 7.5 seconds. What is the Root Per Minute for radar antenna

a)

8

b)

7,5

c)

4

d)

2

31.

Which statement is correct about the following datablock image

a)

Aircraft in MSAW alert condition

b)

Aircraft Ground Speed is 340 km/h

c)

Aircraft transponder set to 7500

d)

The aircraft's squawk number is 7700

32.

The Output Format results of Surveillance Data Processing System in the ATC Automation system is Asterix with category

a)

Cat. 34/48

b)

Cat. 21/23

c)

Cat. 19/20

d)

Cat. 62/65

33.

Take a look at the picture below. In conditions like the picture below, the alert that will be raised by the Safety Net Management server is

a)

MSAW

b)

STCA

c)

RAM

d)

DAIW

34.

The main thing to do before turning on the ATCAS Workstation, except 

a)

Ensuring the readiness of power sources

b)

Ensure AFTN channel baudrate

c)

Ensure monitor cable connection

d)

Ensure device I/O connection

35.

Check the Surveillance data on ASD from each source, things that can be done, except

a)

Enable STCA features

b)

Enable the monoradar feature

c)

Enable the Radar Bypass feature

d)

Run syntax tcpdump port

36.

In FPL lifecycle, Flight Plan data changes status to Active, if

a)

Get QAM messages

b)

Get a cancel message

c)

Get overflying messages

d)

Get a departure message

37.

The main thing is done before updating and restarting the ATCAS system

a)

Check the Request For Change document, coordination with AVSEC

b)

Check the Request For Change document, restart the AMSC channel to ATCAS

c)

Check the Request For Change document, backup ATCAS configuration

d)

Check the Request For Change document, backup LAN Switch configuration

38.

Which is included in the daily maintenance/level 1 (one) ATCAS equipment

a)

Check LED Indicator, clean ASD monitor, check CWP network link

b)

Check LED Indicator, clean the inside of the server PC, update data adaptation (VSP parameter)

c)

Check LED Indicator, perform HDD replacement, LAN cable recramping

d)

Check LED Indicator, workstation configuration file distributes,  service database restart

39.

The following measuring instruments are used in the DB-25 output port of MSSR Radar equipment. If LED pins number 2 and 24 are lit, means

a)

Transmit data is already available on the port

b)

Ethernet data is already available on the port

c)

Receive clock is already available on the port

d)

Asterix cat.21 data is already available on the port

40.

From the results of data capture via wireshark, choose the correct answer from the s tatement based on the following image

a)

IP source 192.168.10.41 ADSB data output via multicast 224.6.1.1

b)

IP source 192.168.10.41 PNK Radar data output via multicast 224.1.1.9

c)

IP source 192.168.10.135  CKG3 radar data output via multicast 224.6.1.1

d)

IP source 192.168.10.41 ADSB data output via multicast 224.1.1.6

41.

Surveillance data is analyzed using RAPS resulting in a greater Probability Detection (PD) value, this means

a)

Better quality surveillance data

b)

Poorer quality of surveillance data

c)

Better ATCAS processing quality

d)

ATCAS processing quality is worse

42.

Choose the incorrect answer below by looking at the following figure

a)

Stratum 0 has the highest time precision

b)

ATCAS Server only has stratum 3 as a time reference

c)

The ATCAS server synchronizes time over the network to the NTP server (sratum 1)

d)

Client B has more than one time reference

43.

Which is the correct statement below

a)

When ATCAS Server C Failed (power OFF) then Client C, D, E, F has no time reference

b)

When ATCAS Server C Failed (power OFF) and Client E Failed (Power OFF) then Client A, B, C, D, F still has a time reference

c)

When ATCAS Server C Failed (power OFF) and Client E Failed (Power OFF) then only Client A has a time reference

d)

When ATCAS Server C Failed (power OFF) and Client E Failed (Power OFF), the operational condition of all Clients and servers will be disrupted

44.

in case, a CWP shows different time compare with other node on the same ATCAS network, the main thing to do is

a)

cek update data dari AWOS

b)

cek delay time data surveillance

c)

restart CWPs NTPD service

d)

restart Server's NTPD service

45.

ADS-B Cilacap data is used by ATCAS in JATSC and Yogyakarta. In case, ADSB Cilacap data does not appear in JATSC, the main thing that JATSC technicians do, except

a)

Move the ADS-B ATCAS input port

b)

Compare ADSB data with ATCAS Yogyakarta

c)

Coordination of ADSB Cilacap conditions

d)

Coordination with communication media providers

46.

Which A-SMGCS subsystem must receive Mode S or Mode A/C signal to  find a targets position

a)

SMR

b)

MLAT

c)

FDPS

d)

Tracking and Alerting

47.

Types of Cooperative surveillance types in ASMGCS except

a)

Reception of information from an active element (transponder) of equipped mobiles

b)

Allows to collect mobile information such as identity and/or position

c)

Jakarta Airport: − ASR − MLAT (ERA)

d)

Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Contract

48.

The 4 basic functions of ASMGCS based on ICAO are

a)

Surveillance, Control, Planning/Routing, Guidance

b)

Level 1, level 2, level 3, level 4

c)

ACEMAX, HMI, SMCT, DSW

d)

MLAT, SMR, ADBS, SAFETY NET

49.

The following are some of the disadvantages of the ASMGCS system

a)

The quality of the displayed target position directly depends on the quality of the MLAT data

b)

Unable to detect Target without transponder

c)

The flight plan quality of an automatic target directly depends on the accuracy of the flight plan and whether or not the transponder code is processed by ASMGCS

d)

All answers are correct

50.

The following types of Asterix are used based on the MLAT data source interface in ASMGCS

a)

Asterix CAT 10

b)

Asterix CAT 1/2  and CAT 34/48

c)

Asterix CAT 21

d)

Asterix CAT 11,19,20