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Cuestionario de Seguridad en Procesos 6

Total questions: 29

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Process safety mainly deals with:

a)

high frequency, high severity risks.

b)

low frequency, high severity risks.

c)

low frequency, low severity risks.

d)

high frequency, low severity risks.

2.

Within a change management procedure, the final approval for the removal of a critical safety device must be given by a:

a)

senior manager.

b)

lead operator.

c)

chemical engineer.

d)

process technician.

3.

Benchmarking is used to identify best practices in:

a)

committees.

b)

organizations.

c)

techniques.

d)

procedures.

4.

What is the most important benefit of involving workers in risk assessments?

a)

reduce resistance and conflict when introducing risk assessments.

b)

ensure there is a balanced representation of workers and managers.

c)

allow employers and employees to fully comply with legal requirements.

d)

gather detailed practical knowledge about hazards and risks in the workplace.

5.

Which of the following is the most direct evidence of a worker's competence?

a)

consistently performing a job-related task correctly according to the required standard.

b)

signing a document to confirm that a procedure has been read and understood.

c)

completing an attendance form after a safety talk on processes.

d)

performing a job-related task without harming oneself or others.

6.

Process organizations have a wide range of mitigation measures in place designed to reduce the consequences of a major incident. Which risk management technique is particularly suitable for evaluating the effectiveness of these mitigation measures?

a)

Failure Modes and Effects Analysis (FMEA)

b)

Event Tree Analysis (ETA)

c)

Risk Assessment (RA)

d)

Hazard Identification (HAZID)

7.

Which of the following is an example of planned preventive maintenance?

a)

daily visual inspections of the process plant.

b)

greasing of pump bearings.

c)

regular sampling of products.

d)

emission testing of chimneys.

8.

What is a proactive maintenance strategy associated with asset integrity?

a)

condition monitoring.

b)

failure maintenance.

c)

inherently safe design.

d)

redundancy.

9.

The key elements of a process safety management system follow the Plan Do Check Act model. The implementation and operations align with which part of the model?

a)

Plan.

b)

Do.

c)

Check.

d)

Act.

10.

What would be discussed between a permit issuer and a contracted worker before the start of a hot work permit?

a)

location of the break facilities.

b)

how to apply first aid for burns.

c)

operation of fire extinguishers.

d)

simultaneous operations.

11.

The handover of shifts is important. The most important aspect of the handover is because:

a)

the expected production rate must be understood by the incoming staff.

b)

accidents related to the process have occurred due to a communication failure in the handover of shifts.

c)

the staff needs to know about any management audits or inspections that are taking place.

d)

a verbal report is the most effective way to communicate to the incoming shifts any issues affecting a plant.

12.

A preferred method for conducting a shift handover is:

a)

face to face using verbal and written communication.

b)

by phone using verbal communication.

c)

through a logbook using written communication.

d)

by radio using verbal communication.

13.

Which of the following actions during the shift handover would have been most effective in preventing this accident?

a)

verbal communication in a quiet place between incoming and outgoing workers.

b)

confirmation of signed permits as completed.

c)

discussion of the recorded process controls performed by outgoing workers.

d)

a physical demonstration of the plant's status between incoming and outgoing workers.

14.

Which of the following is the most important consideration when selecting contractors?

a)

to demonstrate that they have no prior or pending compliance actions.

b)

to provide method statements, risk assessments, and safety policies.

c)

evidence of previous safe work and understanding of its impact on others.

d)

membership in a professional body and adequate insurance coverage for the work.

15.

What documents determine the selection of the contractor?

a)

performance.

b)

bidding.

c)

selection.

d)

monitoring.

16.

What are standard operating procedures?

a)

a hazard assessment and risk evaluation associated with an activity.

b)

a breakdown of a process into nodes to identify deviations from normal activity.

c)

a signed authority for a high-risk maintenance activity.

d)

a detailed written procedure documenting an activity step by step.

17.

What is saturated steam?

a)

where all the water has been converted into steam.

b)

where some liquid water is retained in the steam.

c)

steam under very high pressure.

d)

steam with a temperature above 200 °C.

18.

What is the hydrostatic test?

a)

a means to test the quality of water that will be used in a process.

b)

a means to ensure that the equipment is safe and will not leak.

c)

a means to ensure the supply of cooling water.

d)

a means to ensure that there are no blockages within the process pipe.

19.

Legionella bacteria grow at temperatures between:

a)

-10°C and -5°C.

b)

20°C and 55°C.

c)

60°C and 70°C.

d)

70°C and 100°C.

20.

What are the characteristics of inert gas?

a)

odorless, colorless, with very low chemical reactivity.

b)

odorless, colorless, with very high reactivity.

c)

odorless with very high reactivity.

d)

odorless, colorless, with very high reactivity.

21.

The severity of the injury received as a result of contact with electricity is minimized by:

a)

high current and low body resistance.

b)

low current and high voltage.

c)

low current and high body resistance.

d)

high current and high voltage.

22.

A thermal leak reaction can be controlled by emergency:

a)

alarms.

b)

evacuation.

c)

stoppages.

d)

cooling.

23.

Regarding process safety management, chemical warehouses must be managed and inspected routinely to ensure that:

a)

production is not affected if the stock runs out.

b)

incompatible materials are kept separate.

c)

the material can be accumulated ready for use.

d)

the stock is not left outside where it could be contaminated.

24.

Which of the following best describes a hazardous area in Zone 1?

a)

a place where an explosive mixture in the form of a combustible dust cloud in the air is likely to occur during normal operation occasionally.

b)

a place where an explosive atmosphere in the form of a flammable gas cloud in the air is likely to occur during normal operation occasionally.

c)

a place where an explosive atmosphere in the form of a combustible dust cloud in the air is unlikely to occur during normal operation, but if it does, it will only persist for a short period.

d)

a place where an explosive atmosphere in the form of a flammable gas cloud in the air is unlikely to occur during normal operation, but if it does, it will only persist for a short period.

25.

An external fire directly heats a container that holds a flammable liquid. The liquid begins to boil, increasing the pressure that opens a pressure relief valve. The level of the liquid inside the container drops, and the fire now starts to heat the container above the level of the liquid. The metal of the container thins, weakens, and breaks. What type of explosion does this describe?

a)

a confined vapor cloud explosion.

b)

a secondary explosion.

c)

a boiling liquid expanding vapor explosion.

d)

a non-confined vapor cloud explosion.

26.

The development of an emergency plan must consider areas that are:

a)

only on-site.

b)

either on-site or off-site.

c)

only off-site.

d)

on-site and off-site.

27.

What is the preferred fire extinguishing medium in a typical process control room?

a)

chemical powder.

b)

foam deluge.

c)

carbon dioxide.

d)

water deluge.

28.

In processes involving combustible powders, why is it especially important to maintain good cleanliness?

a)

the dust can accumulate on a variety of flat and irregular surfaces that can ignite spontaneously.

b)

the dust on surfaces can be disturbed by a primary explosion causing a larger secondary explosion.

c)

the accumulation of dust on surfaces can be clearly seen by visitors and gives a bad image of the company.

d)

the dust will negatively affect limit sensors and proximity switches, causing them to malfunction.

29.

An flammable liquid leaked from a storage container into the bund surrounding it. The liquid began to fill the bund. The liquid also started to seep through cracks in the bund and flow towards a faulty electric pump that is normally used to drain rainwater from the bund. Within minutes, the entire bund was on fire, taking several hours to extinguish. What is the best description of this type of fire?

a)

jet fire.

b)

pool fire.

c)

flash fire.

d)

secondary fire.