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Development and Economy Quiz

Total questions: 81

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

For development, people look at a mix of ______.

a)

goals

b)

responsibilities

c)

accountability

d)

none of the above

2.

To compare the development of countries, their _______ is considered to be one of the most important attributes.

a)

income

b)

population

c)

demographics

d)

none of the above

3.

For comparison between countries, total income is not such a useful measure. State whether true or false.

a)

true

b)

false

4.

Since countries have different _______, comparing total income will not tell us what an average person is likely to earn.

a)

economic policies

b)

reserves

c)

resources

d)

populations

5.

In World Development Reports, brought out by the_________, per capita income criterion is used in classifying countries.

a)

UNICEF

b)

World Bank

c)

World Economic Forum.

d)

United Nations

6.

Countries with per capita income of US$ 12616 per annum and above in 2012 are called ______.

a)

underdeveloped countries

b)

developing countries

c)

poor countries

d)

rich countries

7.

India comes in the category of ________ countries because its per capita income in 2012 was just US$ 1530 per annum.

a)

low middle income

b)

middle income

c)

high middle income

d)

none of the above

8.

Among the following states, __________ has the highest per capita income as per 2012-13 figures.

a)

Maharashtra

b)

Bihar

c)

Kerala

d)

Jharkhand

9.

Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) indicates the number of children that die before the age of ____________ as a proportion of 100 live children born in that particular year.

a)

four years

b)

one year

c)

two years

d)

three years

10.

Literacy rate measures the proportion of the literate population in the _________ age group.

a)

10 and above

b)

21 and above

c)

7 and above

d)

18 and above

11.

Net Attendance Ratio is the total number of children of the age group ________ attending school as a percentage of the total number of children in the same age group.

a)

17 and 18 years

b)

9 and 10 years

c)

12 and 13 years

d)

14 and 15 years

12.

As per the 2011 census, which among the following states has the highest literacy rate?

a)

Kerala

b)

Maharashtra

c)

Bihar

d)

Odisha

13.

As per the 2011 census, which among the following states has the highest infant mortality rate per 1000 live births?

a)

Kerala

b)

Bihar

c)

Maharashtra

d)

All of the above

14.

From the given table in the chapter, which state has the highest net attendance ratio?

a)

Gujarat

b)

Maharashtra

c)

Kerala

d)

Bihar

15.

Which of the following statements about money are true?

a)

Money cannot buy you a pollution-free environment.

b)

Money cannot ensure that you get unadulterated medicines.

c)

Money may also not be able to protect you from infectious diseases.

d)

All of the above.

16.

If the Body Mass Index (BMI) is _________, then the adult person would be considered undernourished.

a)

less than 18.5

b)

less than 10.5

c)

less than 25.5

d)

less than 28.5

17.

If the Body Mass Index (BMI) is _________, then the adult person would be considered overweight.

a)

more than 18

b)

more than 30

c)

more than 45

d)

more than 25

18.

Human Development Report published by UNDP compares countries based on _________.

a)

health status

b)

per capita income

c)

educational levels of the people

d)

all of the above

19.

As per the 2013 report, ________ had the HDI rank of 135 in the world.

a)

Sri Lanka

b)

Pakistan

c)

India

d)

Bangladesh

20.

Among the following South Asian countries, ______ had the highest life expectancy at birth.

a)

Myanmar

b)

Sri Lanka

c)

Nepal

d)

India

21.

Agriculture, dairy, fishing, and forestry are examples of ________.

a)

tertiary Sector

b)

secondary Sector

c)

primary Sector

d)

none of the above

22.

The ___________covers activities in which natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing that we associate with industrial activity.

a)

secondary sector

b)

tertiary sector

c)

primary sector

d)

none of the above

23.

Which of the following comes under the tertiary sector?

a)

transport

b)

communication

c)

both (a) & (b)

d)

none of the above

24.

Service sector also includes some essential services that may not directly help in the production of goods. State whether true or false.

a)

true

b)

false

25.

__________ shows how big the economy of a country is.

a)

GSDP

b)

GDP

c)

PPP

d)

None of the above

26.

In the past 100 years, there has been a further shift from _______ to ______ in developed countries. This has become the most important in terms of total production.

a)

secondary to the tertiary sector

b)

primary to the tertiary sector

c)

primary to the secondary sector

d)

none of the above

27.

In India, ____________ was the least producing sector in 2010-11.

a)

primary sector

b)

secondary sector

c)

tertiary sector

d)

quaternary sector

28.

In India, which sector grew the maximum from 1970-71 to 2010-11?

a)

primary sector

b)

secondary sector

c)

tertiary sector

d)

quaternary sector

29.

In 1970-71, which sector produced the maximum in India?

a)

tertiary sector

b)

secondary sector

c)

primary sector

d)

quaternary sector

30.

Which of the following statements are true regarding the services sector?

a)

As income levels rise, certain sections of people start demanding many more services like eating out, tourism, and shopping.

b)

Over the past decade or so, certain new services, such as those based on information and communication technology, have become important and essential.

c)

In the year 2010-11, the tertiary sector emerged as the largest producing sector in India, replacing the primary sector.

d)

All of the above.

31.

The _______ continues to be the largest employer in India.

a)

quaternary sector

b)

tertiary sector

c)

secondary sector

d)

primary sector

32.

In India, over a span of 40 years (from 1970 to 2010), while production in the service sector rose by more than 14 times, employment in the service sector rose around _____.

a)

five times

b)

twenty times

c)

ten times

d)

none of the above

33.

Workers in ______________ sector are under-employed.

a)

IT

b)

agricultural

c)

manufacturing

d)

none of the above

34.

More than half of the workers in the country are working in the primary sector, mainly in _________.

a)

fishing

b)

mining

c)

agriculture

d)

none of the above

35.

As per the same study by the former Planning Commission, if tourism as a sector is improved, every year we can give additional employment to more than _______ people.

a)

20 lakhs

b)

25 lakhs

c)

10 lakhs

d)

35 lakhs

36.

The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act was passed by the Government of India in __________.

a)

2005

b)

2010

c)

2004

d)

2014

37.

Under NREGA 2005, all those who are able to and are in need of work are guaranteed _______ of employment in a year by the government.

a)

180 days

b)

50 days

c)

200 days

d)

100 days

38.

Which of the following statements are true regarding the organised sector?

a)

Workers in the organised sector enjoy the security of employment.

b)

They are expected to work only a fixed number of hours.

c)

If they work more, they have to be paid overtime by the employer.

d)

All of the above.

39.

The unorganised sector is characterised by small and scattered units which are largely outside the control of the _______.

a)

employers

b)

private individuals

c)

government

d)

employees

40.

Which of the following statements are true regarding the unorganised sector?

a)

This sector includes a large number of people who are employed on their own doing small jobs.

b)

Employment is not secure.

c)

People can be asked to leave without any reason.

d)

All of the above.

41.

Double coincidence of wants means ____________.

a)

What a person desires to sell is exactly what the other person wishes to buy.

b)

What a person desires to sell is exactly what the other person also wishes to sell.

c)

What a person desires to buy is exactly what the other person also wishes to buy.

d)

None of the above.

42.

In a barter system where goods are directly exchanged without the use of money, double coincidence of wants is an essential feature.

a)

False

b)

True

43.

In India, _____________ issues currency notes on behalf of the Central Government.

a)

Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

b)

Ministry of Finance

c)

Finance Commission

d)

None of th

44.

In India, _____________ issues currency notes on behalf of the Central Government.

a)

Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

b)

Ministry of Finance

c)

Finance Commission

d)

None of the above

45.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

As per Indian law, apart from RBI, no other individual or organisation is allowed to issue currency.

b)

The law legalises the use of rupees as a medium of payment that cannot be refused in settling transactions in India

c)

No individual in India can legally refuse a payment made in rupees.

d)

All of the above.

46.

Banks in India these days hold about _________ of their deposits as cash.

a)

25 per cent

b)

20 per cent

c)

15 per cent

d)

5 per cent

47.

Banks use the major portion of the deposits to ______.

a)

Extend loans

b)

Invest in infrastructure

c)

Deposit in foreign banks

d)

None of the above

48.

The difference between what is charged from borrowers and what is paid to depositors is the main source of banks' income.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

In rural areas, the main demand for credit is for ________.

a)

Purchasing land

b)

Purchasing a house

c)

Medical expenses

d)

Crop production

50.

Which of the following is an example of collateral?

a)

Livestock

b)

Land

c)

Deposits with banks

d)

All of the above

51.

What are the different components of the terms of credit?

a)

Interest rate

b)

Documentation requirements

c)

Collateral

d)

All of the above

52.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

Members of a cooperative pool their resources for cooperation in certain areas.

b)

Besides banks, the other major source of cheap credit in rural areas is cooperative societies.

c)

There are several types of cooperatives possible, such as farmers cooperatives, weavers cooperatives, and industrial workers cooperatives.

d)

All of the above.

53.

Which of the following are examples of informal sector loans?

a)

Moneylenders

b)

Traders

c)

Cooperatives

d)

Only (a) and (b)

54.

As of 2012, the major source of credit to rural households in India was _______.

a)

Moneylenders.

b)

Commercial banks.

c)

Cooperative societies.

d)

Relatives and friends.

55.

Which of the following statements is false?

a)

There is no organisation which supervises the credit activities of lenders in the informal sector.

b)

RBI stops the money lenders from using unfair means to get their money back.

c)

Compared to the formal lenders, most of the informal lenders charge much lesser interest on loans

d)

Both (b) and (c)

56.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Periodically, banks do not submit information to the RBI on how much they are lending, to whom, at what interest rate, etc.

b)

The Reserve Bank of India does not supervise the functioning of formal sources of loans.

c)

The RBI monitors the banks in actually maintaining cash balances.

d)

None of the above.

57.

___________ of the loans taken by poor households in the urban areas are from informal sources.

a)

85 per cent

b)

70 per cent

c)

65 per cent

d)

50 per cent

58.

___________ of the loans taken by rich households in the urban areas are from formal sources.

a)

20 per cent

b)

10 per cent

c)

15 per cent

d)

90 per cent

59.

___________ of the loans taken by well-off households in the urban areas are from formal sources.

a)

54 per cent

b)

64 per cent

c)

72 per cent

d)

90 per cent

60.

___________ of the loans taken by households with few assets in the urban areas are from informal sources.

a)

72 per cent

b)

28 per cent

c)

53 per cent

d)

47 per cent

61.

Which of the following could lead to a debt trap?

a)

The high-interest rate for borrowing can mean that the amount to be repaid is greater than the income of the borrower.

b)

Higher cost of borrowing means a larger part of the earnings of the borrowers is used to repay the loan.

c)

The high-interest rate for borrowing can mean that the amount to be repaid is lesser than the income of the borrower.

d)

Both (a) and (b.)

62.

Which of the following statements are true about MNCs?

a)

A MNC is a company that owns or controls production in more than one nation.

b)

MNCs set up offices and factories for production in regions where they can get cheap labour and other resources.

c)

This is done so that the cost of production is low and the MNCs can earn greater profits.

d)

All of the above.

63.

The MNC not only sell its finished products globally but, more importantly, the goods and services are produced globally. State whether true or false.

a)

False

b)

True

64.

___________ provides the advantage of being a cheap manufacturing location.

a)

China

b)

Japan

c)

South Korea

d)

None of the above

65.

Cargill Foods, a very large ________ MNC, is the largest producer of edible oil in India, with a capacity to make 5 million pouches daily.

a)

Dutch

b)

French

c)

British

d)

American

66.

__________, footwear, and sports items are examples of industries where production is carried out by a large number of small producers around the world.

a)

Confectionery

b)

Garments

c)

Petroleum products

d)

None of the above

67.

__________, an American company, is one of the world's largest automobile manufacturers, with production spread over 26 countries of the world.

a)

Ford Motors

b)

Porsche

c)

Audi

d)

None of the above

68.

The products are supplied to the MNCs, which then sell them under their own brand names to the customers. These large MNCs have tremendous power to determine the _____.

a)

Price

b)

Quality

c)

Labour conditions for these distant producers

d)

All of the above

69.

Ford Motors came to India in _______ and spent Rs. 1700 crore to set up a large plant near Chennai.

a)

1995

b)

1999

c)

1990

d)

1998

70.

When Ford established its manufacturing plant in India, it collaborated with _______.

a)

Hero Motors

b)

Maruti Suzuki

c)

Tata Motors

d)

Mahindra & Mahindra

71.

Ford Motors was selling 27,000 cars in the Indian markets, while 24,000 cars were exported from India to South Africa, Mexico and _______.

a)

Brazil

b)

Argentina

c)

Chile

d)

None of the above

72.

Chinese toys have become more popular in the Indian markets. Within a year, ___________ of the toy shops have replaced Indian toys with Chinese toys.

a)

50 to 60 per cent

b)

80 to 90 per cent

c)

100 per cent

d)

70 to 80 per cent

73.

Which of the following is true regarding the opening of trade?

a)

Choice of goods in the markets rises.

b)

Producers in the two countries now closely compete against each other even though they are separated by thousands of miles.

c)

Foreign trade thus results in connecting the markets or integration of markets in different countries.

d)

All of the above.

74.

Globalisation is a process of slow integration or interconnection between countries. State whether true or false.

a)

False

b)

True

75.

___________ have led to a huge reduction in port handling costs and increased the speed with which exports can reach markets.

a)

Containers

b)

Cranes

c)

Elevators

d)

None of the above

76.

The cost of _______has fallen. This has enabled much greater volumes of goods being transported by _______.

a)

Air transport, airlines

b)

Road transport, four wheelers

c)

Rail transport, railways

d)

None of the above

77.

Governments can use trade barriers to increase or decrease (regulate) foreign trade and to decide what kinds of goods and how much of each should come into the country. State whether true or false.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is known as _____.

a)

Globalisation

b)

Disinvestment

c)

Privatisation

d)

Liberalisation

79.

Starting around ________, some far-reaching changes in policy were made in India. The government decided that the time had come for Indian producers to compete with producers around the globe.

a)

2011

b)

2001

c)

1991

d)

1981

80.

Nearly _________ countries of the world are members of the WTO as of June 2014.

a)

50

b)

100

c)

160

d)

200

81.

Started at the initiative of the ________, WTO establishes rules regarding international trade and sees that these rules are obeyed.

a)

Middle-income countries

b)

Poor countries

c)

Developing countries

d)

Developed countries