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Pharmacognosy Quiz

Total questions: 146

Worksheet time: 1hrs 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the literal meaning of the term "Pharmacognosy"?

a)

Study of drug actions

b)

Study of synthetic drugs

c)

Study of chemical synthesis

d)

Knowledge of drugs or pharmaceuticals

2.

Which of the following is NOT a feature of Pharmacognosy?

a)

Economic aspects like trade of natural drugs

b)

Development of synthetic drugs

c)

Biologic aspects like taxonomy and genetics

d)

Chemical aspects like isolation and purification

3.

Who presented the most comprehensive idea of the scope of Pharmacognosy?

a)

Fluckiger

b)

C.A. Seydler

c)

J.A. Schmidt

d)

Pedanios Dioscorides

4.

What does Plant Chemistry primarily deal with?

a)

Study of plant constituents and their biosynthesis

b)

Study of animal-derived drugs

c)

Study of drug actions

d)

Study of synthetic drug development

5.

Who is considered the father of modern Plant Chemistry?

a)

Li Shih-Chen

b)

Pedanios Dioscorides

c)

Scheele

d)

Galen

6.

What was the term used in Western culture for organized pharmaceutical and medical knowledge in the earliest days?

a)

Pharmacology

b)

Materia Medica

c)

Galenical Pharmacy

d)

Phytochemistry

7.

Which discipline focuses on the action of drugs?

a)

Pharmacognosy

b)

Phytochemistry

c)

Pharmacology

d)

Medicinal Chemistry

8.

What are crude drugs?

a)

Drugs mixed with artificial substances

b)

Drugs that have undergone extensive processing

c)

Drugs synthesized in laboratories

d)

Natural substances that have only been collected and dried

9.

Which of the following is an example of a crude drug?

a)

Tuberculin

b)

Chondrus

c)

Progesterone

d)

Xanthan gum

10.

What is the significance of "De Materia Medica"?

a)

It is a treatise on medical matter written by Pedanios Dioscorides

b)

It is the first Chinese drug encyclopedia

c)

It is a collection of hymns on healing herbs

d)

It introduced the term Pharmacognosy

11.

Who coined the term "Pharmacognosy"?

a)

Georg Ebers

b)

J.A. Schmidt

c)

C.A. Seydler

d)

Fluckiger

12.

What is the primary solvent used for extracting alkaloids?

a)

95% Ethanol

b)

5% NaOH

c)

Ether or chloroform

d)

Water

13.

What are secondary metabolites in plants known for?

a)

Being used only in food production

b)

Being abundant but low in value

c)

Being unique to a species and possessing therapeutic value

d)

Being the primary source of energy for plants

14.

What is the term for the solvent used in the extraction process?

a)

Menstruum

b)

Derivative

c)

Infusion

d)

Marc

15.

What is the "Pen-ts’ao kang mu"?

a)

A Chinese drug encyclopedia listing over 2000 natural drugs

b)

A Greek treatise on drugs

c)

An Indian collection of hymns on healing herbs

d)

An Egyptian papyrus on medicinal substances

16.

What is the primary purpose of harvesting drugs at the right time?

a)

To maximize the drug's active principles and quality

b)

To make the drug easier to process mechanically

c)

To reduce the cost of production

d)

To ensure the drug is free of contaminants

17.

Which of the following is NOT considered a carbohydrate based on its chemical composition?

a)

Ribose

b)

Fructose

c)

Glucose

d)

Lactic acid (CH3CHOHCOOH)

18.

What is the primary chemical definition of carbohydrates?

a)

Polyhydroxy aldehydes or polyhydroxy ketones

b)

Compounds containing nitrogen and sulfur

c)

Compounds that are insoluble in water

d)

Molecules with equal proportions of hydrogen and oxygen

19.

Which carbohydrate is responsible for the rigid cellular framework in plants?

a)

Fructose

b)

Starch

c)

Cellulose

d)

Inulin

20.

What distinguishes low molecular weight carbohydrates from high molecular weight carbohydrates?

a)

Low molecular weight carbohydrates are tasteless.

b)

High molecular weight carbohydrates are soluble in organic solvents.

c)

High molecular weight carbohydrates are crystalline.

d)

Low molecular weight carbohydrates are sweet and soluble in water.

21.

Which of the following is an example of a pentose sugar commonly found in plants?

a)

Glucose

b)

Fructose

c)

Ribose

d)

Mannose

22.

Hexoses are divided into two types based on their functional groups. Which of the following is a ketose?

a)

Fructose

b)

Glucose

c)

Mannose

d)

Galactose

23.

Which of the following is NOT a carbohydrate-containing drug?

a)

Lactulose

b)

Sucrose

c)

Dextrose

d)

Mannitol

24.

What type of glycosidic bond involves the sugar molecule being combined with the sulfur (S) or thiol (SH) group of the aglycone?

a)

N-glycosides

b)

C-glycosides

c)

O-glycosides

d)

S-glycosides

25.

Which of the following is a source of microbial gums?

a)

Acacia

b)

Agar

c)

Xanthan

d)

Pectin

26.

What is the chemical formula of anthraquinone?

a)

C14H8O2

b)

C7H14O4

c)

C3(H2O)3

d)

C6H12O6

27.

Which of the following glycosides is formed when the sugar molecule is directly attached to the carbon atom of the aglycone?

a)

N-glycosides

b)

C-glycosides

c)

S-glycosides

d)

O-glycosides

28.

What is the primary role of cardiac glycosides in medicine?

a)

Reducing inflammation

b)

Enhancing photosynthesis in plants

c)

Managing congestive heart failure

d)

Treating bacterial infections

29.

Which of the following is a characteristic of anthrones compared to anthranols?

a)

Anthrones are biologically inactive.

b)

Anthrones are insoluble in alkali and do not show strong fluorescence.

c)

Anthrones are oxidized derivatives of anthranols.

d)

Anthrones are soluble in alkali and show strong fluorescence.

30.

What is the primary difference between gums and mucilage?

a)

Gums dissolve in water, while mucilage forms slimy masses in water.

b)

Gums are produced by animals, while mucilage is produced by plants.

c)

Gums are physiologic products, while mucilage is pathologic.

d)

Gums are insoluble in water, while mucilage dissolves completely.

31.

Which of the following is an example of a seed gum?

a)

Agar

b)

Tragacanth

c)

Guar

d)

Xanthan

32.

What type of glycoside contains β-type sugar in all natural forms?

a)

S-glycosides

b)

N-glycosides

c)

All natural glycosides

d)

O-glycosides

33.

What is the primary purpose of drying plant materials during drug preparation?

a)

To increase the weight of the drug

b)

To remove moisture and prevent decomposition

c)

To enhance the flavor of the drug

d)

To make the drug more colorful

34.

When should leaves be collected for drug preparation?

a)

When they are dry and brittle

b)

When they are immature

c)

When they are covered in dew

d)

When they are mature

35.

What is the main principle of curing in drug preparation?

a)

To convert inert constituents into active forms

b)

To increase the weight of the drug

c)

To enhance the color of the drug

d)

To remove impurities from the drug

36.

Which method is most efficient for preventing insect attacks on drugs?

a)

Adding water to the drug

b)

Exposing to a temperature of 65°C

c)

Storing in open containers

d)

Fumigation with methyl bromide

37.

What is the primary purpose of garbling in drug preparation?

a)

To dry the drug

b)

To remove extraneous matter and adulterants

c)

To enhance the drug's color

d)

To increase the drug's weight

38.

Which environmental factor does NOT influence the secondary constituents of drugs?

a)

Climate

b)

Soil

c)

Packaging material

d)

Associated flora

39.

What is the primary function of inert constituents in plants?

a)

To enhance the drug's potency

b)

To increase the drug's weight

c)

To serve structural or storage purposes

d)

To provide therapeutic effects

40.

Which of the following is an example of a pharmacologically active constituent?

a)

Starch

b)

Cellulose

c)

Lignin

d)

Glycosides

41.

What is the primary drawback of defining carbohydrates as hydrates of carbon?

a)

It excludes glucose and sucrose

b)

It only applies to simple sugars

c)

It includes non-carbohydrates like formaldehyde and acetic acid

d)

It does not account for the presence of oxygen

42.

Which method of drug evaluation involves the use of living animals or organs?

a)

Pharmacologic/Biologic Assay

b)

Organoleptic

c)

Microscopic

d)

Chemical Assay

43.

What is the primary purpose of packaging and storage in drug preparation?

a)

To enhance the drug's appearance

b)

To increase the drug's weight

c)

To make the drug more colorful

d)

To protect the drug from moisture, light, air, insects, and high temperature

44.

Which classification method groups drugs based on their therapeutic use?

a)

Alphabetical classification

b)

Taxonomic classification

c)

Pharmacologic/Therapeutic classification

d)

Morphological classification

45.

What is the primary purpose of chemical assays in drug evaluation?

a)

To measure the drug's weight

b)

To identify adulterants in powdered drugs

c)

To determine the official potency of drugs

d)

To determine the drug's macroscopic appearance

46.

Which of the following is an example of a single chemical substance found in plant/animal constituents?

a)

Fixed oils

b)

Balsams

c)

Oleoresins

d)

Glycosides

47.

What is the primary role of UV-VIS spectroscopy in drug evaluation?

a)

To identify functional groups in a compound

b)

To determine the structural formula of a compound

c)

To analyze plant pigments

d)

To measure the molecular weight of a compound

48.

Which stage of development influences the identity of plant constituents?

a)

Packaging

b)

Environmental factors

c)

Heredity

d)

Ontogeny

49.

What is the key difference between cardenolides and bufadienolides?

a)

Cardenolides have a pyrone ring, while bufadienolides have a butyrolactone ring

b)

Cardenolides have a single double bond in their lactone ring, while bufadienolides have two

c)

Cardenolides form C24 steroids, while bufadienolides form C23 steroids

d)

Cardenolides are found in Liliaceae, while bufadienolides are found in Cruciferae

50.

Which family is associated with bufadienolides?

a)

Liliaceae

b)

Cruciferae

c)

Leguminosae

d)

Euphorbiaceae

51.

What property of saponins makes them referred to as "natural detergents"?

a)

Their foamy texture when shaken with water

b)

Their ability to lower surface tension

c)

Their solubility in organic solvents

d)

Their hemolytic activity

52.

Which of the following is NOT a property of saponins?

a)

Solubility in petroleum ether

b)

Hemolytic activity

c)

Bitter taste

d)

Ability to form colloidal solutions in water

53.

What is the primary structural similarity between steroid saponins and cardiac glycosides?

a)

Both are insoluble in water

b)

Both contain a pyrone ring

c)

Both have a steroidal nucleus

d)

Both interact with cholesterol

54.

Which family is commonly associated with triterpenoid saponins?

a)

Rosaceae

b)

Cruciferae

c)

Rubiaceae

d)

Solanaceae

55.

What is the primary medicinal activity of cyanogenic glycosides?

a)

Release of hydrocyanic acid

b)

Hemolytic activity

c)

Anticoagulant properties

d)

Antifungal properties

56.

Which glycoside is obtained from black mustard?

a)

Sinigrin

b)

Gluconapin

c)

Sinalbin

d)

Amygdalin

57.

What is the primary structural feature of flavone glycosides?

a)

Pyrone ring fused with a furan ring

b)

Phenyl benzopyrone ring system

c)

Hydroxyl groups at 3- and 14-positions

d)

Lactone moiety at the C-17 position

58.

Which of the following is an example of a flavone glycoside?

a)

Amygdalin

b)

Diosgenin

c)

Sinigrin

d)

Rutin

59.

What is the clinical significance of coumarin glycosides?

a)

They are used as natural detergents

b)

They are used as antifungal agents

c)

They are precursors for anticoagulants like warfarin

d)

They release hydrocyanic acid upon hydrolysis

60.

Which family is associated with furanocoumarins?

a)

Rosaceae

b)

Solanaceae

c)

Umbelliferae

d)

Cruciferae

61.

What is the primary therapeutic use of phenol glycosides like salicin?

a)

Antipyretic

b)

Counterirritant

c)

Anticoagulant

d)

Antifungal

62.

What distinguishes true tannins from pseudotannins?

a)

True tannins are high molecular weight polyphenolics

b)

True tannins are found only in dead plant tissues

c)

True tannins fail the Goldbeater’s skin test

d)

True tannins are low molecular weight compounds

63.

Which of the following is an example of a pseudotannin?

a)

Rutin

b)

Diosgenin

c)

Amygdalin

d)

Gallic acid

64.

What is the primary chemical origin of volatile oils?

a)

Alkaloids

b)

Terpenes

c)

Proteins

d)

Carbohydrates

65.

Which of the following solvents is volatile oil insoluble in?

a)

Alcohol

b)

Water

c)

Ether

d)

Chloroform

66.

What happens to volatile oils when exposed to air and direct sunlight?

a)

They form a grease spot

b)

They become darker

c)

They saponify with alkalis

d)

They evaporate completely

67.

Which of the following is NOT a method of extracting volatile oils?

a)

Non-volatile solvent extraction

b)

Distillation

c)

Scarification

d)

Crystallization

68.

What type of distillation is used for fresh plant materials?

a)

Water distillation

b)

Vacuum distillation

c)

Dry distillation

d)

Steam distillation

69.

Which of the following is an example of a "top note" in perfumes?

a)

Thyme

b)

Musk

c)

Lemon oil

d)

Ambergris

70.

What is the primary pharmaceutical application of volatile oils?

a)

As a coloring agent

b)

As a preservative

c)

As a thickening agent

d)

As a flavoring and perfuming agent

71.

Which of the following is an example of a sesquiterpene alcohol?

a)

Citronellol

b)

Zingiberol

c)

Linalool

d)

Menthol

72.

Which of the following drugs contains the aldehyde citral?

a)

Thyme oil

b)

Camphor

c)

Lemon peel oil

d)

Cinnamon oil

73.

What is the general formula for most natural terpenoid hydrocarbons?

a)

C6H12

b)

C5H8

c)

C4H10

d)

C7H14

74.

What does the "special isoprene rule" state about terpenoid molecules?

a)

They are constructed from saturated hydrocarbons.

b)

They are constructed from a single isoprene unit.

c)

They are constructed of isoprene units joined in a "head to tail" fashion.

d)

They are constructed from aromatic rings.

75.

Which of the following is an example of a monocyclic terpene ketone?

a)

Menthone

b)

Thujone

c)

Camphor

d)

Fenchone

76.

Which of the following is an example of a phenol found in volatile oils?

a)

Methyl salicylate

b)

Cineole

c)

Anethole

d)

Eugenol

77.

What is the primary product of the thermal decomposition of terpenoids?

a)

Benzene

b)

Isoprene

c)

Ethylene

d)

Methane

78.

Which of the following drugs contains the oxide cineole?

a)

Cinnamon oil

b)

Eucalyptus oil

c)

Lavender oil

d)

Thyme oil

79.

Which of the following is classified as a pseudotannin?

a)

Catechin

b)

Hamamelis

c)

Nutgall

d)

Tannic acid

80.

What is the primary characteristic of fixed oils at room temperature (15.5–16.5°C)?

a)

They are gaseous.

b)

They are liquid.

c)

They are always semisolid.

d)

They are always solid.

81.

Which of the following is a saturated fixed oil?

a)

Sunflower oil

b)

Olive oil

c)

Coconut oil

d)

Castor oil

82.

What is the primary function of lipophilic bile acids in the human body?

a)

Hormone production

b)

Lipid solubilization

c)

Membrane structure formation

d)

Energy storage

83.

Which of the following is a polyunsaturated fixed oil?

a)

Peanut oil

b)

Soybean oil

c)

Palm oil

d)

Olive oil

84.

What is the unique solubility property of castor oil?

a)

Soluble in alcohol

b)

Soluble in water

c)

Soluble in all solvents

d)

Insoluble in lipid solvents

85.

Which of the following is a characteristic of waxes?

a)

Soluble in water

b)

Contain glycerol

c)

Composed of triglycerides

d)

Saponified only by alcoholic alkali

86.

What is the primary structural component of fats and fixed oils?

a)

Proteins and carbohydrates

b)

Glycerol and fatty acids

c)

Cholesterol and bile acids

d)

Alcohol and esters

87.

Which of the following is an example of a volatile oil?

a)

Lanolin

b)

Ethiodized oil

c)

Essential oil

d)

Castor oil

88.

What is the primary difference between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids?

a)

Unsaturated fatty acids have no double bonds.

b)

Unsaturated fatty acids are solid at room temperature.

c)

Saturated fatty acids have single bonds only.

d)

Saturated fatty acids have double bonds.

89.

Which of the following tests is used to detect the presence of glycerol in fats?

a)

Sudan IV Test

b)

Saponification Test

c)

Acrolein Test

d)

Chromic Test

90.

What is the primary function of triacylglycerols in the human body?

a)

Vitamin synthesis

b)

Membrane structure

c)

Hormone production

d)

Energy storage

91.

Which of the following is an example of a monounsaturated fixed oil?

a)

Soybean oil

b)

Coconut oil

c)

Olive oil

d)

Castor oil

92.

What is the primary pharmacological use of prostaglandins like PGE2?

a)

Lipid solubilization

b)

Membrane structure formation

c)

Energy storage

d)

Termination of second-trimester pregnancies

93.

Which of the following is a characteristic of volatile oils?

a)

Evaporate at ordinary temperatures

b)

Solid at room temperature

c)

Insoluble in ether

d)

Composed of triglycerides

94.

Which of the following fatty acids is also known as Vitamin F?

a)

Stearic acid

b)

Palmitic acid

c)

Oleic acid

d)

Linoleic acid

95.

What is the primary characteristic that gives alkaloids their basic properties?

a)

Presence of sulfur

b)

Presence of oxygen

c)

Presence of amino nitrogen

d)

Presence of aromatic rings

96.

Which of the following is an example of a true alkaloid?

a)

Caffeine

b)

Ephedrine

c)

Nicotine

d)

Atropine

97.

What type of alkaloid is caffeine classified as?

a)

Protoalkaloid

b)

Atypical alkaloid

c)

True alkaloid

d)

Pseudoalkaloid

98.

Which reagent is used to test for meconic acid in opium and produces a red color?

a)

Mayer’s Reagent

b)

Dragendorff’s Reagent

c)

Ferric chloride

d)

Hager’s Reagent

99.

Which alkaloid is used as a smoking deterrent?

a)

Lobeline

b)

Scopolamine

c)

Quinine

d)

Atropine

100.

Which subclass of terpenoids contains an open structure?

a)

Bicyclic terpenoids

b)

Tetracyclic terpenoids

c)

Acyclic terpenoids

d)

Monocyclic terpenoids

101.

What is the primary characteristic of tetraterpenoids and carotenoids in plants?

a)

Responsible for yellow, orange, red, and purple colors

b)

Essential plant hormone for growth

c)

Intense pungent odor

d)

Toxic to cold-blooded animals

102.

Which of the following is an example of a diterpenoid drug?

a)

Artemisinin

b)

Camphor

c)

Taxol/Paclitaxel

d)

Beta-carotene

103.

What is the main biological activity of sesquiterpenoids?

a)

Source of Vitamin A in animals

b)

Antimicrobial and antitumor properties

c)

Photoprotection in plants

d)

Defense against herbivores

104.

Which of the following is a characteristic of resins?

a)

Crystallizable in nature

b)

Good conductors of electricity

c)

Burn readily with a smoky flame

d)

Soluble in water

105.

What is the primary source of meroterpenoids?

a)

Marine organisms only

b)

Insect pheromones exclusively

c)

Only higher plants

d)

Higher plants, fungi, and marine organisms

106.

Which chemical test is used to assay aldehydes in volatile oils?

a)

Bisulfite method

b)

Ester value/number

c)

Hydroxylamine method

d)

Saponification value

107.

What is the main ecological significance of triterpenoids?

a)

Intense pungent odor

b)

Source of Vitamin A

c)

Defense against herbivores

d)

Photoprotection in microorganisms

108.

Which of the following is a prepared resin?

a)

Turpentine

b)

Balsam of Peru

c)

Rosin

d)

Mastic

109.

What is the solubility property of most resins?

a)

Soluble in water

b)

Soluble in petroleum ether

c)

Soluble in polar organic solvents like ethanol and chloroform

d)

Insoluble in ethanol

110.

Which of the following is an example of a resin acid?

a)

Storesinol

b)

Benzoresinol

c)

Abietic acid

d)

Benzoin

111.

What is the primary characteristic of monoterpenoids?

a)

Intense pungent odor

b)

Toxic to cold-blooded animals

c)

Source of Vitamin A

d)

Responsible for plant colors

112.

Which of the following is a sesquiterpenoid drug?

a)

Feverfew

b)

Menthol

c)

Forskolin

d)

Beta-carotene

113.

What is the primary use of resinates derived from resin acids?

a)

Photoprotective agents

b)

Soap, paint, and varnish industries

c)

Insect antifeedants

d)

Plant growth regulators

114.

Which of the following is a physical property of resins?

a)

Form sticky fluid when heated

b)

Crystallize easily

c)

Soluble in water

d)

Become positively charged when rubbed

115.

What is the primary characteristic of resin phenols (resinotannols)?

a)

They are soluble in water.

b)

They are combined with sugars through glycosylation.

c)

They are chemically inert and never form esters.

d)

They form phenoxides and dissolve in aqueous alkali solutions.

116.

Which of the following is an example of a gum resin?

a)

Asafoetida

b)

Ammoniacum

c)

Turpentine

d)

Balsam of Peru

117.

What is the main difference between oleoresins and oleogum resins?

a)

Oleoresins are insoluble in water, while oleogum resins are water-soluble.

b)

Oleogum resins contain a mixture of resin, volatile oil, and gum, while oleoresins do not contain gum.

c)

Oleogum resins are chemically inert, while oleoresins are not.

d)

Oleoresins contain gums, while oleogum resins do not.

118.

Which of the following is an example of a balsam?

a)

Myrrh

b)

Benzoin

c)

Asafoetida

d)

Turpentine

119.

What is a defining characteristic of resenes?

a)

They are soluble in water.

b)

They are chemically inert and never form esters.

c)

They give a positive reaction with ferric chloride.

d)

They are combined with sugars through glycosylation.

120.

Which of the following drugs contains resenes?

a)

Balsam of Tolu

b)

Rosin

c)

Asafoetida

d)

Ginger

121.

What is the primary function of enzymes in chemical reactions?

a)

They change the pH of the reaction medium.

b)

They alter the rate of chemical reactions without being consumed.

c)

They act as substrates in the reaction.

d)

They provide external energy to the reaction.

122.

At what conditions do enzymes function most effectively in the human body?

a)

High temperature and low pH

b)

Low temperature and high pH

c)

Neutral pH and room temperature

d)

Optimum temperature and pH specific to the enzyme

123.

What is the basic structural unit of proteins?

a)

Amino acids

b)

Fatty acids

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Nucleotides

124.

Which of the following is a complete protein?

a)

One that is derived from plants only

b)

One that is insoluble in water

c)

One that contains all essential amino acids

d)

One that contains only non-essential amino acids

125.

What is the general formula for α-amino acids?

a)

R–CH2OH

b)

R–CH(NH2)COOH

c)

R–COOH

d)

R–NH2

126.

Which of the following is an example of an oleoresin?

a)

Benzoin

b)

Asafoetida

c)

Myrrh

d)

Turpentine

127.

What is the primary role of proteins in the human body?

a)

To regulate body temperature

b)

To act as catalysts for chemical reactions

c)

To provide amino acids for growth and repair of tissues

d)

To store genetic information

128.

Which of the following is a characteristic of balsams?

a)

They are mixtures of resin and volatile oils.

b)

They are soluble in water.

c)

They are chemically inert and never form esters.

d)

They contain a high proportion of aromatic balsamic acids.

129.

What is the significance of glycosylation in glucoresins?

a)

It combines them with sugars to form glycoresins.

b)

It makes them soluble in water.

c)

It makes them chemically inert.

d)

It allows them to form esters.

130.

Which of the following is a centrally acting analgesic?

a)

Codeine

b)

Heroin

c)

Strychnine

d)

Reserpine

131.

What is the primary pharmacological action of theobromine?

a)

Diuretic and smooth muscle relaxant

b)

Antitussive

c)

Hypotensive agent

d)

CNS stimulant

132.

Which alkaloid is formed by the acetylation of morphine?

a)

Reserpine

b)

Heroin

c)

Codeine

d)

Strychnine

133.

Which of the following drugs is used as a suppressant for gout?

a)

Vincristine

b)

Colchicine

c)

Protoveratrine

d)

Pilocarpine

134.

What is the principal component of the water-soluble fraction of ergot alkaloids?

a)

Reserpine

b)

Vinblastine

c)

Strychnine

d)

Ergonovine

135.

Which vitamin is essential for the normal functioning of body epithelia and the retina?

a)

Vitamin D

b)

Vitamin A

c)

Vitamin K

d)

Vitamin E

136.

What is the most characteristic effect of vinblastine and vincristine?

a)

Arrest of cell division at metaphase

b)

Antitussive effect

c)

Hypotensive action

d)

Smooth muscle relaxation

137.

Which of the following is a purine base found in kola nuts and coffee beans?

a)

Reserpine

b)

Caffeine

c)

Theophylline

d)

Theobromine

138.

What is the primary function of Vitamin D in the body?

a)

Improvement of fertility

b)

Antioxidant protection

c)

Prevention of anemia

d)

Regulation of calcium and phosphorus balance

139.

Which alkaloid is known for its extremely toxic nature but is valuable in physiologic and neuroanatomic research?

a)

Reserpine

b)

Codeine

c)

Strychnine

d)

Ergonovine

140.

What is the biosynthetic precursor of imidazole alkaloids like pilocarpine?

a)

Histidine

b)

Glycine

c)

Phenylethylamine

d)

Tryptophan

141.

Which vitamin is associated with the improvement of fertility and acts as a powerful antioxidant?

a)

Vitamin D

b)

Vitamin K

c)

Vitamin A

d)

Vitamin E

142.

What is the primary pharmacological action of reserpine?

a)

Antitussive

b)

Diuretic

c)

CNS stimulant

d)

Hypotensive agent

143.

Which of the following vitamins is fat-soluble and promotes calcium absorption?

a)

Vitamin K

b)

Vitamin A

c)

Vitamin E

d)

Vitamin D

144.

What is the primary cause of the characteristic odor of roasted coffee?

a)

Chlorogenic acid

b)

Furfural

c)

Theobromine

d)

Caffeol

145.

What is the primary role of Vitamin K in the body?

a)

Supporting bone growth

b)

Activating substances necessary for blood clotting

c)

Aiding in digestion

d)

Enhancing vision in low light

146.

Which symptom is associated with Vitamin K deficiency?

a)

Prolonged bleeding

b)

Convulsions

c)

Diarrhea

d)

Skin inflammation

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