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Q1-G9-REVIEWER

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What body system is responsible for the exchange gases between the body and the environment?

a)

Circulatory System

b)

Respiratory System

c)

Nervous System

d)

Integumentary System

2.

Which part of the respiratory system allows oxygen to enter and exit the body?

a)

trachea

b)

nares

c)

lungs

d)

alveoli

3.

Which is the CORRECT flow of oxygenated blood through the heart starting with the left atrium from the lungs?

a)

Left atrium → tricuspid valve → left ventricle → pulmonary semilunar valve → pulmonary arteries → all body tissues

b)

Left atrium → bicuspid valve → left ventricle → aortic semilunar valve → pulmonary arteries → all body tissues

c)

Left atrium → bicuspid valve → left ventricle → pulmonary semilunar valve → pulmonary arteries → all body tissues

d)

Left atrium → bicuspid valve → left ventricle → aortic semilunar valve → aorta → all body tissues.

4.

What is the relationship between the movement of the diaphragm and the pressure?

a)

As the diaphragm moves up, the pressure inside the lungs decreases as does the pressure outside the body.

b)

As the diaphragm moves down, the pressure inside the lungs increases as does the pressure outside the body.

c)

As the diaphragm moves down, the pressure inside the lungs decreases while the pressure outside the body increases.

d)

As the diaphragm moves down, the pressure inside the lungs increases while the pressure outside the body decreases.

5.

What feature of the alveolus allows for efficient gas exchange?

a)

Its thick muscular walls

b)

Its large surface area and thin walls

c)

Its smooth surface and low temperature

d)

Its ability to contract and expand forcefully

6.

How does gas exchange take place in the lungs?

a)

Carbon dioxide (CO2) is inhaled and then transported to the lungs.

b)

Oxygen (O2) moves from capillaries into tissue cells.

c)

Carbon dioxide (CO2) produced by cellular respiration leaves tissue cells and moves into capillaries.

d)

Oxygen (O2) from alveoli is diffused into the blood and (CO2) from the blood is diffused to the alveoli.

7.

What part of the heart will the oxygenated blood pass first?

a)

left atrium

b)

left ventricle

c)

right atrium

d)

right ventricle

8.

What causes the “lub-dub” sound of the heart?

a)

The exchange of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs.

b)

The contraction and relaxation of the heart chambers.

c)

The opening and closing of the heart valves.

d)

The tight closing of the heart valves.

9.

What is the characteristic of the blood passing through the pulmonary semilunar

valve?

a)

Low content of oxygen and carbon dioxide

b)

High content of oxygen and carbon dioxide

c)

High in oxygen content, low in carbon dioxide

d)

Low in oxygen content, high in carbon dioxide

10.

How does nicotine primarily affect the body's ability to transport oxygen?

a)

It makes the smoker feel calm.

b)

It acts as a stimulant to the brain.

c)

It directly causes the lungs to expand too much.

d)

It makes it harder for red blood cells to carry oxygen throughout the body.

11.

What is the term for the passing of genes from parents to offspring, which determines a person's physical attributes?

a)

Evolution

b)

Heredity

c)

Mutation

d)

Natural Selection

12.

Which statement regarding the structure of DNA is CORRECT?

a)

The double helix of DNA is stabilized by interactions between adjacent ribose sugars.

b)

DNA is comprised of nucleotide subunits each containing a base, a ribose sugar, and a sulfate group.

c)

DNA is comprised of nucleotide subunits each containing a base, a deoxyribose sugar, and a nitrate group.

d)

DNA is comprised of nucleotide subunits each containing a base, a deoxyribose sugar, and a phosphate group.

13.

Which of the following is the correct complementary base pairing rule in DNA?

a)

Adenine pairs with Cytosine, and Guanine pairs with Thymine.

b)

Adenine pairs with Guanine, and Cytosine pairs with Thymine.

c)

Adenine pairs with Thymine, and Cytosine pairs with Guanine.

d)

Adenine pairs with Adenine, and Cytosine pairs with Cytosine.

14.

How does incomplete dominance differ from codominance?

a)

In codominance, both alleles are expressed equally in the phenotype.

b)

In incomplete dominance, the dominant allele completely masks the recessive allele.

c)

Incomplete dominance is only observed in plants, while codominance is observed in animals.

d)

Incomplete dominance results in a blended phenotype, while codominance results in a distinct phenotype.

15.

What is the genotype for female?

a)

XX

b)

XY

c)

XXY

d)

XYZ

16.

A rider loses blood after a crash. If he has type O blood, can he receive blood from someone who has Type A or Type B?

a)

No, he can only receive blood from Type O donors.

b)

Yes, he can receive blood from both Type A and Type B donors.

c)

He can receive blood from Type A donors but not Type B donors.

d)

He can receive blood from Type B donors but not Type A donors.

17.

Which describes an example of non-Mendelian inheritance?

a)

Complete Dominance – one allele completely masks the effect of the other allele

b)

Law of Segregation – alleles separate so that each gamete carries only one allele for each gene

c)

Independent Assortment – genes for different traits separate independently during gamete formation

d)

Incomplete Dominance – offspring show a blend of traits from both parents (e.g., red and white flowers produce pink flowers)

18.

The husband’s blood type is homozygous A [IAIA], while the wife’s blood type is homozygous B [[IBIB]. What is the chance that they will have an offspring with blood type O?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

19.

A woman who is a carrier for hemophilia (XHXh) and a man who does not have hemophilia (XHY) plan to have children. Which of the following statements best describes the possible outcomes for their offspring?

a)

There is a 25% chance of having a son with hemophilia, a 25% chance of a carrier daughter, a 25% chance of a healthy daughter, and a 25% chance of a healthy son.

b)

All daughters will be healthy (some carriers, some not), and there is a 50% chance that any son will have hemophilia.

c)

There is a 50% chance that their offspring will have hemophilia, and a 50% chance that they will not.

d)

The daughters will be carriers, and the sons will have a 50% chance of having hemophilia.

20.

Which of the following best describes biodiversity?

a)

The variety of genetic material within a particular species.

b)

The ability of organisms to adapt to different environments over time.

c)

The number of unique species found in a single ecosystem, like a rainforest.

d)

The overall richness and variety of all life on Earth, including genes, species, and ecosystems.

21.

Which population distribution pattern is characterized by individuals being found in groups or clusters?

a)

clumped

b)

dispersed

c)

random

d)

uniform

22.

Which of the following scenarios is an example of an "abrupt environmental change"?

a)

The slow build-up of pollutants in a lake over many years.

b)

The natural wearing away of land that occurs over centuries.

c)

A sudden volcanic eruption that blankets a large area with ash.

d)

A gradual increase in global average temperatures over several decades.

23.

Community C has a Simpson's Diversity Index (D) of 0.72, while Community D has a (D) of 0.28. What does this tell us about their diversity?

a)

Community D is more diverse than Community DC

b)

Community C is more diverse than Community D.

c)

Community C and Community D have the same level of diversity.

d)

Simpson's Diversity Index cannot be used to compare these communities.

24.

A student is conducting a study on the population density of squirrels in a local park. He counts 300 squirrels in a 50-square-meter area. What is the population density of the squirrels?

a)

6 squirrels/m²

b)

10 squirrels/m²

c)

15 squirrels/m²

d)

20 squirrels/m²

25.

Which of the following balanced chemical equations for Photosynthesis?

a)

6H₂O + 6CO₂ → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂

b)

6CO₂ + 6O₂ → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6H₂O

c)

6O₂ + 6H₂O → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6CO₂

d)

6CO₂ + 6H₂O → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂

26.

Which of the following cell organelles is associated with the production of chemical energy?

a)

Chloroplasts

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Nucleus

d)

Ribosomes

27.

Which of the following pairs of molecules are produced directly by the light-dependent reactions?

a)

NADPH and ATP

b)

Glucose and ATP

c)

Oxygen and NADPH

d)

Ferredoxin and Oxygen

28.

Which of the following lists these stages in the correct order?

a)

Regeneration, Fixation, Reduction

b)

Reduction, Fixation, and Regeneration

c)

Carbon Fixation, Reduction, and Regeneration

d)

Carbon Fixation, Regeneration, and Reduction

29.

Which of the following options lists these steps in the correct order?

a)

Krebs cycle, Electron transport chain, glycolysis

b)

Electron transport chain, Glycolysis, Krebs cycle

c)

Glycolysis, Electron transport chain, Krebs cycle

d)

Glycolysis, Krebs cycle, Electron transport chain

30.

Which of the following BEST describes its significance in everyday life?

a)

It recycles nutrients through ecosystems.

b)

It makes food energy available to animals.

c)

It converts light energy into chemical energy that is useful to organisms.

d)

D. It maintains the balance of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.

31.

Which statement BEST explain why animal cells can function without chloroplasts?

a)

Animal cells do not require outside energy.

b)

Animals obtain energy by consuming other organisms.

c)

Photosynthesis occurs in other organelles in animal cells.

d)

Animal cells have circulatory systems, but plant cells do not.

32.

Which process is most likely contributing to the discomfort in her muscle cells?

a)

Krebs cycle

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Alcoholic fermentation

d)

Lactic acid fermentation

33.

Which of the following stages of cellular respiration would the scientist expect to observe primarily occurring within these isolated mitochondria?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Krebs cycle

c)

Formation of Acetyl-CoA

d)

Light-dependent reaction

34.

Which of the following statements BEST explains the fundamental relationship between Photosynthesis and Cellular Respiration?

a)

Photosynthesis and respiration are opposite processes; photosynthesis stores energy in glucose, while respiration releases energy from it.

b)

Photosynthesis and respiration are interdependent, as the products of one process are the reactants of the other.

c)

Photosynthesis creates food for the plant, while respiration provides the energy to use that food.

d)

The light intensity is increased but the rate of photosynthesis no longer increases, there might be another factor that is limiting it.

35.

Mr. Bean has two identical plant setups: one exposed to sunlight and the other kept in darkness. Which of the following observations would the student expect to see in each setup?

a)

Light setup: Increased plant growth, O₂ production; Dark setup: Decreased plant growth, CO₂ production

b)

Light setup: No change in plant growth or gas levels; Dark setup: Increased plant growth, CO₂ production

c)

Light setup: Decreased plant growth, CO₂ production; Dark setup: Increased plant growth, O₂ production

d)

Light setup: Increased plant growth, O₂ production; Dark setup: No change in plant growth or gas levels

36.

How does the movement of the diaphragm affect lung volume and pressure?

a)

When the diaphragm contracts, lung volume decreases and pressure inside the lungs increases.

b)

When the diaphragm relaxes, lung volume increases and pressure inside the lungs decreases.

c)

When the diaphragm moves up, lung volume increases while pressure inside the lungs decreases.

d)

When the diaphragm moves down, lung volume decreases while pressure inside the lungs increases.

37.

A researcher studies a rare breed of flower where the color of the petals exhibits an unusual inheritance pattern. Homozygous dominant plants (RR) produce red petals, homozygous recessive plants (rr) have white petals, and heterozygous plants (Rr) display petals that are both red and white. What is the term for this type of gene expression, and what makes it fit that classification?

a)

Codominance, because both alleles are expressed equally in the phenotype.

b)

Simple Dominance, because the red petal allele is the dominant trait.

c)

Incomplete Dominance, because the heterozygous phenotype is a blend of the two homozygous phenotypes.

d)

Codominance, because the red and white alleles are both distinctly visible in the heterozygous phenotype.

38.

The breathing mechanism involves inhalation and exhalation. As the air flows into the lungs, what other mechanisms occur?

I. The diaphragm flattens.

II. The diaphragm moves downward.

III. The pressure increases in the lungs.

IV. The pressure decreases in the lungs.

a)

I and II

b)

II and III

c)

I, II, and III

d)

I, II, and IV

39.

Maria often consumes sugary drinks and snacks that are low in nutrients. How might this dietary habit impact her cardiovascular health?

a)

It enhances cardiovascular function by providing essential vitamins.

b)

It has no impact unless she is also inactive.

c)

It can improve blood circulation by reducing cholesterol levels.

d)

It may contribute to weight gain and increase the risk of heart disease.

40.

A nutritionist is assessing two individuals with similar dietary concerns. Individual A has a family history of diabetes but maintains a balanced diet and exercises regularly. Individual B has no family history of diabetes but consumes a high-sugar diet and leads a sedentary lifestyle. Which of the following best explains why Individual B’s risk of developing diabetes may be higher?

a)

Individual B's poor dietary choices and lack of physical activity significantly elevate the risk of developing diabetes, regardless of family history.

b)

Individual A's healthy lifestyle is ineffective in reducing diabetes risk, making Individual B's situation appear more critical.

c)

Individual B's sugar intake is the only reason for the potential severity of their condition.

d)

Individual A's family history is a minor factor compared to the lifestyle choices of Individual B, which are easier to change.