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SCIENCE QUIZ(18/4/23)

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

New plants may be grown from a group of cells that are taken from other

plants. The given diagram shows the parts of a plant ‘X’. Explants obtained from which of the labelled structure will grow into new plants that are genetically identical to plant ‘X’.

a)

P

b)

Q

c)

R

d)

S

2.

A student decides to study the impact of removing certain floral parts on fruit formation in

plant species X. He chooses three separate plants that are growing in the same plot A under

uniform conditions. In an adjacent plot B were plants from which no part of the flower was

removed. The data is given as below:

Plant No. Part removed/Plot A Impact on fruit formation

1. Anther 30% less fruit formation

2. Stigma No fruit formation

3. Petal No significant impact on fruit formation

Which of the following can be inferred from the given data?

a)

a) Anther and stigma are crucial for sexual reproduction in each flower of species X.

b)

b) Pollen grains are probably unable to germinate if they land on other parts of carpel beside

the stigma.

c)

c) Species X is likely to be completely self pollinated.

d)

d) Species X relies on both self and cross pollination.

3.

Unicellular algae A and B of the same species were taken in separate glass plates and

chloroplasts were removed from the cells of A. After some time, they both were kept in bright sunlight for few hours and then Iodine test was performed on them .What will be the result?

a)

Both A and B will turn blue black.

b)

A will turn blue black.

c)

B will turn blue black.

d)

Both A and B will remain as they originally were.

4.

The image shows the distribution of type of sex

chromosome in males and females. Based on the

image, when will a male child be born?

a)

When an egg with X chromosome will fuse with

a sperm with X chromosome.

b)

When an egg with X chromosome will fuse with a sperm with Y chromosome.

c)

When an egg with Y chromosome will fuse with a sperm with X chromosome.

d)

When an egg with Y chromosome will fuse with a sperm with Y chromosome.

5.

A Planaria worm is cut transversely into two halves P and Q such that the part P contains the

whole head of the worm. Another Planaria worm is cut vertically in such a way that both the

cut pieces R and S contain half head each. Which of the cut pieces of the two Planaria worms

could regenerate to form the complete worm/worms?

a)

Only P

b)

Only R and S

c)

Only P, R and S

d)

All P, Q, R and S

6.

Birds can sustain high levels of activity much longer than mammals even at high altitudes. Which of the following features found in birds helps in this?

a)

More efficient expansion and contraction of air sacs as compared to mammals.

b)

Size of lungs larger than that of a mammal of comparable size.

c)

Air sacs allowing unidirectional air flow with minimum dead space.

d)

Circulatory system with more number of erythrocytes per unit volume of blood as

compared to mammals.

7.

Transpiration has been described as a ‘necessary evil’ because it is inevitable, but potentially

harmful. Which of the following are the after-effects of transpiration?

(i) Absorption of mineral salts.

(ii) Regulation of plant temperature.

(iii) Energy deficit and injury in plants.

(iv) Ascent of sap.

a)

(i) & (iv)

b)

(i) & (iii)

c)

(i), (ii) & (iii)

d)

(i), (ii) & (iv)

8.

The number and ploidy of nuclei present in a zygote is/are

a)

one haploid

b)

one diploid

c)

two diploid

d)

four haploid

9.

The correct sequence of organs in the male reproductive system for the transport of sperm is:

a)

testis → vas deferens → urethra

b)

testis → ureter → urethra

c)

testis → urethra → ureter

d)

testis → vas deferens → ureter

10.

A simplified food chain for an aquatic environment is shown below:

algae → mosquito larvae → small fish → large fish

If the number of mosquito larvae suddenly increased, the food chain would be affected. Analyze

the following consequences and select from the choices what would be the impact?

I. The number of small fish would increase.

II. The number of large fish would decrease.

III. The number of large fish would increase.

IV. Amount of algae would decrease.

a)

Only I

b)

Only IV

c)

Both I and IV

d)

Both II and IV

11.

Hawks and eagles are often reported to die due to pesticide poisoning, but pigeons are not.

The phenomenon responsible for this is:

a)

Eutrophication

b)

Pollution

c)

Biomagnification

d)

Accumulation

12.

A fish was placed in Fish bowl I with

water plants. Another fish was placed

in Fish bowl II with no water plants.

Which of the following data indicates

the correct value for the number of

times the fish opens its mouth and

the amount of dissolved oxygen in

each fish bowl?

a)

a)

b)

b)

c)

c)

d)

d)

13.

Four gas jars A, B, C & D contain four grams each of different gases, Cl2, SO2, O2 and CO2 respectively. Which gas jar contains minimum number of the gas molecules?

a)

Jar A

b)

Jar B

c)

Jar C

d)

Jar D

14.

Chlorine gas reacts with _______ to form bleaching powder.

a)

dry slaked lime

b)

dil. solution of Ca(OH)2

c)

conc. solution of Ca(OH)2

d)

dry calcium oxide

15.

Baking powder is different from baking soda as it also contains a small quantity of edible acid.

The presence of the edible acid decreases bitterness of baking soda. Which acid is present in

baking powder?

a)

sulphuric acid

b)

acetic acid

c)

tartaric acid

d)

malic acid

16.

Which of the following is/are correct about the elements whose atoms are as given;

a)

The mass no. of all the elements are the same

b)

B & C are isotopes

c)

A & D are isobars

d)

All the atoms have different number of shells

17.

The valency of the atoms of the elements A and B are 2 and 3 respectively. The molecular

formula of the compound formed from these element is:

a)

AB

b)

A2B3

c)

A3B2

d)

A2B2

18.

Iron filings are added in four test tubes containing aqueous solutions of ZnSO4, CuSO4, FeSO4 and Al2(SO4)3.

In which of the test tubes will reaction occur.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

19.

In the manufacture of sodium hydride by chlor-alkali process, two gases A & B are formed as

by-products. The gas A is liberated at the anode and gas B, near the cathode. The gas B is:

a)

Chlorine

b)

Oxygen

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Hydrogen

20.

Potassium iodide and lead nitrate solutions are mixed in a test tube to form lead iodide and

potassium nitrate. Which of the following correctly represents/represent the type/types of the reaction (s) involved?

i) Displacement reaction

ii) Precipitation reaction

iii) Combination reaction

iv)Double displacement reaction

a)

iv only

b)

ii only

c)

both i and ii

d)

both ii and iv

21.

The mass by mass percentage of 200 grams of a solution containing 4.0 grams of sodium

cloride as solute is

a)

2.0

b)

2.1

c)

1.9

d)

4.0

22.

The image is that of a suspended wheel known as Maxwell Wheel.

This axis-mounted wheel suspended at both ends continuously

winds and unwinds up and down a string. Two students Nimrat and

Ashish observe this toy and made some observations

Nimrat: The toy works on the principle of conservation of energy

(sum of kinetic and potential energies) and eventually the toy will

stop due to friction and consequently loss of energy.

Ashish: The toy is working on the concept of gravitation and since

gravitation is a force acted upon by the earth, the toy will keep on

moving.

Which of the following options is/are correct?

a)

Both Nimrat and Ashish are correct.

b)

Only Nimrat is correct.

c)

Only Ashish is correct.

d)

Both Nimrat and Ashish are wrong.

23.

If in a circuit the currents coming to a point and going out

from that point are as shown in the image, then choose the

correct equation from the following.

a)

i1=i2=i3=i4=i5

b)

i1+i4+i3=i5+i2

c)

i1-i5=i2-i3-i4

d)

i1+i5=i2+i3+i4

24.

Assertion (A): The graph of P vs (1/V) for an ideal gas at constant temperature is a downward

straight line.

Reason (R): At constant temperature, P ∝ 1/V for an ideal gas.

Choose the current option:

a)

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b)

Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

c)

A is true but R is false

d)

A is false but R is true.

25.

A roller coaster begins at rest from point A, 120 m above the ground, as shown in figure.

Assume that no energy is lost from the coaster to frictional heating, air resistance, sound, or any other process. The radius of the loop is 40 m.

(take g=10 m/s2)

The speed of the roller coaster at points B and D are respectively

a)

34 m/s, 28 m/s

b)

28 m/s, 34 m/s

c)

17 m/s, 14 m/s

d)

17 m/s, 0

26.

Mohan is bouncing up and down at the end of a diving board, as shown here.

The y (vertical displacement of the board) vs t (time) graph is shown below.

Choose from the following the correct pair of information for Mohan and the springboard.

Maximum displacement between lowest and highest points of oscillation

a)

5.0 m 0.75 s

b)

4.5 m 1.50 s

c)

4.5 m 1.25 s

d)

5.0 m 1.50 s

27.

Annu Rani is a premier Javelin Thrower from India, who participated in the World Athletics

Championship, 2019. A schematic diagram of a throw is also shown.

Choose from the following, the main factors for a long successful throw:

a)

Power in the arms, Run-up to gain momentum, Angle of the throw.

b)

Strength in legs and Angle of throw.

c)

Power in arms and Angle of throw.

d)

Nice outfit, Angle of throw and shouting while throwing.

28.

Figure here shows speed-time graph for a car moving in a straight line. At which point is its

acceleration non-uniform?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

29.

The angle of incidence on mirror B is

a)

20 degree

b)

50 degree

c)

60 degree

d)

70 degree

30.

These are four aluminum rods of different dimensions. Which will have the least resistance?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

31.

In recent years, the rate of species becoming extinct has increased due to

a)

natural catastrophes.

b)

human development activities.

c)

competition between species.

d)

natural evolutionary processes.

32.

When describing an ecofriendly house, what is meant by the terms 'zero net energy'?

a)

The amount of energy produced in the house with renewal sources is equal to more

than the amount of energy used by the house.

b)

The house does not use any energy.

c)

The amount of energy used by the house is more than it produces through renewable

energy.

d)

The house produces all its own energy needs.

33.

El Nino responsible for temperature anomalies and poor monsoon impacting Asia, arises in:

a)

Indian Ocean

b)

Antarctic Ocean

c)

Pacific Ocean

d)

Atlantic Ocean

34.

What does it mean when a country talks about being carbon neutral?

a)

It will stop the production of all the items that are increasing its carbon footprint.

b)

It will eliminate carbon emissions by switching entirely to renewable sources.

c)

It will balance out its carbon emissions by reducing or offsetting them.

d)

It will balance out its carbon emissions by reducing or offsetting them.

35.

Which of the following options correctly represents the consequences of destruction of

forests?

i. Soil erosion.

ii. Disturbance in water cycle.

iii. Limited availability of forest produce.

iv. Increase in crop diseases.

a)

i, ii & iv

b)

ii, iii & iv

c)

i, iii & iv

d)

i, ii & iii

36.

Which of the following is a serious threat we are witnessing as a consequence of climate

change?

a)

Decrease in food productivity

b)

Decreased in life span of humans

c)

Less rainfall

d)

Rising sea levels

37.

Which of the following is not and example of human made ecosystem?

a)

Aquaculture

b)

Plantation

c)

Agriculture

d)

Forests

38.

Which amongst the following is most energy efficient?

a)

Incandescent bulb

b)

Fluorescent tube light

c)

Compact fluorescent lamp

d)

Light emitting diode

39.

Depletion of ozone layer is harmful as it can cause on earth an increased concentration of

a)

ultraviolet radiation

b)

infrared radiation

c)

X-rays

d)

gamma rays

40.

Which of the following ecosystem experiences dramatic fluctuation in the water level in

different seasons?

a)

Deep oceans

b)

Brackish water

c)

Wetlands

d)

Coral reefs