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Module 1

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which dictionary defines a hospital as "an institution for the care, cure, and treatment of sick and wounded"?

a)

Oxford Dictionary

b)

Blakiston's New Gould Medical Dictionary

c)

Stedman's Medical Dictionary

d)

WHO Definition

2.

According to WHO, a hospital is an integral part of:

a)

Economic system

b)

Social and medical organization

c)

Private health services

d)

Insurance system

3.

Private healthcare agencies work on the basis of:

a)

Free services

b)

Tax support

c)

Fee-for-service

d)

Community funds

4.

Voluntary health agencies are primarily supported by:

a)

Government

b)

Insurance companies

c)

Voluntary contributions

d)

Hospitals

5.

Government healthcare agencies are:

a)

Non-official

b)

Supported by taxes

c)

Run by trusts

d)

Fully privatized

6.

Which of the following is NOT a hospital function?

a)

Treatment and rehabilitation

b)

Promotion of health

c)

Social entertainment

d)

Training of health professionals

7.

From the individual's view, hospitals provide:

a)

Entertainment services

b)

Centralized medical knowledge and technology

c)

Spiritual care only

d)

Insurance facilities

8.

After independence, healthcare in India initially dominated by:

a)

Private sector

b)

NGOs

c)

Public sector

d)

Insurance companies

9.

Which Act brought medical professionals under Consumer Protection?

a)

Medical Council Act, 1956

b)

Consumer Protection Act, 1986

c)

Clinical Establishment Act, 2010

d)

Insurance Act, 1999

10.

Hospital philosophy is mainly concerned with:

a)

Financial benefits

b)

Political policies

c)

Beliefs and values guiding objectives

d)

Patient entertainment

11.

A hospital's philosophy document is:

a)

Permanent and unchanging

b)

Subject to changes in society's needs

c)

Signed by doctors only

d)

Fixed by law

12.

AIIMS (Delhi) is classified under:

a)

Private body

b)

Autonomous body

c)

Local body

d)

Voluntary agency

13.

Hospitals run by state police departments belong to:

a)

Union Government

b)

Local bodies

c)

State government

d)

Voluntary agencies

14.

CMC Vellore is an example of:

a)

Private body

b)

Voluntary agency hospital

c)

Local body hospital

d)

Corporate hospital

15.

Which classification depends on system of medicine?

a)

Allopathic, Ayurvedic, Unani, Homeopathy

b)

Public, Private, Voluntary

c)

Teaching and Non-teaching

d)

Urban and Rural

16.

A multispecialty hospital can have how many specialties approximately?

a)

5-10

b)

15-20

c)

20-30

d)

More than 40

17.

The first specialty listed in a multispecialty hospital is:

a)

Cardiology

b)

Anesthesiology

c)

General Surgery

d)

Pediatrics

18.

Interventional Radiology belongs to:

a)

Medical specialty

b)

Administrative service

c)

Preventive medicine only

d)

Nursing service

19.

Which specialty is concerned with newborn babies?

a)

Pediatrics

b)

Neonatology

c)

Obstetrics

d)

Gynecology

20.

Microsurgery refers to:

a)

Small cosmetic procedures

b)

Surgery using microscopes for precision

c)

Surgery on micro-organisms

d)

Minor outpatient surgery

21.

The specialty dealing with blood disorders is:

a)

Immunology

b)

Hematology

c)

Rheumatology

d)

Oncology

22.

Trauma and emergency belongs to:

a)

Preventive services

b)

General medicine

c)

Emergency specialty

d)

Non-medical services

23.

Vascular surgery deals with:

a)

Nerves

b)

Lungs

c)

Blood vessels

d)

Kidneys

24.

WHO definition of hospital emphasizes:

a)

Curative and preventive care

b)

Economic profit

c)

Insurance growth

d)

Only outpatient services

25.

Hospital training programs are mainly for:

a)

Business executives

b)

Engineers

c)

Health workers and professionals

d)

Non-medical staff only

26.

In India, the term "clinic" usually refers to:

a)

A place for surgeries

b)

A place for inpatient treatment

c)

A place where sick persons get consultancy and outpatient care

d)

A hospital with multispecialty care

27.

Nursing homes are usually owned by:

a)

Government agencies

b)

Insurance companies

c)

Individual doctor or group of doctors

d)

Corporate firms

28.

Which type of patients are generally not admitted in nursing homes?

a)

Patients with fever

b)

Patients with minor injuries

c)

Patients requiring intensive care

d)

Patients with general illness

29.

Primary Health Centers mainly provide:

a)

Surgical care

b)

Free preventive and basic treatment

c)

Corporate medical insurance

d)

Cosmetic treatments

30.

Which of the following is NOT included in primary healthcare?

a)

Immunization

b)

Malnutrition prevention

c)

Childbirth and postnatal care

d)

Neurosurgery

31.

Voluntary healthcare centers operate on:

a)

Profit motive

b)

Non-commercial basis

c)

Tax-based funding

d)

Foreign investment

32.

The governing body of voluntary healthcare centers is usually:

a)

State health ministry

b)

Private owner

c)

Board of trustees

d)

Insurance companies

33.

Major revenue for voluntary healthcare centers comes from:

a)

Patients only

b)

Donations and grants

c)

Insurance schemes

d)

Tax collection

34.

Private hospitals are usually run on:

a)

No profit, no loss basis

b)

Profit motive

c)

Voluntary contributions

d)

Government schemes

35.

The profit from a private hospital usually goes to:

a)

Government

b)

Patients

c)

Owners or members of the firm

d)

Voluntary organizations

36.

A hospital run by a public charitable trust is called:

a)

Voluntary hospital

b)

Corporate hospital

c)

Trust hospital

d)

Nursing home

37.

Surplus income in a trust hospital is used for:

a)

Trustees' personal use

b)

Development and expansion of hospital

c)

Dividends to shareholders

d)

Government treasury

38.

Corporate hospitals are formed under:

a)

Public health act

b)

Companies Act

c)

Clinical establishment act

d)

Medical Council act

39.

Funds for expansion of corporate hospitals are raised through:

a)

Donations

b)

Issue of shares

c)

Voluntary contributions

d)

Taxes

40.

In corporate hospitals, the board of directors are answerable to:

a)

Government

b)

Trustees

c)

Shareholders

d)

Patients

41.

Hospitals attached to medical/dental colleges for training are called:

a)

Isolation hospitals

b)

Teaching hospitals

c)

Voluntary hospitals

d)

Corporate hospitals

42.

Which hospitals are primarily meant for infectious diseases?

a)

Voluntary hospitals

b)

Isolation hospitals

c)

Private hospitals

d)

PHCs

43.

Government hospitals provide treatment:

a)

Only for insured patients

b)

At high charges

c)

Free or at minimal cost

d)

Only to employees

44.

Which hospitals provide treatment to employees contributing to state ESI scheme?

a)

Private hospitals

b)

ESI hospitals

c)

Trust hospitals

d)

Corporate hospitals

45.

Paid wards in government hospitals are provided for:

a)

Trustees only

b)

Employees

c)

Patients who can afford charges

d)

Free patients

46.

Clinics differ from hospitals because they:

a)

Admit inpatients

b)

Only provide outpatient services

c)

Always run by corporations

d)

Provide ICU facilities

47.

Which type of hospital runs strictly on "no profit, no loss" basis?

a)

Private hospitals

b)

Voluntary hospitals

c)

Trust hospitals

d)

Corporate hospitals

48.

Government hospitals are generally funded by:

a)

Shareholders

b)

Donations

c)

Government budget

d)

Insurance agencies

49.

A hospital that provides both teaching and patient care is an example of:

a)

PHC

b)

Teaching hospital

c)

Isolation hospital

d)

Trust hospital

50.

ESI hospitals are primarily meant for:

a)

General public

b)

Retired employees only

c)

Employees of private/public undertakings paying ESI contribution

d)

Voluntary patients

51.

The success of any hospital depends upon:

a)

Strict rules only

b)

Effective administration and clear policies

c)

Patient complaints

d)

Financial profits alone

52.

Which of the following does NOT come under General Administration?

a)

Hospital kitchen and dietary service

b)

Laundry and linen

c)

Operation theatre

d)

Security and fire fighting

53.

Which department comes under General Administration?

a)

Hospital kitchen and dietary service

b)

Laundry and linen

c)

Operation theatre

d)

Security and fire fighting

54.

The medical administration mainly supervises:

a)

Housekeeping services

b)

Clinical investigation departments

c)

Transport and parking

d)

Finance and billing

55.

CSSD stands for:

a)

Central Supply and Sterile Department

b)

Central Sterile Supply Department

c)

Central Sanitation and Security Division

d)

Central Standard Service Department

56.

Which department comes under Finance and Accounts?

a)

Wards maintenance

b)

Billing department

c)

Housekeeping

d)

Nursing services

57.

Personnel management includes:

a)

Canteen services

b)

Human Resource Department (HRD)

c)

Imaging services

d)

Pharmacy

58.

Top-level hospital management is mainly responsible for:

a)

Policy decisions

b)

Daily ward rounds

c)

Case sheet documentation

d)

Nursing care

59.

Middle-level management acts as:

a)

Direct service providers

b)

Bridge between top and lower management

c)

Shareholders

d)

Non-medical staff

60.

Lower management staff are mainly responsible for:

a)

Framing policies

b)

Approving budgets

c)

Implementing and executing plans

d)

Appointing directors

61.

Administration is mainly concerned with:

a)

Execution of policies

b)

Determination of objectives and policies

c)

Patient care only

d)

Nursing management

62.

Management is primarily:

a)

A determinative function

b)

An executive function

c)

A legislative function

d)

A voluntary function

63.

Administration is generally popular with:

a)

Business enterprises

b)

Military, education, religion, government

c)

Private companies

d)

Hospitals only

64.

The main function of administration is:

a)

Motivating

b)

Planning and organizing

c)

Controlling

d)

Billing

65.

The scope of hospital services is divided into how many categories?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

66.

Which of the following is a round-the-clock hospital service?

a)

Finance budget department

b)

MRI and CT Scan

c)

Patient grievance cell

d)

HR department

67.

An important point for effective administration is:

a)

Centralizing all powers

b)

Delegating authority along with responsibility

c)

Avoiding communication

d)

Ignoring grievances

68.

A true administrator should avoid:

a)

Quick decision making

b)

Gossip and backbiting

c)

Department decentralization

d)

Patient grievance redressal

69.

Administrative hierarchy should be known to:

a)

Only consultants

b)

Every employee in the hospital

c)

Only management staff

d)

Patients only

70.

Which of the following directly affects patient care?

a)

Delay in generator repair

b)

Delay in accounts

c)

Delay in staff salary

d)

Delay in committee meetings

71.

Which duty is crucial for patient grievance handling?

a)

Punishment without hearing

b)

Patience to listen and explain

c)

Strict denial of issues

d)

Avoiding attendants

72.

Every hospital employee from housekeeping to consultants is:

a)

Unequal in responsibility

b)

Equally important

c)

Ignored by management

d)

Responsible only for profits

73.

The hospital administrator should supervise:

a)

Only medical services

b)

Non-medical departments like HR, PR, kitchen, linen

c)

Only finance

d)

Only security

74.

Which statutory duty comes under administrator?

a)

Issuing prescriptions

b)

Obtaining and renewing licenses

c)

Patient diagnosis

d)

Approving insurance claims

75.

The Medical Superintendent/Chief Medical Officer is overall in charge of:

a)

Non-medical administration

b)

Finance and accounts

c)

Medical activities

d)

Security

76.

Which of the following is a duty of the Medical Superintendent?

a)

Handle insurance policies

b)

Monitor OPD waiting time

c)

Oversee laundry services

d)

Maintain buildings

77.

The four important components of a hospital are:

a)

Doctor, nurse, patient, medicine

b)

Doctor, staff, building, finance

c)

Nurse, patient, insurance, pharmacy

d)

Doctor, nurse, lab, X-ray

78.

A Resident Medical Officer (RMO) must be:

a)

A postgraduate only

b)

A medical graduate registered with Medical Council of India

c)

A nurse with special training

d)

A paramedical professional

79.

Which doctor prepares the discharge summary?

a)

Consultant only

b)

RMO only

c)

Both RMO and consultant

d)

Nurse

80.

A registrar in a hospital is:

a)

A junior nurse

b)

A postgraduate doctor between duty medical officer and consultant

c)

A pharmacist

d)

An administrator

81.

A consultant specializing in one particular field is called:

a)

Primary consultant

b)

General doctor

c)

Duty medical officer

d)

Registrar

82.

A referral consultant is:

a)

One who admits patients

b)

Specialist called for second opinion

c)

Consultant responsible for bills

d)

One who does only outpatient duty

83.

Co-consultants are required when:

a)

Patient has multiple health problems

b)

Patient is admitted in isolation ward

c)

Patient is referred to insurance companies

d)

Patient is admitted under a nurse

84.

A nurse is defined as:

a)

Only female attendant

b)

A trained person to care for sick, injured, old or infirm

c)

Doctor's assistant

d)

Volunteer worker

85.

Nursing specialization includes:

a)

Only ICU care

b)

ICU, OT, pediatrics, cardiology, casualty, etc.

c)

Pharmacy training only

d)

General medicine only

86.

Which of the following is NOT a quality expected in a nurse?

a)

Integrity

b)

Honesty

c)

Negative attitude

d)

Teamwork

87.

Which duty is NOT part of professional nursing care?

a)

Dressing and hygiene

b)

Administering medicines

c)

Patient entertainment

d)

Technical nursing procedures

88.

Which is a key value of nursing?

a)

Profit-making

b)

Belief in human dignity

c)

Competition with doctors

d)

Political loyalty

89.

Which duty is included in nurse's administrative tasks?

a)

Efficient ward management

b)

Diagnosis of illness

c)

Prescribing medicines

d)

Approving insurance claims

90.

Bed sore prevention is mainly the duty of:

a)

Pharmacist

b)

Nurse

c)

Consultant

d)

Patient attendant

91.

Which drug administration must be done in presence of a doctor?

a)

Dopamine

b)

Paracetamol

c)

Vitamin tablets

d)

Oral rehydration salts

92.

Which type of patient is treated in outpatient clinic only?

a)

Inpatient

b)

Review patient

c)

New outpatient

d)

Isolation patient

93.

Patients admitted under cash payment mode are called:

a)

Free patients

b)

Reimbursement patients

c)

Cash patients

d)

Company referral patients

94.

Company-referred patients are admitted:

a)

Only in government hospitals

b)

Under agreements between companies and hospitals

c)

Without payment

d)

Only in voluntary hospitals

95.

Patients claiming reimbursement from insurance are treated as:

a)

Free patients

b)

Cash patients with additional forms

c)

Voluntary patients

d)

Company patients

96.

TPA stands for:

a)

Third Party Administrator

b)

Total Patient Admission

c)

Treatment Procedure Authority

d)

Technical Patient Association

97.

Which patients get cashless treatment directly from hospitals?

a)

Cash patients

b)

Free patients

c)

Patients referred by TPAs

d)

CGHS patients

98.

CGHS stands for:

a)

Central Government Hospital Scheme

b)

Central Government Health Scheme

c)

Clinical Government Health System

d)

Central Group Health Service

99.

The 'Arogya Sri' scheme was introduced by:

a)

Government of Tamil Nadu

b)

Government of Andhra Pradesh

c)

Government of Kerala

d)

Government of Karnataka

100.

By law, some trust and corporate hospitals must treat what % of inpatients free?

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

15%

d)

20%

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