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ITIL Q121-Q160

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What is required by all service desk staff?
a)
Excellent technical knowledge
b)
Root cause analysis skills
c)
Demonstration of emotional intelligence
d)
Knowledge of telephony technology
2.
Which practice establishes a channel between the service provider and its users?
a)
Relationship management
b)
Change enablement
c)
Supplier management
d)
Service desk
3.
Which practice includes the use of approaches such as Lean, Agile and DevOps with the aim of facilitating a greater amount of change at a quicker rate?
a)
Service desk
b)
Monitoring and event management
c)
Service level management
d)
Continual improvement
4.
Which practice has a purpose that includes maximizing success by ensuring that risks have been properly assessed?
a)
Relationship management
b)
Change enablement
c)
Release management
d)
Monitoring and event management
5.
Which practice provides users with a way to get various requests arranged, explained and coordinated?
a)
Service level management
b)
Relationship management
c)
Continual improvement
d)
Service desk
6.
Which helps to streamline the fulfilment of service requests?
a)
Understanding which service requests can be accomplished with limited approvals
b)
Creating new workflows for every service request
c)
Separating requests relating to service failures from the degradation of services
d)
Eliminating service requests which have complex workflows
7.
Which statement about outcomes is CORRECT?
a)
They are deliverables provided to service consumers
b)
They allow service consumers to achieve a desired result
c)
They provide products to service providers based on outputs
d)
They co-create value for service providers by reducing costs and risks
8.
Which guiding principle says that services and processes should NOT provide a solution for every exception?
a)
Keep it simple and practical
b)
Collaborate and promote visibility
c)
Think and work holistically
d)
Optimize and automate
9.
The purpose of the 'supplier management' practice is to ensure that the organization's suppliers and their performances are [?] appropriately.
a)
measured
b)
rewarded
c)
managed
d)
defined
10.
The purpose of the service configuration management practice is to ensure that accurate and reliable information about the [?], and the CIs that support them, is available when and where it is needed.
a)
relationships with suppliers
b)
configuration of services
c)
skills of people
d)
authorization of changes
11.
Which practice requires skills and competencies related to business analysis, supplier management and relationship management?
a)
Incident management
b)
Monitoring and event management
c)
Service level management
d)
IT asset management
12.
When should a workaround be created?
a)
As soon as possible, once the incident is logged
b)
After the resolution of a problem
c)
When a problem cannot be resolved quickly
d)
When a potential permanent solution has been identified
13.
What is a configuration item?
a)
Any financially valuable component that can contribute to the delivery of an IT product or service
b)
Any change of state that has significance for the management of a service
c)
Any component that needs to be managed in order to deliver an IT service
d)
A problem that has been analyzed but has not been resolved
14.
When an organization has decided to improve a service, it should start by considering [?].
a)
existing information
b)
new methods
c)
additional measurements
d)
revised processes
15.
Which is a use of the change schedule?
a)
Assigning resources to changes
b)
Deciding the approval authority for changes
c)
Automating the change process
d)
Creating change models
16.
Which dimension of service management considers the workflows and controls needed to deliver services?
a)
Organizations and people
b)
Information and technology
c)
Partners and suppliers
d)
Value streams and processes
17.
Which guiding principle considers how the steps of a process can be performed as efficiently as possible?
a)
Focus on value
b)
Start where you are
c)
Think and work holistically
d)
Optimize and automate
18.
Which statement about the 'incident management' practice is CORRECT?
a)
It identifies the cause of major incidents
b)
It authorizes changes to resolve incidents
c)
It maintains detailed procedures for diagnosing incidents
d)
It resolves the highest impact incidents first
19.
How should an organization prioritize incidents?
a)
Ask the user for their preferred resolution timeframe
b)
Assess the availability of the appropriate support team
c)
Use an agreed classification which is based on the business impact of the incident
d)
Create an order of incidents based on the dates and times when they were logged
20.
Which is a purpose of the 'relationship management' practice?
a)
To systematically observe services and service components
b)
To protect the information needed by the organization to conduct its business
c)
To be the entry point and single point of contact for the service provider with all of its users
d)
To identify, analyze, monitor, and continually improve links with stakeholders
21.
Which statement about problems is CORRECT?
a)
Problems are not related to incidents
b)
Problems must be resolved quickly in order to restore normal business activity
c)
Problem analysis should focus on one of the four dimensions to achieve a fast diagnosis
d)
Problem prioritization involves risk assessment
22.
Which is a risk that might be removed from a service consumer by an IT service?
a)
Service provider ceasing to trade
b)
Security breach
c)
Failure of server hardware
d)
Cost of purchasing servers
23.
Which is one of the MAIN concerns of the 'design and transition' value chain activity?
a)
Understanding the organization's vision
b)
Understanding stakeholder needs
c)
Meeting stakeholder expectations
d)
Ensuring service components are available
24.
Which should be handled by 'service request management'?
a)
A request to implement a security patch
b)
A request to provide a laptop
c)
A request to resolve an error in a service
d)
A request to change a target in a service level agreement
25.
What can be described as an operating model for the creation and management of products and services?
a)
Governance
b)
Service value chain
c)
Guiding principles
d)
Practices
26.
Which action is performed by a service provider?
a)
Requesting required service actions
b)
Authorizing budget for service consumption
c)
Ensuring access to agreed resources
d)
Receiving of the agreed goods
27.
Which step of the continual improvement model includes baseline assessments?
a)
Did we get there?
b)
Where are we now?
c)
What is the vision?
d)
Where do we want to be?
28.
Which describes a 'change authority'?
a)
A model used to determine who will assess a change
b)
A person who approves a change
c)
A tool used to help plan changes
d)
A way to manage the people aspects of change
29.
Which is NOT a component of the service value system?
a)
The service value chain
b)
Opportunity and demand
c)
Continual improvement
d)
Governance
30.
Which statement about service relationship management is CORRECT?
a)
It focuses on the service actions performed by users
b)
It requires the service consumer to create resources for the service provider
c)
It requires co-operation of both the service provider and service consumer
d)
It focuses on the fulfilment of the agreed service actions
31.
What is the MOST important reason for prioritizing incidents?
a)
To ensure that user expectations are realistic
b)
To ensure that incidents with highest impact are resolved first
c)
To help information-sharing and learning
d)
To provide links to related changes and known errors
32.
Which 'service level management' activity helps staff to deliver a more business-focused service?
a)
Creating targets based on the percentage of uptime of a service
b)
Understanding the ongoing requirements of customers
c)
Using complex technical terminology in service level agreements (SLAs)
d)
Measuring low-level operational activities
33.
Which practice has a purpose that includes the handling of pre-defined, user-initiated demands for service?
a)
Service request management
b)
Service configuration management
c)
Deployment management
d)
Change enablement
34.
Which guiding principle considers which parts of an existing process should be kept by identifying how they contribute to value creation?
a)
Progress iteratively with feedback
b)
Collaborate and promote visibility
c)
Think and work holistically
d)
Keep it simple and practical
35.
What is the purpose of the 'monitoring and event management' practice?
a)
To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
b)
To manage workarounds and known errors
c)
To capture demand for incident resolution and service requests
d)
To systematically observe services and service components
36.
Which statement about outcomes is CORRECT?
a)
Outcomes rely on outputs to deliver results for a stakeholder
b)
Outcomes use activities to produce tangible or intangible deliverables
c)
Outcomes give service consumers assurance of products or services
d)
Outcomes help a service consumer to assess the cost of a specific activity
37.
Which skill is required by the 'service level management' practice?
a)
Supplier management
b)
Technical expertise
c)
Event monitoring
d)
Problem management
38.
Which statement about the 'continual improvement model' is CORRECT?
a)
Organizations should work through the steps of the model in the sequence in which they are presented
b)
The flow of the model helps organizations to link improvements to its goals
c)
The model is applicable to only certain parts of the service value system
d)
Organizations should use an additional model or method to link improvements to customer value
39.
What is the definition of warranty?
a)
A means of identifying events that could cause harm or loss
b)
A means of determining whether a service is fit for purpose
c)
A means of identifying a result for a stakeholder
d)
A means of determining whether a service is fit for use
40.
Which practice has a purpose that includes managing risks relating to confidentiality, integrity and availability?
a)
Change enablement
b)
Problem management
c)
Information security management
d)
Service configuration management