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Principles of Investigation and Diagnosis

Total questions: 53

Worksheet time: 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the most effective way to begin history taking with a new patient?

a)

Ask about their family history

b)

Start with a detailed medical questionnaire

c)

Begin with an open-ended question

d)

Inquire about their last dental visit

e)

Start by asking their occupation

2.

Which of the following is a characteristic of an open question in history-taking?

a)

Uses technical terminology

b)

Suggests a likely diagnosis

c)

Encourages a yes/no answer

d)

Allows the patient to speak freely

e)

Requires a checklist response

3.

Why should a clinician mix open and closed questions during history-taking?

a)

To minimize patient speaking time

b)

To complete the form faster

c)

To balance rapport-building with gathering specific detail

d)

To avoid appearing uninterested

e)

To control patient behavior

4.

During a consultation, the patient mentions they 'feel dizzy because of their sinuses.' What should the clinician do next?

a)

Accept the explanation and move on

b)

Explain that sinuses don’t cause dizziness

c)

Ask the patient what they mean by “sinuses”

d)

Refer directly to ENT

e)

Start medication for sinusitis

5.

A nervous 50-year-old patient hesitates when asked, 'Do you have a problem with alcohol?' during the first few minutes of the history. What is the most appropriate response?

a)

Repeat the question firmly for clarity

b)

Skip the question entirely

c)

Rephrase the question using medical jargon

d)

Delay asking sensitive questions until rapport is established

e)

Note the reaction and proceed to diagnosis

6.

Why should medical jargon be avoided during history taking?

a)

It confuses the clinician

b)

It’s difficult for patients to pronounce

c)

Patients may not understand it or misuse it

d)

It slows down the history-taking process

e)

It’s not professional to use jargon

7.

Which of the following demographic factors is most commonly associated with autoimmune diseases?

a)

Elderly males

b)

Young males

c)

Middle-aged females

d)

Elderly females

e)

Adolescents of any gender

8.

A 24-year-old patient complains of periodic mouth ulcers. Based on the history alone, which is the most likely provisional diagnosis?

a)

Oral lichen planus

b)

Pemphigus vulgaris

c)

Aphthous stomatitis

d)

Squamous cell carcinoma

e)

Chronic hyperplastic candidosis

9.

A 60-year-old South Asian male presents with reduced mouth opening and a burning sensation. He reports chewing betel nut for over 20 years. On history, there is fibrosis of the buccal mucosa. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis based on ethnic background and history?

a)

Oral lichen planus

b)

Oral submucous fibrosis

c)

Burning mouth syndrome

d)

Oral candidosis

e)

Sjögren’s syndrome

10.

What is the primary purpose of a medical history questionnaire in dental practice?

a)

To avoid medicolegal problems

b)

To gather complete medical information quickly

c)

To simplify the process of diagnosis

d)

To augment verbal history-taking

e)

To serve as a legally binding document

11.

Why is it essential to verbally confirm responses on a medical history questionnaire?

a)

Patients usually forget their names

b)

It saves time during examination

c)

It replaces the need for clinical examination

d)

Written answers may lack context or be inaccurate

e)

It is only needed in hospital settings

12.

A 45-year-old patient completes a medical history form stating they are fit and well. On questioning, they mention 'occasional nosebleeds' and a past issue with prolonged bleeding after a tooth extraction. What is the most appropriate next step?

a)

Proceed with treatment and monitor for bleeding

b)

Prescribe antibiotics as a precaution

c)

Refer for full blood count only after surgery

d)

Explore personal and family history of bleeding disorders

e)

Dismiss the concern as irrelevant

13.

Which of the following is required for consent to be legally valid in the UK?

a)

Verbal agreement witnessed by staff

b)

A clinician’s recommendation only

c)

The patient’s signature on any form

d)

Sufficient information and patient understanding

e)

Consent by family members in all cases

14.

Why should dental professionals ask about previous dental treatment during history-taking?

a)

To plan cosmetic enhancements

b)

To identify potentially litigious patients

c)

To assess pain tolerance levels

d)

To correlate symptoms with prior treatment or its absence

e)

To reduce the time of examination

15.

A patient refuses a recommended oral biopsy despite your explanation. What is the most appropriate next step?

a)

Proceed with the biopsy using minimal anaesthesia

b)

Document the refusal in writing and respect their decision

c)

Refer the patient for psychological counselling

d)

Explain that refusal voids any future treatment options

e)

Ignore their refusal if the condition is serious

16.

A 35-year-old patient consents to a minor oral surgery but later claims they didn’t understand the potential complications. You had explained the risks verbally and documented 'verbal consent' in their notes. What could have improved the consent process in this case?

a)

Performing the procedure more quickly

b)

Providing medication first

c)

Having the patient sign a written consent form

d)

Asking the patient to consult with family

e)

Omitting rare risks from the explanation

17.

Which of the following must always be palpated during extraoral examination?

a)

Lacrimal glands

b)

Frontal sinus

c)

Submandibular lymph nodes

d)

Zygomatic arch

e)

Mental foramen

18.

You suspect a maxillary sinus infection during a dental exam. What should you do next?

a)

Order blood tests

b)

Percuss the incisors

c)

Palpate the mental foramen

d)

Apply pressure to the maxilla to elicit tenderness

e)

Probe the periodontal pockets

19.

A 52-year-old male presents with dull jaw pain and an ill-defined swelling in the submandibular region. Intraoral examination is unremarkable. Vitality tests on nearby teeth are inconclusive. What is the next best step in clinical reasoning?

a)

Assume it’s muscular pain and treat symptomatically

b)

Ignore it since intraoral findings are normal

c)

Initiate antibiotics without diagnosis

d)

Create a differential diagnosis including malignancy and plan investigations

e)

Schedule elective extraction of adjacent teeth

20.

What does the sensitivity of a diagnostic test refer to?

a)

The likelihood of excluding a disease

b)

The ability to correctly identify patients with a condition

c)

The accuracy of cost-effectiveness

d)

The number of false positives produced

e)

The ability to detect rare diseases only

21.

Why should diagnostic tests not be ordered indiscriminately?

a)

It saves time on paperwork

b)

Too many tests increase specificity

c)

Over-testing may increase false positives and obscure the diagnosis

d)

Patients dislike multiple tests

e)

It limits the patient’s legal recourse

22.

A diagnostic test yields many false positives in a population with rare disease prevalence. What does this imply about the test's use in this context?

a)

The test should be repeated multiple times

b)

The test is ideal for widespread screening

c)

The test’s positive predictive value is low

d)

The test’s sensitivity is too high

e)

The disease does not exist in the population

23.

dentist considers ordering a panel of tests for a patient with vague oral

symptoms. The differential diagnosis includes Sjögren’s syndrome, but the tests

are costly and some are difficult to interpret. What is the most appropriate

action?

a)

Order all available tests to avoid missing anything

b)

Begin treatment based solely on clinical suspicion

c)

Select investigations targeted at confirming/excluding key differential diagnoses

d)

Refer the patient without any testing

e)

Use only cheap, screening-type tests

24.

Which imaging modality is particularly good for evaluating soft tissue lesions without using ionizing radiation?

a)

Cone beam CT

b)

Panoramic radiography

c)

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

d)

CT with contrast

e)

Ultrasound

25.

Why is cone beam CT commonly used in oral surgery and implantology?

a)

It is better for imaging soft tissue

b)

It has the lowest cost of all modalities

c)

It gives high-resolution images of bone at lower doses than medical CT

d)

It eliminates the need for radiologist interpretation

e)

It can image saliva flow dynamically

26.

A 60-year-old patient with a history of oral cancer surgery presents with a new swelling in the neck. CT and MRI are inconclusive due to surgical artefact and inflammation. Which imaging modality would be most helpful in evaluating possible tumour recurrence or metastasis in this case?

a)

Conventional radiograph

b)

Cone beam CT

c)

Ultrasound

d)

PET scan

e)

CT with contrast

27.

What is the most preferred biopsy technique for intraoral lesions requiring histological diagnosis?

a)

Biopsy punch

b)

Core (Trucut) biopsy

c)

Electrocautery

d)

Scalpel biopsy

e)

Laser excision

28.

Why should ulcers generally be avoided when selecting a site for mucosal biopsy?

a)

They contain blood vessels

b)

They are too painful

c)

They lack diagnostic epithelium and are inflamed

d)

They heal too quickly

e)

They bleed excessively

29.

A dentist plans to biopsy a suspicious lesion near the parotid gland. The clinical impression is a pleomorphic adenoma. What is the most appropriate action?

a)

Perform an excisional biopsy using electrocautery

b)

Refer the patient for a laser excision

c)

Perform a punch biopsy of the mass

d)

Use fine needle aspiration or excise the lesion with a margin

e)

Avoid biopsy due to the risk of bleeding

30.

Which routine histological stain combination is most commonly used in microscopy?

a)

Periodic acid–Schiff and Alcian blue

b)

Giemsa and crystal violet

c)

Gram stain and methylene blue

d)

Haematoxylin and eosin

e)

Congo red and PAS

31.

Why are frozen sections not commonly used for initial diagnosis?

a)

They are too expensive for most cases

b)

They destroy tissue for future analysis

c)

They are less accurate than standard histopathology

d)

They require decalcification before analysis

e)

They are only useful for dental enamel

32.

A dentist plans to biopsy a lesion and suspects an immunobullous disease. Which action ensures a valid immunofluorescence test?

a)

Fix the tissue in 10% formal saline

b)

Delay transport to allow air drying

c)

Send tissue fresh or in a special transport medium

d)

Decalcify the tissue before submission

e)

Use electrocautery to prevent bleeding

33.

A dentist biopsies a firm mucosal lesion. The sample is immediately placed in saline and sent to the lab. Two days later, the pathologist reports that the tissue is unsuitable for diagnosis. What is the most likely reason?

a)

The sample lacked enough connective tissue

b)

The specimen was sent too quickly

c)

The tissue was not properly fixed in formalin

d)

The site was inappropriate for biopsy

e)

The patient was taking anticoagulants

34.

What is the main advantage of PCR over traditional culture methods in detecting pathogens?

a)

It requires no sample preparation

b)

It improves antibody binding

c)

It provides structural tissue context

d)

It is rapid and highly sensitive

e)

It replaces the need for biopsy

35.

What is the key benefit of in situ hybridisation (ISH) over PCR?

a)

Greater sensitivity in detecting gene mutations

b)

Cheaper and faster turnaround time

c)

Ability to locate the genetic material within specific tissues and cells

d)

Higher throughput for population screening

e)

Better identification of rare bloodborne pathogens

36.

A qPCR result shows low amplification at a late cycle threshold. What does this most likely indicate?

a)

The gene is absent

b)

There are no controls present

c)

The target is highly expressed

d)

The target is present in low quantity

e)

The probe has failed completely

37.

Which of the following blood tests is most sensitive for detecting iron deficiency?

a)

Serum calcium

b)

Red cell folate

c)

Serum ferritin

d)

Serum phosphate

e)

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

38.

A smear from a mucosal ulcer reveals virally altered epithelial cells with nuclear changes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Bacterial stomatitis

b)

Syphilitic chancre

c)

Herpetic infection

d)

Aphthous ulcer

e)

Traumatic ulcer

39.

A patient presents with persistent oral ulceration and sore tongue. You suspect an underlying systemic cause. Blood film shows macrocytic red cells, and the patient reports a vegan diet. Which blood test would most likely confirm the diagnosis?

a)

Serum calcium

b)

Vitamin B12 level

c)

HIV antibody test

d)

Paul–Bunnell test

e)

ESR

40.

(EMQ) to encourage the pt to speak freely about their symptoms

a)

open eneded

b)

close ended

c)

leading question

d)

follow up

e)

probing question

41.

To confirm specific clinical details of the patient’s symptoms(EMQ)

a)

Open-ended question

b)

Closed-ended question

c)

Leading question

d)

Follow-up question

42.

To guide the patient toward a particular answer or assumption

a)

Open-ended question

b)

Closed-ended question

c)

Leading question

d)

Follow-up question

43.

To seek clarification on a vague or unclear previous answer

a)

Closed-ended question

b)

Leading question

c)

Follow-up question

d)

Probing question

e)

Rhetorical question

44.

(EMQ) To explore further information about a sensitive or socially relevant issue (e.g., alcohol use)

a)

Closed-ended question

b)

. Leading question

c)

Follow-up question

d)

Probing question

45.

Results in the patient feeling rushed or undervalued

a)

Interrupting the patient frequently

b)

Using medical jargon

c)

Asking leading question

d)

Making assumptions about the patient’s condition

46.

. May confuse the patient and impair understanding of the questions

a)

Interrupting the patient frequently

b)

Using medical jargon

c)

Asking leading questions

d)

Making assumptions about the patient’s condition

e)

Failing to build rapport

47.

Can lead to the patient giving incomplete or inaccurate responses

a)

Interrupting the patient frequently

b)

Using medical jargon

c)

Asking leading questions

d)

Making assumptions about the patient’s condition

e)

Failing to build rapport

48.

4. May cause the patient to agree with incorrect suggestions

a)

A. Interrupting the patient frequently

b)

B. Using medical jargon

c)

C. Asking leading questions

d)

D. Making assumptions about the patient’s condition

e)

E. Failing to build rapport

49.

What essential communication skill, alongside questioning, helps build rapport during history-taking?

(a)  

50.

What type of question should be avoided because it may guide the patient toward a particular answer? •

(a)  

51.

What structured tool helps ensure no important medical detail is overlooked in historytaking? •

(a)  

52.

What should be avoided during consultations to prevent patient confusion, even in experienced patients?

(a)  

53.

What interpersonal factor is critical for encouraging nervous patients to share accurate information?

(a)