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NCLEX-Style Cardiovascular Questions

Total questions: 25

Worksheet time: 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

John D., a 65-year-old retired mechanic, arrived at the emergency department experiencing sudden, severe chest pain radiating down his left arm. The pain began while he was walking to his mailbox. Which of the following associated symptoms did John also report?

a)

Dizziness and blurred vision

b)

Numbness in his right leg and dry cough

c)

Shortness of breath and a cold, clammy sweat

d)

Headache and ringing in his ears

2.

John D. has several risk factors for cardiovascular disease. Which of the following in his history significantly increases his risk? (Select all that apply)

a)

Mild osteoarthritis in his knees

b)

Inconsistently managed hypertension and type 2 diabetes

c)

Smoking one pack of cigarettes daily for 35 years

d)

Father passed away from a heart attack at age 58

e)

Occasional use of over-the-counter pain relievers

3.

Upon initial assessment, John D.'s vital signs included a blood pressure of 168/92 mmHg, heart rate of 104 bpm (irregular), respiratory rate of 24/min, and O2 saturation of 90%. Which of these findings requires immediate nursing intervention for oxygenation?

a)

BP: 168/92 mmHg

b)

HR: 104 bpm (irregular)

c)

RR: 24/min

d)

O2 Sat: 90%

4.

John D. reported that his chest pain was an 8/10 on a pain scale and radiated to his jaw and left arm. He also stated the pain started when walking to his mailbox and increased in intensity. He took sublingual nitroglycerin (NTG) twice without pain reduction. This lack of response to NTG, combined with the pain's duration and severity, is most indicative of which condition?

a)

Chronic Stable Angina (CSA)

b)

Vasospastic Angina

c)

Unstable Angina (UA)

d)

Myocardial Infarction (MI)

5.

John D.'s initial lab results showed a Troponin I level of 2.8 ng/mL (normal: <0.04 ng/mL). This finding is most indicative of which condition?

a)

Chronic Stable Angina (CSA)

b)

Vasospastic Angina

c)

Unstable Angina (UA)

d)

Myocardial Infarction (MI)

6.

Which of the following medications is most appropriate for John D. to receive immediately to reduce myocardial oxygen demand and relieve chest pain?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Morphine

c)

Metoprolol

d)

Atorvastatin

7.

John D. is prescribed a beta-blocker as part of his treatment plan. Which of the following is a common side effect of beta-blockers that John should be aware of?

a)

Increased heart rate

b)

Hypotension

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Increased appetite

8.

Which of the following lifestyle modifications should John D. implement to reduce his risk of future cardiovascular events? (Select all that apply)

a)

Increase dietary sodium intake

b)

Engage in regular physical activity

c)

Quit smoking

d)

Limit alcohol consumption

e)

Increase intake of saturated fats

9.

John D. is advised to monitor his blood pressure at home. Which of the following is the recommended target blood pressure for patients with cardiovascular disease?

a)

Less than 120/80 mmHg

b)

Less than 130/80 mmHg

c)

Less than 140/90 mmHg

d)

Less than 150/90 mmHg

10.

John D. is prescribed a statin medication. Which of the following lab tests should be regularly monitored to assess for potential side effects of statin therapy?

a)

Liver function tests

b)

Complete blood count

c)

Serum electrolytes

d)

Thyroid function tests

11.

Myocardial Infarction (MI) is differentiated from Unstable Angina (UA) primarily by:

a)

The duration of chest pain

b)

The presence of ST-segment changes on an ECG

c)

The presence of elevated cardiac troponin levels

d)

Relief with rest and nitroglycerin

12.

In the context of Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS), which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of a Myocardial Infarction (MI)?

a)

Insufficient oxygen supplied to meet the requirements of the myocardium, without permanent damage

b)

Atherosclerotic plaque rupture leading to thrombus formation and vasoconstriction, severely reducing blood flow by 80-90%

c)

Chest discomfort during moderate physical activity, relieved by nitroglycerin or rest

d)

ST changes on a 12-lead ECG without changes in troponin levels

13.

For a patient experiencing ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), what is the first-line treatment and its target timeframe?

a)

Fibrinolytic therapy within 60 minutes

b)

Percutaneous Coronary Intervention (PCI) within 90 minutes ("Door to Balloon")

c)

Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG) within 24 hours

d)

Intensive medical management with heparin and antiplatelets

14.

Following a Percutaneous Coronary Intervention (PCI) with stent placement, a patient with a drug-eluting stent (DES) needs to take antiplatelet therapy for at least how long?

a)

1 month

b)

3 months

c)

6 months

d)

1 year

15.

John D.'s family history of his father having a heart attack at age 58 is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular disease because it indicates:

a)

Exposure to similar environmental stressors

b)

A genetic predisposition

c)

Shared dietary habits

d)

Similar occupational hazards

16.

Which of the following EKG findings is indicative of myocardial ischemia?

a)

Normal P wave configuration

b)

ST depression and T-wave inversion

c)

A QRS duration less than 0.12 seconds

d)

An isoelectric ST segment

17.

John D. presented with an irregular heart rate of 104 bpm. What common dysrhythmia is characterized by numerous rapid impulses from various atrial sites, leading to chaotic atrial depolarization and an irregularly irregular ventricular rate with an absence of clear P waves?

a)

Sinus Tachycardia

b)

Sinus Bradycardia

c)

Premature Ventricular Contractions (PVCs)

d)

Atrial Fibrillation (AF)

18.

What does the P wave on an ECG strip represent?

a)

Ventricular repolarization

b)

Ventricular depolarization

c)

Atrial depolarization

d)

The time between ventricular depolarization and repolarization

19.

Which of the following is a common complication that a nurse should monitor for in a patient who has had a Myocardial Infarction (MI)? (Select all that apply)

a)

Arrhythmias

b)

Heart failure

c)

Reinfarction

d)

Pericardial effusion

e)

Acute pulmonary edema

20.

A patient reports persistent chest pain 5 minutes after taking the first sublingual nitroglycerin (NTG) dose. According to patient education guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step?

a)

Take a second NTG and call 9-1-1

b)

Wait another 5 minutes before taking a second NTG

c)

Take two more NTG tablets immediately

d)

Go to the nearest walk-in clinic

21.

Which component of the EKG waveform typically represents the time for ventricular repolarization?

a)

P wave

b)

QRS complex

c)

ST segment

d)

T wave

22.

A patient's lipid profile shows an LDL of 160 mg/dL and an HDL of 32 mg/dL. These values indicate:

a)

Normal lipid levels

b)

Low risk for cardiovascular disease

c)

Dyslipidemia, increasing cardiovascular risk

d)

High-density lipoprotein (HDL) within normal limits

23.

Which of the following is a key component of the "ABCDE Guidelines" for patient education in Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)?

a)

Avoidance of all medications

b)

Regular physical activity

c)

Consumption of high-sodium foods

d)

Exclusive reliance on alternative therapies

24.

Which of the following conditions is listed as a non-ischemic cardiovascular cause of chest pain?

a)

Acute Coronary Syndromes

b)

Chronic Stable Angina

c)

Aortic dissection

d)

Ischemic heart disease

25.

The PR interval on an EKG strip represents the time taken for an impulse to spread from the sinus node through the AV node into the ventricles. What is the normal duration for a PR interval?

a)

Less than 0.12 seconds

b)

0.12 to 0.20 seconds

c)

Greater than 0.20 seconds

d)

0.06 to 0.12 seconds