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Module 3

Total questions: 130

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The first step in patient admission is handled by:

a)

Nurse in-charge

b)

Admission clerk/receptionist

c)

Ward boy

d)

Consultant

2.

The occupancy chart at reception is used for:

a)

Tracking staff attendance

b)

Ensuring quick admission

c)

Billing patients

d)

Recording discharges

3.

Patient's particulars are written on:

a)

OP card

b)

Case-sheet

c)

Prescription pad

d)

Discharge slip

4.

Who orients the patient to room facilities during admission?

a)

Consultant

b)

Resident doctor

c)

Nurse

d)

Attender

5.

Consent form for admission must be signed by:

a)

Hospital administrator

b)

Consultant

c)

Patient or relative

d)

Pharmacist

6.

In case of valuables, patients are advised to:

a)

Hand over to nurse

b)

Keep in safe custody

c)

Deposit in pharmacy

d)

Submit to MRD

7.

During emergency admission, paperwork should be completed:

a)

Before admission

b)

After stabilizing the patient

c)

Only with consultant's permission

d)

At billing section

8.

Unique Patient Identification Number (UPIN) is suggested by:

a)

WHO

b)

QCI

c)

NABH

d)

MCI

9.

A patient admitted multiple times in a year will get:

a)

Same IP number

b)

New IP number each time

c)

No number

d)

Only discharge summary

10.

Discharge summaries are filed according to:

a)

Ward number

b)

Consultant's name

c)

UPIN

d)

Bed number

11.

Admission through OPD requires:

a)

Reference slip from lab

b)

Advice slip from consultant

c)

Admission by billing clerk

d)

Dietician approval

12.

Critically ill patients in casualty are shifted to:

a)

General ward

b)

ICU

c)

Pharmacy

d)

MRD

13.

Referral admissions from companies follow:

a)

Direct payment system (DPS)

b)

Cash before service

c)

Credit note

d)

Free service

14.

Direct admissions usually happen in:

a)

MRD

b)

Casualty

c)

Pharmacy

d)

Canteen

15.

Transfer policy ensures:

a)

Quick billing

b)

Patient safety

c)

Free treatment

d)

Reduced staff

16.

Patient transfer from ICU to ward occurs when:

a)

Patient becomes stable

b)

Doctor is absent

c)

Bed is vacant

d)

Billing is cleared

17.

Transferring a patient to another hospital may occur due to:

a)

Non-availability of specialty

b)

Patient's refusal

c)

Bed linen shortage

d)

Dietician advice

18.

Patients taken to diagnostic centers must:

a)

Be discharged

b)

Carry case sheet

c)

Pay extra registration fees

d)

Sign new consent

19.

Discharge planning should be:

a)

On same day only

b)

A day in advance

c)

Decided by patient

d)

Done after billing only

20.

Discharge summaries are prepared by:

a)

Dietician

b)

Duty doctor

c)

Receptionist

d)

Pharmacist

21.

Discharge at request is initiated by:

a)

Consultant

b)

Patient/attendant

c)

Nurse

d)

Billing officer

22.

Discharge against medical advice requires:

a)

Consent from consultant

b)

Written statement from patient/attendant

c)

Police approval

d)

MRD clearance

23.

Common reason for discharge against medical advice is:

a)

High expenditure

b)

Free diet

c)

Change in nurse

d)

Lack of consent form

24.

If a patient leaves without informing, it is recorded as:

a)

Discharged at request

b)

Absconded

c)

Expired

d)

Transferred

25.

Absconded patients must be reported to:

a)

Police

b)

Dietician

c)

Ward boy

d)

Billing clerk

26.

OPD is considered as:

a)

A minor section of hospital

b)

The first point of contact for patients

c)

Only for emergencies

d)

A billing center

27.

Usual working hours of OPD in most hospitals are:

a)

24 hours

b)

10 am to 6 pm

c)

8 am to 8 pm

d)

9 am to 5 pm

28.

Location of OPD in a hospital should be:

a)

Top floor

b)

At the entrance

c)

Near ICU

d)

Behind canteen

29.

Wheelchair and trolley facilities must be available in:

a)

OT

b)

Pharmacy

c)

OPD

d)

Blood bank

30.

New patients visiting OPD must:

a)

Pay discharge fee

b)

Register at OPD reception

c)

Meet dietician first

d)

Submit blood report

31.

Review patients visiting OPD should:

a)

Register again

b)

Pay new admission fees

c)

Go directly to consultant

d)

Report to dietician

32.

Consultants' names and schedules must be displayed:

a)

In billing section

b)

At OPD prominently

c)

In canteen

d)

In ICU

33.

Crowding in OPD should be:

a)

Encouraged

b)

Avoided

c)

Ignored

d)

Reported to police

34.

If a consultant is absent, the OPD should:

a)

Cancel all appointments

b)

Display notice and inform patients

c)

Close reception

d)

Ask patients to wait

35.

Pharmacy for OPD should be located:

a)

Inside wards

b)

Near OPD

c)

In MRD

d)

In ICU

36.

Medicines regularly prescribed should be available according to:

a)

Patient preference

b)

Doctor's choice

c)

Hospital drug formulary

d)

Market availability

37.

OP records of patients must be:

a)

Destroyed after each visit

b)

Maintained for review

c)

Sent to MRD immediately

d)

Kept with billing section

38.

Key indicator of OPD receptionist performance is:

a)

Number of registrations

b)

Collection of feedback

c)

Minimizing waiting time

d)

Number of referrals

39.

OPD toilets must have:

a)

Separate ones for staff

b)

Special facilities for vulnerable patients

c)

One toilet for all

d)

No toilet facility

40.

Emergency facilities in OPD include:

a)

Coffee machine

b)

Wheelchair and oxygen supply

c)

Linen store

d)

Dietician desk

41.

Suggestions and feedback forms in OPD help in:

a)

Increasing crowd

b)

Improving services

c)

Reducing OPD time

d)

Reducing staff

42.

OPD receptionists should issue:

a)

Admission slip

b)

Registration card

c)

Blood donation card

d)

Referral slip

43.

Registration validity in OPD is decided by:

a)

Patient

b)

Consultant

c)

Hospital management

d)

Nurse

44.

If a patient consults more than one doctor within validity period, registration charges:

a)

Must be paid again

b)

Are not charged again

c)

Are doubled

d)

Are paid at pharmacy

45.

Separate file in OPD is maintained for:

a)

Each patient

b)

Each consultant

c)

Each medicine

d)

Each nurse

46.

Who enters patient's clinical history in OPD file?

a)

Receptionist

b)

Consultant

c)

Nurse

d)

Attender

47.

Priority in OPD should be given to:

a)

VIPs

b)

Staff relatives

c)

Vulnerable patients

d)

Late arrivals

48.

In case of centralized appointments, records should be maintained by:

a)

Billing section

b)

OPD receptionist

c)

Dietician

d)

MRD staff

49.

Non-availability of consultant must be:

a)

Ignored

b)

Displayed and informed to patients

c)

Reported to police

d)

Handled by ward boy

50.

Main duty of OPD receptionist is to:

a)

Reduce waiting time

b)

Increase registrations

c)

Check lab reports

d)

Handle pharmacy

51.

Diet is considered as important as:

a)

Exercise

b)

Medicine

c)

Counseling

d)

Rest

52.

Delay in supply of food to patients may lead to:

a)

Dietician shortage

b)

Delay in medication

c)

Patient transfer

d)

Staff complaints

53.

Who plans patient diet in coordination with the doctor?

a)

Nurse

b)

Dietician

c)

Pharmacist

d)

OPD receptionist

54.

Salt-free diet is mainly for:

a)

Diabetic patients

b)

Renal failure and BP patients

c)

Pediatric patients

d)

Cancer patients

55.

Semi-solid diet is given for:

a)

Orthopedic patients

b)

Nasogastric feeding patients

c)

Psychiatric patients

d)

Normal patients

56.

Canteen for patients and staff can be:

a)

Run only by hospital management

b)

Outsourced or in-house

c)

Managed by nurses

d)

Controlled by MRD

57.

If the canteen is outsourced, management must:

a)

Ignore patient diet

b)

Monitor patient diet

c)

Stop staff food

d)

Increase prices

58.

patients are prepared by:

a)

Nurse

b)

Dietician

c)

Attender

d)

Pharmacist

59.

Nutritional assessment for both OP and IP patients is done by:

a)

Canteen manager

b)

Dietician

c)

Resident doctor

d)

Ward boy

60.

Consent is defined under:

a)

Indian Penal Code

b)

Indian Contract Act, Sec 13

c)

CrPC, Sec 53

d)

Medical Council Act

61.

Legally valid consent requires the patient to be:

a)

Above 16 years

b)

Above 18 years and mentally sound

c)

Only literate

d)

Approved by family

62.

Consent given under fear or fraud is:

a)

Valid

b)

Not valid

c)

Provisional

d)

Partial

63.

The most common type of consent in hospitals is:

a)

Expressed

b)

Implied

c)

Informed

d)

Legal

64.

Implied consent allows:

a)

General and systemic examination

b)

Surgical operation

c)

Medicolegal examination

d)

Anesthesia administration

65.

Express consent can be given:

a)

Only in writing

b)

Verbally or in writing

c)

Only by relatives

d)

By nurse

66.

Expressed written consent is mandatory for:

a)

Normal check-up

b)

Invasive procedures

c)

OPD consultation

d)

Diet counseling

67.

Expressed consent must follow the doctrine of:

a)

Confidentiality

b)

Informed consent

c)

Hospital policy

d)

Medical ethics only

68.

Informed consent requires:

a)

Disclosure of information

b)

Only doctor's decision

c)

Verbal assurance

d)

Billing clearance

69.

A key element of informed consent is:

a)

Patient's voluntary decision

b)

Family pressure

c)

Hospital administration approval

d)

Nurse's confirmation

70.

Legal competency to give consent means:

a)

Patient is above 21 years

b)

Patient is sound and above 18 years

c)

Patient is educated

d)

Patient is employed

71.

Informed consent must explain:

a)

Consultant's experience

b)

Risks and alternatives

c)

Hospital charges

d)

Ward facilities

72.

Consent is not required in:

a)

Elective surgery

b)

Medical emergencies

c)

Diagnostic tests

d)

Minor procedures

73.

Consent is not needed for treatment of:

a)

Diabetic patients

b)

Notifiable diseases

c)

Psychiatric illness voluntarily

d)

Hypertension

74.

Under CrPC Sec 53(2), female examination should be done by:

a)

Any doctor

b)

Female doctor only

c)

Nurse in-charge

d)

Police officer

75.

Consent must be obtained:

a)

Before preoperative medication

b)

After surgery

c)

After billing

d)

Only on discharge

76.

In case of unconscious patients, consent comes from:

a)

Ward boy

b)

Legal guardian/relative

c)

Hospital administrator

d)

Resident nurse

77.

Emergency treatment consent is considered:

a)

Expressed

b)

Implied

c)

Written only

d)

Optional

78.

One major reason for taking consent is:

a)

Increase patient bills

b)

Provide legal protection to practitioner

c)

Delay procedures

d)

Avoid MRD work

79.

Consent protects doctors under:

a)

Sec 88, IPC

b)

Sec 302, IPC

c)

Sec 13, ICA

d)

Sec 53, CrPC

80.

Without consent, medical intervention may be considered:

a)

Negligence

b)

Assault and battery

c)

Harassment

d)

Breach of trust

81.

Extension of consent is allowed in:

a)

Emergency situations

b)

Normal OP consultation

c)

Pharmacy billing

d)

Diet services

82.

Informed consent must be documented:

a)

Only in OPD

b)

In writing with witness

c)

By ward boy

d)

Only in discharge file

83.

If the patient is competent, consent must be taken from:

a)

Family members

b)

Patient directly

c)

Nearest relative only

d)

Guardian

84.

Informed consent requires doctor to explain:

a)

Provisional diagnosis and procedure

b)

Patient's financial status

c)

Hospital rules only

d)

Consultant's seniority

85.

Minimum number of operation theaters required in a hospital is:

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

86.

Multispecialty hospitals usually have:

a)

Only one OT

b)

Separate OTs for specialties

c)

No dedicated OT

d)

One common OT for all

87.

Minor OT is generally located near:

a)

ICU

b)

OPD/Emergency

c)

Pharmacy

d)

Canteen

88.

Postoperative wards should be:

a)

Near the billing section

b)

Near the OT complex

c)

In the OPD

d)

Next to canteen

89.

OT entry barriers ensure:

a)

Security

b)

Sterility

c)

Patient privacy

d)

Billing clearance

90.

Before crossing the first OT barrier, one must:

a)

Wear gloves

b)

Change shoes/slippers

c)

Wash hands only

d)

Carry case sheet

91.

The OT area must always be:

a)

Well lit only

b)

Sterilized

c)

Painted

d)

Carpeted

92.

Flooring of OT should be:

a)

Wooden

b)

Antistatic

c)

Rough cement

d)

Carpeted

93.

Sophisticated modular OTs use walls made of:

a)

Wood

b)

Stainless steel

c)

Plastic

d)

Glass

94.

OTs must be fumigated:

a)

Monthly

b)

Weekly/fortnightly

c)

Annually

d)

Never

95.

OT cultures after fumigation are collected from:

a)

Only OT light

b)

Corners, OT table, walls, Boyl's machine, air

c)

Pharmacy

d)

ICU

96.

Recommended OT size is:

a)

15 × 12 × 10 ft

b)

22 × 18 × 10 ft

c)

20 × 20 × 15 ft

d)

25 × 15 × 10 ft

97.

Positive pressure in OT is measured using:

a)

Barometer

b)

Monometer

c)

Thermometer

d)

Flow meter

98.

Laminar air flow in OT helps to:

a)

Save energy

b)

Prevent infections

c)

Increase humidity

d)

Reduce costs

99.

Dual OTs are essential for:

a)

Eye surgeries

b)

Transplant surgeries

c)

Minor procedures

d)

OPD dressings

100.

Which of the following is NOT OT equipment?

a)

OT table

b)

Defibrillator

c)

Microscope

d)

Dialysis machine

101.

Checklist before procedure includes checking:

a)

Patient's bill

b)

OT sterilization status

c)

Diet sheet

d)

Pharmacy stock

102.

Who is responsible for maintaining OT discipline?

a)

Surgeon

b)

OT in-charge

c)

Ward boy

d)

Dietician

103.

OT in-charge must maintain:

a)

Sterilization records

b)

Canteen menu

c)

Nurse attendance

d)

Patient's consent

104.

Unauthorized staff in OT should be:

a)

Allowed if needed

b)

Not permitted

c)

Permitted with ID card

d)

Ignored

105.

OT in-charge must ensure:

a)

Inventory of drugs & instruments

b)

Patient billing

c)

Nurse salary

d)

Lab reports

106.

Emergency surgeries require staff to be available:

a)

During working hours only

b)

Round the clock

c)

On weekends only

d)

On alternate days

107.

OT bills for instruments and charges are prepared by:

a)

Surgeon

b)

OT in-charge

c)

Billing department

d)

Ward nurse

108.

General cleanliness and sterilization of OT is responsibility of:

a)

OT technician/nurse

b)

Ward boy

c)

Pharmacist

d)

Receptionist

109.

Operative notes must be completed by:

a)

OT technician

b)

Surgeon

c)

Nurse in-charge

d)

Anesthetist

110.

A blood bank is a place where:

a)

Patients are admitted

b)

Blood is collected, stored, and prepared for transfusion

c)

Plasma only is stored

d)

Drugs are dispensed

111.

Main objective of blood transfusion medicine is to:

a)

Reduce hospital stay

b)

Provide safe and high-quality blood

c)

Increase hospital profit

d)

Reduce donor visits

112.

Blood bank must supply blood:

a)

Once a week

b)

24 hours a day

c)

Only in the morning

d)

Only in emergencies

113.

Who is primarily responsible for diet in hospital?

a)

Pharmacist

b)

Dietician

c)

Blood bank officer

d)

Not applicable

114.

Blood group determination is done:

a)

Randomly

b)

Correctly for each donation

c)

Only for inpatients

d)

By patient request

115.

Duties of blood bank medical officer include:

a)

Checking reagents and consumables

b)

Doing surgery

c)

Preparing diet sheets

d)

Collecting OPD fees

116.

Which of the following samples is rejected?

a)

Properly labeled sample

b)

Hemolyzed or decomposed sample

c)

Fresh whole blood

d)

Labeled and sealed sample

117.

Expired reagents in blood bank should be:

a)

Used immediately

b)

Sent to accredited lab for testing

c)

Stored for later

d)

Given to patients

118.

Processed samples in blood bank must be retained for:

a)

24 hours

b)

7 days

c)

30 days

d)

Indefinitely

119.

Positive and negative controls in testing are run:

a)

Only once a year

b)

Whenever a new reagent batch is used

c)

Not required

d)

By consultants only

120.

Calibration of blood bank equipment is done:

a)

As per departmental plan

b)

Once in 10 years

c)

By donors

d)

Randomly

121.

Average total blood volume in an adult is:

a)

2 liters

b)

3 liters

c)

5 liters

d)

8 liters

122.

One unit of blood is approximately:

a)

100ml

b)

250ml

c)

350 - 450ml

d)

1 Liter

123.

Main role of red blood cells is:

a)

Fight infection

b)

Carry oxygen

c)

Blood clotting

d)

Produce plasma

124.

Main role of white blood cells is:

a)

Provide energy

b)

Immunity and infection defense

c)

Transport oxygen

d)

Blood coagulation

125.

Platelets are essential for:

a)

Blood clot formation

b)

Fighting infection

c)

Oxygen transport

d)

Hormone secretion

126.

Plasma mainly transports:

a)

Only oxygen

b)

Hormones and nutrients

c)

Only RBCs

d)

Antibodies only

127.

Minimum age to donate blood in India is:

a)

16 years

b)

18 years

c)

21 years

d)

25 years

128.

Minimum weight required for a blood donor is:

a)

35 Kg

b)

40 Kg

c)

45 Kg

d)

50 Kg

129.

Time taken for blood donation is about:

a)

10 minutes

b)

20 minutes

c)

45 minutes

d)

2 hours

130.

Plasma portion of blood is replaced in:

a)

1–2 hours

b)

24–28 hours

c)

1 week

d)

3–5 weeks

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