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Test 6 - CCNA 2

Total questions: 132

Worksheet time: 2hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What two protocols are supported on Cisco devices for AAA communications? (Choose two.)

a)

LDAP

b)

RADIUS

c)

Kerberos

d)

TACACS+

2.

Which service is enabled on a Cisco router by default that can reveal significant information about the router and potentially make it more vulnerable to attack?

a)

HTTP

b)

CDP

c)

LLDP

d)

FTP

3.

When security is a concern, which OSI Layer is considered to be the weakest link in a network system?​

(a)  

4.

Which Layer 2 attack will result in a switch flooding incoming frames to all ports?

a)

MAC address overflow

b)

Spanning Tree Protocol manipulation

c)

IP address spoofing

d)

ARP poisoning

5.

Why is authentication with AAA preferred over a local database method?

a)

It specifies a different password for each line or port

b)

It requires a login and password combination on the console, vty lines, and aux ports

c)

It provides a fallback authentication method if the administrator forgets the username or password

d)

It uses less network bandwidth

6.

Which Cisco solution helps prevent MAC and IP address spoofing attacks?

a)

Dynamic ARP Inspection

b)

Port Security

c)

DHCP Snooping

d)

IP Source Guard

7.

Which Layer 2 attack will result in legitimate users not getting valid IP addresses?

a)

ARP spoofing

b)

DHCP starvation

c)

IP address spoofing

d)

MAC address flooding

8.

What mitigation plan is best for thwarting a DoS attack that is creating a MAC address table overflow?

a)

Enable port security.

b)

Disable DTP.

c)

Disable STP.

d)

Place unused ports in an unused VLAN.

9.

What kind of attack encrypts the data on end-devices, which can be decrypted only if a payment is made?

(a)  

10.

Which mitigation technique prevents ARP spoofing and ARP poisoning attacks?

a)

Port security

b)

DAI

c)
Virtual Private Network (VPN)
d)

Firewalls

11.

Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)

a)

Set the command history buffer size.

b)

Recall previously entered commands.

c)

View a list of commands entered in a previous session.

d)

Recall up to 15 command lines by default.

e)

Save command lines in a log file for future reference.

12.

Which statement describes the system LED operation on Cisco Catalyst switches?

a)

If the LED is amber, the system is not powered on.

b)

If the LED is blinking amber, the switch is performing POST.

c)

If the LED is blinking green, the system is operating normally.

d)

If the LED is amber, the system is receiving power but it is not functioning properly.

13.

What type of Ethernet cable would be used to connect one switch to another switch when neither switch supports the auto-MDIX feature?

a)

rollover

b)

crossover

c)

straight-through

d)

coaxial

14.

What advantage does SSH offer over Telnet?

a)

connection-oriented services

b)

more connection lines

c)

username and password authentication

d)

encryption

15.

A network administrator has configured ​VLAN 99 as the management VLAN and has configured it with an IP address and subnet mask. The administrator issues the show interface vlan 99 command and notices that the line protocol is down. Which action can change the state of the line protocol to up?

a)

Configure a transport input method on the vty lines.

b)

Connect a host to an interface associated with VLAN 99.

c)

Remove all access ports from VLAN 99.

d)

Configure a default gateway.

16.

Which prompt is displayed when a network administrator successfully accesses the boot loader on a switch to recover from a system crash?

(a)  

17.

Which router bootup sequence is correct?​

a)

1 – perform the POST and load the bootstrap program
2 – locate and load the Cisco IOS software
3 – locate and load the startup configuration file or enter setup mode

b)

1 – perform the POST and load the startup configuration file
2 – locate and load the bootstrap program
3 – locate and load the Cisco IOS software

c)

1 – perform the POST and load the bootstrap program
2 – locate and load the startup configuration file or enter setup mode
3 – locate and load the Cisco IOS software

d)

1 – perform the POST and load the Cisco IOS software
2 – locate and load the startup configuration file or enter setup mode
3 – locate and load the bootstrap program

18.

What is the first action in the boot sequence when a switch is powered on?

a)

low-level CPU initialization

b)

load boot loader software

c)

load the default Cisco IOS software

d)

load a power-on self-test program

19.

Which command will provide information about the status of all interfaces including the number of giants, runts, and collisions on the interface?

(a)  

20.

What is a function of the switch boot loader?

a)

To control how much RAM is available to the switch during the boot process

b)

To provide an environment to operate in when the switch operating system cannot be found

c)

To provide security for the vulnerable state when the switch is booting

d)

To speed up the boot process

21.

During a routine inspection, a technician discovered that software that was installed on a computer was secretly collecting data about websites that were visited by users of the computer. Which type of threat is affecting this computer?

a)
  • DoS attack​

b)
  • identity theft

c)
  • spyware

d)
  • zero-day attack

22.

Which term refers to a network that provides secure access to the corporate offices by suppliers, customers and collaborators?

a)
  • Internet

b)
  • intranet

c)
  • extranet

d)
  • extendednet

23.

A large corporation has modified its network to allow users to access network resources from their personal laptops and smart phones. Which networking trend does this describe?

a)
  • cloud computing

b)
  • online collaboration

c)
  • bring your own device

d)
  • video conferencing

24.

What is an ISP?

a)
  • It is a standards body that develops cabling and wiring standards for networking.

b)
  • It is a protocol that establishes how computers within a local network communicate.

c)
  • It is an organization that enables individuals and businesses to connect to the Internet.

d)
  • It is a networking device that combines the functionality of several different networking devices in one.

25.

An employee at a branch office is creating a quote for a customer. In order to do this, the employee needs to access confidential pricing information from internal servers at the Head Office. What type of network would the employee access?

a)

an intranet

b)
  • the Internet

c)
  • an extranet

d)
  • a local area network

26.

Which statement describes the use of powerline networking technology?

a)
  • New “smart” electrical cabling is used to extend an existing home LAN.

b)
  • A home LAN is installed without the use of physical cabling.

c)
  • A device connects to an existing home LAN using an adapter and an existing electrical outlet.

d)
  • Wireless access points use powerline adapters to distribute data through the home LAN.

27.

A networking technician is working on the wireless network at a medical clinic. The technician accidentally sets up the wireless network so that patients can see the medical records data of other patients. Which of the four network characteristics has been violated in this situation?

a)
  • fault tolerance

b)
  • scalability

c)

security

d)
  • Quality of Service (QoS)

e)
  • reliability

28.

What two criteria are used to help select a network medium from various network media? (Choose two.)

a)
  • the types of data that need to be prioritized

b)
  • the cost of the end devices utilized in the network

c)
  • the distance the selected medium can successfully carry a signal

d)
  • the environment where the selected medium is to be installed

e)
  • the number of intermediate devices installed in the network

29.

What type of network traffic requires QoS?

a)
  • email

b)
  • on-line purchasing

c)
  • video conferencing

d)
  • wiki

30.

A user is implementing security on a small office network. Which two actions would provide the minimum security requirements for this network? (Choose two.)

a)
  • implementing a firewall

b)
  • installing antivirus software

c)
  • installing a wireless network

d)
  • implementing an intrusion detection system

e)
  • adding a dedicated intrusion prevention device

31.

Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)

a)
  • VTY interface

b)
  • console interface

c)
  • privileged EXEC mode

d)
  • router configuration mode

e)
  • Ethernet interface

32.

Which interface allows remote management of a Layer 2 switch?

a)
  • the AUX interface

b)
  • the console port interface

c)
  • the switch virtual interface

d)
  • the first Ethernet port interface

33.

What function does pressing the Tab key have when entering a command in IOS?

a)
  • It aborts the current command and returns to configuration mode.

b)
  • It exits configuration mode and returns to user EXEC mode.

c)
  • It moves the cursor to the beginning of the next line.

d)
  • It completes the remainder of a partially typed word in a command.

34.

While trying to solve a network issue, a technician made multiple changes to the current router configuration file. The changes did not solve the problem and were not saved. What action can the technician take to discard the changes and work with the file in NVRAM?

a)
  • Issue the reload command without saving the running configuration.

b)
  • Delete the vlan.dat file and reboot the device.

c)
  • Close and reopen the terminal emulation software.

d)
  • Issue the copy startup-config running-config command.

35.

An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a switch after issuing the ping command. What is the purpose of using these keystrokes?

a)
  • to restart the ping process

b)
  • to interrupt the ping process

c)
  • to exit to a different configuration mode

d)
  • to allow the user to complete the command

36.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses a console connection to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

a)
  • letmein

b)

secretin

c)

lineconin

d)

linevty

37.

A technician configures a switch with these commands:

SwitchA(config)# interface vlan 1

SwitchA(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

SwitchA(config-if)# no shutdown

What is the technician configuring?

a)
  • Telnet access

b)

SVI

c)
  • password encryption

d)
  • physical switchport access

38.

Which command or key combination allows a user to return to the previous level in the command hierarchy?

a)
  • end

b)

exit

c)

CTRL-Z

d)

CTRL-C

39.

What are two characteristics of RAM on a Cisco device? (Choose two.)

a)
  • RAM provides nonvolatile storage.

b)
  • The configuration that is actively running on the device is stored in RAM.

c)
  • The contents of RAM are lost during a power cycle.

d)
  • RAM is a component in Cisco switches but not in Cisco routers.

e)
  • RAM is able to store multiple versions of IOS and configuration files.

40.

Which two host names follow the guidelines for naming conventions on Cisco IOS devices? (Choose two.)

a)
  • Branch2!

b)
  • RM-3-Switch-2A4

c)
  • Floor(15)

d)
  • HO Floor 17

41.

How is SSH different from Telnet?

a)
  • SSH makes connections over the network, whereas Telnet is for out-of-band access.

b)
  • SSH provides security to remote sessions by encrypting messages and using user authentication. Telnet is considered insecure and sends messages in plaintext.

c)
  • SSH requires the use of the PuTTY terminal emulation program. Tera Term must be used to connect to devices through the use of Telnet.

d)
  • SSH must be configured over an active network connection, whereas Telnet is used to connect to a device from a console connection.

42.

What process is used to receive transmitted data and convert it into a readable message?

a)
  • access control

b)
  • decoding

c)
  • encapsulation

d)
  • flow control

43.

What is done to an IP packet before it is transmitted over the physical medium?

a)
  • It is tagged with information guaranteeing reliable delivery.

b)
  • It is segmented into smaller individual pieces.

c)
  • It is encapsulated into a TCP segment.

d)
  • It is encapsulated in a Layer 2 frame.

44.

A web client is sending a request for a webpage to a web server. From the perspective of the client, what is the correct order of the protocol stack that is used to prepare the request for transmission?

a)
  • HTTP, IP, TCP, Ethernet

b)
  • HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet

c)
  • Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP

d)
  • Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP

45.

What are two benefits of using a layered network model?

a)
  • It assists in protocol design.

b)
  • It speeds up packet delivery.

c)
  • It prevents designers from creating their own model.

d)
  • It prevents technology in one layer from affecting other layers.

e)
  • It ensures a device at one layer can function at the next higher layer.

46.

What is the purpose of protocols in data communications?

a)
  • specifying the bandwidth of the channel or medium for each type of communication

b)
  • specifying the device operating systems that will support the communication

c)
  • providing the rules required for a specific type of communication to occur

d)
  • dictating the content of the message sent during communication

47.

Which logical address is used for delivery of data to a remote network?

a)
  • destination MAC address

b)
  • destination IP address

c)
  • destination port number

d)
  • source MAC address

e)
  • source IP address

48.

What is the general term that is used to describe a piece of data at any layer of a networking model?

a)
  • frame

b)
  • packet

c)
  • protocol data unit

d)
  • segment

49.

Which two protocols function at the internet layer?

a)

POP

b)

BOOTP

c)

ICMP

d)

IP

e)

PPP

50.

Which type of communication will send a message to a group of host destinations simultaneously?

a)
  • broadcast

b)
  • multicast

c)
  • unicast

d)
  • anycast

51.

In computer communication, what is the purpose of message encoding?

a)
  • to convert information to the appropriate form for transmission

b)
  • to interpret information

c)
  • to break large messages into smaller frames

d)
  • negotiate correct timing for successful communication

52.

1.      Which standards organization oversees development of wireless LAN standards?

(a)  

53.

A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a server. Using a tester, the administrator notices that the signals generated by the server NIC are distorted and not usable. In which layer of the OSI model is the error categorized?

a)
  • presentation layer

b)
  • network layer

c)
  • physical layer

d)
  • data link layer

54.

A network administrator is designing a new network infrastructure that includes both wired and wireless connectivity. Under which situation would a wireless connection be recommended?

a)
  • The end-user device only has an Ethernet NIC.

b)
  • The end-user device requires a dedicated connection because of performance requirements.

c)
  • The end-user device needs mobility when connecting to the network.

d)
  • The end-user device area has a high concentration of RFI.

55.

What type of cable is used to connect a workstation serial port to a Cisco router console port?

a)
  • crossover

b)
  • rollover

c)
  • straight-through

d)
  • coaxial

56.

Which type of UTP cable is used to connect a PC to a switch port?

a)
  • console

b)
  • rollover

c)
  • crossover

d)
  • straight-through

57.

What is the definition of bandwidth?

a)
  • the measure of the transfer of bits across the media over a given period of time

b)
  • the speed at which bits travel on the network

c)
  • the amount of data that can flow from one place to another in a given amount of time

d)
  • the measure of usable data transferred over a given period of time

58.

Which statement correctly describes frame encoding?

a)
  • It uses the characteristic of one wave to modify another wave.

b)
  • It transmits data signals along with a clock signal which occurs at evenly spaced time durations.

c)
  • It converts bits into a predefined code in order to provide a predictable pattern to help distinguish data bits from control bits.

d)
  • It generates the electrical, optical, or wireless signals that represent the binary numbers of the frame.

59.

What is a characteristic of UTP cabling?

a)
  • cancellation

b)
  • cladding

c)
  • woven copper braid or metallic foil

d)
  • immunity to electrical hazards

60.

What is indicated by the term throughput?

a)
  • the guaranteed data transfer rate offered by an ISP

b)
  • the capacity of a particular medium to carry data

c)
  • the measure of the usable data transferred across the media

d)
  • the measure of the bits transferred across the media over a given period of time

e)
  • the time it takes for a message to get from sender to receiver

61.

Why are two strands of fiber used for a single fiber optic connection?

a)
  • The two strands allow the data to travel for longer distances without degrading.

b)
  • They prevent crosstalk from causing interference on the connection.

c)
  • They increase the speed at which the data can travel.

d)
  • They allow for full-duplex connectivity.

62.

What is the purpose of the OSI physical layer?

a)
  • controlling access to media

b)
  • transmitting bits across the local media

c)
  • performing error detection on received frames

d)
  • exchanging frames between nodes over physical network media

63.

What is a characteristic of a WAN hub-and-spoke topology?

a)

It requires that some of the branch sites be interconnected through point-to-point links.

b)
  • It requires that every site be interconnected to each other through point-to-point links.

c)
  • All sites require a hub device that connects to a router.

d)
  • The branch sites are connected to a central site through point-to-point links.

64.

Which two factors influence the method that is used for media access control?

a)
  • how data is generated by end devices applications

b)
  • how the connection between nodes appears to the data link layer

c)
  • how signals are encoded by the NICs on end devices

d)
  • how nodes share the media

e)
  • how the IP protocol forwards the packet to the destination

65.

Which statement describes a characteristic of the frame header fields of the data link layer?

a)
  • They all include the flow control and logical connection fields.

b)
  • Ethernet frame header fields contain Layer 3 source and destination addresses.

c)
  • They include information on user applications.

d)
  • They vary depending on protocols.

66.

Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?

a)
  • requiring proper grounding connections

b)
  • avoiding sharp bends during installation

c)
  • designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference

d)
  • wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding

e)
  • twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together

67.

A PC is to access a web server on another network. Which inter-VLAN method will provide the highest bandwidth at Layer 3 and also provide a default gateway for the PC?

a)

multilayer switch with routing enabled

b)

router on a stick

c)

trunked interface between the router and the switch

d)

multiple physical interfaces on the router, all connected to a Layer 2 switch

68.

Which port state will switch ports immediately transition to when configured for PortFast?

a)

forwarding

b)

blocking

c)

listening

d)

learning

69.

After the election of the root bridge has been completed, how will switches find the best paths to the root bridge?

a)

Each switch will analyze the port states of all neighbors and use the designated ports to forward traffic to the root.

b)

Each switch will analyze the sum of all port costs to reach the root and use the path with the lowest cost.

c)

Each switch will analyze the sum of the hops to reach the root and use the path with the fewest hops.

d)

Each switch will analyze the BID of all neighbors to reach the root and use the path through the lowest BID neighbors.

70.

What value determines the root bridge when all switches connected by trunk links have default STP configurations?

(a)  

71.

During the implementation of Spanning Tree Protocol, all switches are rebooted by the network administrator. What is the first step of the spanning-tree election process?

a)

All the switches send out BPDUs advertising themselves as the root bridge

b)

Each switch determines the best path to forward traffic

c)

Each switch determines what port to block to prevent a loop from occurring

d)

Each switch with a lower root ID than its neighbor will not send BPDUs

72.

Which three port states are used by Rapid PVST+? (Choose three.)

a)

listening

b)

learning

c)

forwarding

d)

discarding

e)

blocking

73.

When PVST is running over a switched network, which port state can participate in BPDU frame forwarding based on BPDUs received, but does not forward data frames?

(a)  

74.

An administrator is troubleshooting a switch and wants to verify if it is a root bridge. What command can be used to do this?

(a)  

75.

Which three components are combined to form a bridge ID? (Choose three.)

a)

Bridge priority

b)

Cost

c)

Extended system ID

d)

MAC address

e)

Port ID

76.

What is an advantage of using STP in a LAN?

a)

It combines multiple switch trunk links into a logical port channel link to increase bandwidth.

b)

It decreases the size of the failure domain.

c)

It provides firewall services to protect the LAN.

d)

It temporarily disables redundant paths to stop Layer 2 loops.

77.

What is the primary purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) in a network?

a)

To provide redundancy in case of link failure.

b)

To manage IP address allocation in the network.

c)

To ensure a loop-free topology in Layer 2 networks.

d)

To prevent broadcast storms in the network.

78.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the role of the root bridge in STP?

a)

The root bridge can be manually configured by the network administrator.

b)

The root bridge does not participate in the forwarding of frames.

c)

The root bridge is always the switch with the highest MAC address.

d)

The root bridge is elected based on the lowest bridge ID.

79.

In a network using STP, what happens when a link fails?

a)

Only the root bridge will be affected and will stop forwarding traffic.

b)

The network will experience a broadcast storm until the link is restored.

c)

STP will automatically re-calculate the best path and activate a backup link.

d)

All switches will reboot to re-establish the topology.

80.

What type of route allows a router to forward packets even though its routing table contains no specific route to the destination network?

a)
  • dynamic route

b)
  • default route

c)
  • destination route

d)
  • generic route

81.

Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is higher than the administrative distance of a dynamic routing protocol that is running on the same router?

a)
  • to be used as a backup route

b)
  • to load-balance the traffic

c)
  • to act as a gateway of last resort

d)
  • to be the priority route in the routing table

82.

A company has several networks with the following IP address requirements:
IP phones – 50

PCs – 70

IP cameras – 10

wireless access points – 10

network printers – 10

network scanners – 2
Which block of addresses would be the minimum to accommodate all of these devices if each type of device was on its own network?

a)
  • 172.16.0.0/25

b)
  • 172.16.0.0/24

c)
  • 172.16.0.0/23

d)
  • 172.16.0.0/22

83.

What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface associated with that route goes into the down state?

a)
  • The static route is removed from the routing table.

b)
  • The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.

c)
  • The static route remains in the table because it was defined as static.

d)
  • The router automatically redirects the static route to use another interface.

84.

The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command. How will this route appear in the routing table?

a)
  • C 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0

b)
  • S 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0

c)
  • C 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

d)
  • S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

85.

Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)

a)
  • A(config)# no network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2

b)
  • A(config)# no ip address 10.0.0.1 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2

c)
  • A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2

d)
  • A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s0/0/0

e)
  • A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

86.

Which type of static route that is configured on a router uses only the exit interface?

a)
  • recursive static route

b)
  • directly connected static route

c)
  • fully specified static route

d)
  • default static route

87.

Refer to the graphic. Which command would be used on router A to configure a static route to direct traffic from LAN A that is destined for LAN C?

a)
  • A(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.5.2

b)
  • A(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2

c)
  • A(config)# ip route 192.168.5.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2

d)
  • A(config)# ip route 192.168.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.1

e)
  • A(config)# ip route 192.168.3.2 255.255.255.0 192.168.4.0

88.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to configure a default route on the Border router. Which command would the administrator use to configure a default route that will require the least amount of router processing when forwarding packets?

a)
  • Border(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.133.219.5

b)
  • Border(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.133.219.6

c)
  • Border(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/1

d)
  • Border(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0

89.

Refer to the exhibit. What command would be used to configure a static route on R1 so that traffic from both LANs can reach the 2001:db8:1:4::/64 remote network?

a)
  • ipv6 route ::/0 serial0/0/0

b)
  • ipv6 route 2001:db8:1:4::/64 2001:db8:1:3::1

c)
  • ipv6 route 2001:db8:1:4::/64 2001:db8:1:3::2

d)
  • ipv6 route 2001:db8:1::/65 2001:db8:1:3::1

90.

Refer to the exhibit. Which default static route command would allow R1 to potentially reach all unknown networks on the Internet?

a)
  • R1(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:32::/64 G0/0

b)
  • R1(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 G0/0 fe80::2

c)
  • R1(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 G0/1 fe80::2

d)
  • R1(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:32::/64 G0/1 fe80::2

91.

Which two previously independent technologies should a network administrator attempt to combine after choosing to upgrade to a converged network infrastructure? (Choose two.)

a)
  • user data traffic

b)
  • VoIP phone traffic

c)
  • scanners and printers

d)
  • mobile cell phone traffic

e)
  • electrical system

92.

What are two advantages of modular switches over fixed-configuration switches? (Choose two.)

a)
  • lower cost per switch

b)
  • increased scalability

c)
  • lower forwarding rates

d)
  • need for fewer power outlets

e)
  • availability of multiple ports for bandwidth aggregation

93.

Which type of address does a switch use to build the MAC address table?

a)
  • destination IP address

b)
  • source IP address

c)
  • destination MAC address

d)
  • source MAC address

94.

Which network device can be used to eliminate collisions on an Ethernet network?

a)
  • firewall

b)

hub

c)

router

d)

switch

95.

What two criteria are used by a Cisco LAN switch to decide how to forward Ethernet frames? (Choose two.)

a)
  • path cost

b)
  • egress port

c)
  • ingress port

d)
  • destination IP address

e)
  • destination MAC address

96.

Refer to the exhibit. Consider that the main power has just been restored. PC3 issues a broadcast IPv4 DHCP request. To which port will SW1 forward this request?​

a)
  • to Fa0/1 only​

b)
  • to Fa0/1 and Fa0/2 only

c)
  • to Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/3 only

d)
  • to Fa0/1, Fa0/2, Fa0/3, and Fa0/4

e)
  • to Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/4 only​


97.

What is one function of a Layer 2 switch?

a)
  • forwards data based on logical addressing

b)
  • duplicates the electrical signal of each frame to every port

c)
  • learns the port assigned to a host by examining the destination MAC address

d)
  • determines which interface is used to forward a frame based on the destination MAC address

98.

Refer to the exhibit. How is a frame sent from PCA forwarded to PCC if the MAC address table on switch SW1 is empty?

a)
  • SW1 floods the frame on all ports on the switch, excluding the interconnected port to switch SW2 and the port through which the frame entered the switch.

b)
  • SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, excluding the port through which the frame entered the switch.

c)
  • SW1 forwards the frame directly to SW2. SW2 floods the frame to all ports connected to SW2, excluding the port through which the frame entered the switch.

d)
  • SW1 drops the frame because it does not know the destination MAC address.

99.

A small publishing company has a network design such that when a broadcast is sent on the LAN, 200 devices receive the transmitted broadcast. How can the network administrator reduce the number of devices that receive broadcast traffic?

a)
  • Add more switches so that fewer devices are on a particular switch.

b)
  • Replace the switches with switches that have more ports per switch. This will allow more devices on a particular switch.

c)
  • Segment the LAN into smaller LANs and route between them.

d)
  • Replace at least half of the switches with hubs to reduce the size of the broadcast domain.

100.

Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains are displayed?

a)

1

b)

4

c)

8

d)

16

e)

55

101.

Which solution would help a college alleviate network congestion due to collisions?

a)
  • a firewall that connects to two Internet providers

b)
  • a high port density switch

c)
  • a router with two Ethernet ports

d)
  • a router with three Ethernet ports

102.

What is the destination address in the header of a broadcast frame?


a)
  • 0.0.0.0

b)
  • 255.255.255.255

c)
  • 11-11-11-11-11-11

d)
  • FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF

103.

A (a)   network is one that uses the same infrastructure to carry voice, data, and video signals.

104.

What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)


a)
  • It connects multiple IP networks.

b)
  • It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.

c)
  • It determines the best path to send packets.

d)
  • It manages the VLAN database.

e)
  • It increases the size of the broadcast domain.

105.

In order for packets to be sent to a remote destination, what three pieces of information must be configured on a host? (Choose three.)

a)

hostname

b)

IP address

c)

subnet mask

d)

default gateway

e)

DNS server

106.

Refer to the exhibit. PC A sends a request to Server B. What IPv4 address is used in the destination field in the packet as the packet leaves PC A?

a)
  • 192.168.10.10

b)
  • 192.168.10.1

c)
  • 192.168.11.1

d)
  • 192.168.12.16

107.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as shown. When the administrator checks the status of the serial interface, the interface is shown as being administratively down. What additional command must be entered on the serial interface of R1 to bring the interface up?

a)
  • IPv6 enable

b)
  • clockrate 128000

c)

end

d)

no shutdown

108.

What two pieces of information are displayed in the output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose two.)

a)
  • IP addresses

b)
  • MAC addresses

c)

Layer 1 statuses

d)

next-hop addresses

e)

interface descriptions

109.

What type of network uses one common infrastructure to carry voice, data, and video signals?

a)
  • borderless

b)

converged

c)

managed

d)

switched

110.

Which interface is the default location that would contain the IP address used to manage a 24-port Ethernet switch?

a)

VLAN 1

b)

Fa0/0

c)

Fa0/1

d)

VLAN 99

e)
  • interface connected to the default gateway

111.

If one end of an Ethernet connection is configured for full duplex and the other end of the connection is configured for half duplex, where would late collisions be observed?

a)
  • on both ends of the connection

b)
  • on the full-duplex end of the connection

c)
  • only on serial interfaces

d)
  • on the half-duplex end of the connection

112.

An EtherChannel link using LACP was formed between two switches, S1 and S2. While verifying the configuration, which mode combination could be utilized on both switches?​

a)

S1-passive and S2-passive

b)

S1-on and S2-active

c)

S1-on and S2-passive

d)

S1-passive and S2-active

113.

When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel, which mode will configure PAgP so that it initiates the EtherChannel negotiation?

(a)  

114.

Which three interface parameters must match for an EtherChannel to form? (Choose three.)

a)

PortFast mode

b)

allowed VLANs

c)

native VLAN

d)

EtherChannel mode

e)

trunking mode

115.

When EtherChannel is implemented, multiple physical interfaces are bundled into which type of logical connection?

a)

port channel

b)

loopback

c)

VLAN interface

d)

interface range

116.

When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel by the use of PAgP, which mode will form the bundled channel only if the port receives PAgP packets from another device?

(a)  

117.

Which function is provided by EtherChannel?

a)

enabling traffic from multiple VLANs to travel over a single Layer 2 link

b)

spreading traffic across multiple physical WAN links

c)

dividing the bandwidth of a single link into separate time slots

d)

creating one logical link by using multiple physical links between two LAN switches

118.

Which two protocols are link aggregation protocols? (Choose two.)

a)

EtherChannel

b)

STP

c)

PAgP

d)

802.3ad

e)

RSTP

119.

What will happen if a network administrator puts a port that is part of an EtherChannel bundle into a different VLAN than the other ports in that bundle?

a)

The EtherChannel will fail.

b)

The EtherChannel bundle will stay up if the ports were configured with no negotiation between the switches to form the EtherChannel.

c)

The EtherChannel bundle will stay up if either PAgP or LACP is used.

d)

The EtherChannel bundle will stay up only if LACP is used.

e)

The EtherChannel bundle will stay up only if PAgP is used.

120.

Which interface configuration command will enable the port to initiate an LACP EtherChannel?

a)

channel-group mode active

b)

channel-group mode auto

c)

channel-group mode desirable

d)

channel-group mode on

e)

channel-group mode passive

121.

A DHCP-enabled client PC has just booted. During which two steps will the client PC use broadcast messages when communicating with a DHCP server? (Choose two.)

a)

DHCPNAK

b)

DHCPREQUEST

c)

DHCPOFFER

d)

DHCPACK

e)

DHCPDISCOVER

122.

An administrator issues the commands:
Router(config)# interface g0/1
Router(config-if)# ip address dhcp

What is the administrator trying to achieve?

a)

configuring the router to act as a DHCPv4 server

b)

configuring the router to act as a relay agent

c)

configuring the router to resolve IP address conflicts

d)

configuring the router to obtain IP parameters from a DHCPv4 server

123.

How does an IPv6 client ensure that it has a unique address after it configures its IPv6 address using the SLAAC allocation method?

a)

It contacts the DHCPv6 server via a special formed ICMPv6 message.

b)

It checks with the IPv6 address database that is hosted by the SLAAC server.

c)

It sends an ARP message with the IPv6 address as the destination IPv6 address.

d)

It sends an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message with the IPv6 address as the target IPv6 address.

124.

What two methods can be used to generate an interface ID by an IPv6 host that is using SLAAC? (Choose two.)

a)

random generation

b)

DAD

c)

stateful DHCPv6

d)

EUI-64

e)

ARP

125.

Which command should be configured on a router interface to set the router as a stateful DHCPv6 client?

a)

ipv6 enable

b)

ipv6 address dhcp

c)

ipv6 dhcp server stateful

d)

ipv6 address autoconfigure

126.

What message informs IPv6 enabled interfaces to use stateful DHCPv6 for obtaining an IPv6 address?

a)

the ICMPv6 Router Advertisement

b)

the DHCPv6 Reply message

c)

the ICMPv6 Router Solicitation

d)

the DHCPv6 Advertise message

127.

In which alternative to DHCPv6 does a router dynamically provide IPv6 configuration information to hosts?

(a)  

128.

What process is used in ICMPv6 for a host to verify that an IPv6 address is unique before configuring it on an interface?

(a)  

129.

An organization requires that LAN clients generate their IPv6 configuration using SLAAC. You have configured the IPv6 GUA on the router LAN interface and verified that the interface is UP. However, hosts are not generating an IPv6 GUA. Which other command should be configured to enable SLAAC?

a)

R1(config)# ipv6 dhcp pool pool-name

b)

R1(config)# ipv6 unicast-routing

c)

R1(config-if)# ipv6 enable

d)

R1(config-if)# ipv6 nd other-config-flag

130.

What is the purpose of HSRP?

a)

It prevents a rogue switch from becoming the STP root.

b)

It provides a continuous network connection when a router fails.

c)

It enables an access port to immediately transition to the forwarding state.

d)

It prevents malicious hosts from connecting to trunk ports.

131.

Which nonproprietary protocol provides router redundancy for a group of routers which support IPv4 LANs?

a)

SLB

b)

HSRP

c)

VRRPv2

d)

GLBP

132.

When first hop redundancy protocols are used, which two items will be shared by a set of routers that are presenting the illusion of being a single router? (Choose two.)

a)

IP address

b)

BID

c)

hostname

d)

MAC address

e)

static route