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2025 JULY SUMMATIVE EXAM

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

Hypoglycemia in the anesthesized patient: Is easily recognized under general anesthesia Is confused for light anesthesia Is defined as a blood sugar < 80mg/dL Rarely presents in patients with renal failure and diabetes

a)

Is easily recognized under general anesthesia

b)

Is confused for light anesthesia

c)

Is defined as a blood sugar < 80mg/dL

d)

Rarely presents in patients with renal failure and diabetes

2.

A 40 year old female presents for a thyroidectomy for Graves disease. Her preoperative preparation should include: Administration of potassium iodide plus propranolol for 10 days A 1 week course of thyroxine (T4) A three day course of propylthiouracil Iodine -131 treatment

a)

Administration of potassium iodide plus propranolol for 10 days

b)

A 1 week course of thyroxine (T4)

c)

A three day course of propylthiouracil

d)

Iodine -131 treatment

3.

A 39 year old woman with a history of headaches, hypertension, palpitations and nephrolithiasis is undergoing a parathyroidectomy for parathyrpid adenoma. During induction,she develops severe hypertension and tachycardia. The most likely diagnosis for these signs is : a. Adrenal insufficiency b. Carcinoid syndrome c. Thyroid storm d. Pheochromocytoma

a)

Adrenal insufficiency

b)

Carcinoid syndrome

c)

Thyroid storm

d)

Pheochromocytoma

4.

During a postoperative check on a 53 year old patient who underwent a total thyroidectomy earlier in the day. You notice that he is stridous and is complaining of muscle cramps. The best treatment for these symptoms is a. Administration of calcium gluconate b. Opening the neck wound c. Reintubation for airway protection d. Administration of sodium bicarbonate

a)

Administration of calcium gluconate

b)

Opening the neck wound

c)

Reintubation for airway protection

d)

Administration of sodium bicarbonate

5.

A 65 year old diabetes mellitus patient should include which of the following preoperative assessment? a. An assessment of functional status b. 24 hour creationine clearance c. Pulmonary function test d. Cancellation of the surgical case if HbA1C >10%

a)

An assessment of functional status

b)

24 hour creationine clearance

c)

Pulmonary function test

d)

Cancellation of the surgical case if HbA1C >10%

6.

Preferred anesthetic agent in a patient with hyperthyroidism includes a. Desflurane b. ketamine c. Sevoflurane d. Meperidine

a)

Desflurane

b)

ketamine

c)

Sevoflurane

d)

Meperidine

7.

A 78 year old patient with a history of hypertension and adult onset diabetes for which she takes chlorpropamide is admitted for elective cholecystectomy.On the day of admission, blood glucose is noted to be 270 mg/dL and the patient is treated with 15 units of regular insulin subcutaneously in addition to her regular dose of chlorpropamide. 24 hours later after overnight fasting, the patient is brought to the operating room without her daily dose of chlorpropamide and is anesthesized. A serum glucose is measured and found to be 35 mg/dL. The most likely explanation for this is a. Insulin b. Chlorpropamide c. hypovolemia d. effect of general anesthesia

a)

Insulin

b)

Chlorpropamide

c)

hypovolemia

d)

effect of general anesthesia

8.

Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus a. is characterized by a relative lack of insulin plus resistance to endogenous insulin b. Always requires insulin c. Affects 95% of patients with diabetes d. Can be controlled with diet, weight loss and oral hypoglycemic agents

a)

is characterized by a relative lack of insulin plus resistance to endogenous insulin

b)

Always requires insulin

c)

Affects 95% of patients with diabetes

d)

Can be controlled with diet, weight loss and oral hypoglycemic agents

9.

A 27 year old obese woman is scheduled to undergo foot surgery under general anesthesia. She underwent a subtotal thyroidectomy 3 years ago and takes levothyroxine. Which of the following laboratory tests would be the most useful in evaluating whether this patient is euthyroid Total plasma thyroxine (T4) Total plasma triiodothyronine (T3) Thyroid Stimulating hormone (TSH) Resin triiodothyronine uptake

a)

Total plasma thyroxine (T4)

b)

Total plasma triiodothyronine (T3)

c)

Thyroid Stimulating hormone (TSH)

d)

Resin triiodothyronine uptake

10.

A 40 year old woman with history of Graves disease is in the recovery room after undergoing a Ct Scan under general anesthesia. While in the recovery room, her blood pressure drops to 80/55 mmHg, her heart rate increases to 140 bpm, and she becomes agitated and complains of difficulty breathing and feeling hot. The most likely diagnosis for these signs is Thyroid storm Carcinoid syndrome Malignant Hyperthermia Pheochromocytoma

a)

Thyroid storm

b)

Carcinoid syndrome

c)

Malignant Hyperthermia

d)

Pheochromocytoma

11.

1. Defined as rate of 120-250 bpm with wide and bizarre PVC-like QRS complexes

a)

a. Accessory Mediated SVT

b)

b. Monomorphic VT

c)

c. Polymorphic VT

d)

d. Torsades de Pointes

12.

2. Defined as rate of 150-250 bpm with irregular rhythm and spindle-node pattern QRS complexes

a)

a. Accessory Mediated SVT

b)

b. Monomorphic VT

c)

c. Polymorphic VT

d)

d. Torsades de Pointes

13.

3. Defined as rate of 120-250 bpm with regular rhythm and marked variation and inconsistency seen on QRS complexes

a)

a. Accessory Mediated SVT

b)

b. Monomorphic VT

c)

c. Polymorphic VT

d)

d. Torsades de Pointes

14.

4. In the 2020 American Heart Association Adult Tachycardia with a Pulse Algorithm, what is the recommended dosage for Synchronized cardioversion?

a)

a. Narrow regular: 20-40J

b)

b. Narrow Irregular: 50-100J

c)

c. Wide regular: 50 J

d)

d. Refer to specific device’s recommended energy level

15.

5. Which of the following drugs is not used in Tachyarrhythmias?

a)

a. Amiodarone

b)

b. Magnesium Sulfate

c)

c. Dopamine

d)

d. Lidocaine

16.
a)

a. Second degree AV Block Type 1

b)

b. Second degree AV Block Type 2

c)

c. Accessory Mediated SVT

d)

d. Torsades de Pointes

17.
a)

a. Second degree AV Block Type 1

b)

b. Second degree AV Block Type 2

c)

c. Accessory Mediated SVT

d)

d. Torsades de Pointes

18.
a)

a. Second degree AV Block Type 1

b)

b. Second degree AV Block Type 2

c)

c. Accessory Mediated SVT

d)

d. Torsades de Pointes

19.
a)

a. Second degree AV Block Type 1

b)

b. Second degree AV Block Type 2

c)

c. Accessory Mediated SVT

d)

d. Torsades de Pointes

20.

6. Which of the following causes bradycardia

a)

a. Oculocardiac Reflex

b)

b. Peritoneal Stimulation

c)

c. Carotid Body Stimulation

d)

d. All of the above

21.

Hypoglycemia in the anesthesized patient:

a)

Is easily recognized under general anesthesia

b)

Is confused for light anesthesia

c)

Is defined as a blood sugar < 80mg/dL

d)

Rarely presents in patients with renal failure and diabetes

22.

A 40 year old female presents for a thyroidectomy for Graves disease. Her preoperative preparation should include:

a)

Administration of potassium iodide plus propranolol for 10 days

b)

A 1 week course of thyroxine (T4)

c)

A three day course of propylthiouracil

d)

Iodine -131 treatment

23.

A 39 year old woman with a history of headaches, hypertension, palpitations and nephrolithiasis is undergoing a parathyroidectomy for parathyrpid adenoma. During induction,she develops severe hypertension and tachycardia. The most likely diagnosis for these signs is :

a)

a. Adrenal insufficiency

b)

b. Carcinoid syndrome

c)

c. Thyroid storm

d)

d. Pheochromocytoma

24.

During a postoperative check on a 53 year old patient who underwent a total thyroidectomy earlier in the day. You notice that he is stridous and is complaining of muscle cramps. The best treatment for these symptoms is

a)

a. Administration of calcium gluconate

b)

b. Opening the neck wound

c)

c. Reintubation for airway protection

d)

d. Administration of sodium bicarbonate

25.

A 65 year old diabetes mellitus patient should include which of the following preoperative assessment?

a)

An assessment of functional status

b)

24 hour creatinine clearance

c)

Pulmonary function test

d)

Cancellation of the surgical case if HbA1C >10%

26.

Preferred anesthetic agent in a patient with hyperthyroidism includes

a)

Desflurane

b)

ketamine

c)

Sevoflurane

d)

Meperidine

27.

A 78 year old patient with a history of hypertension and adult onset diabetes for which she takes chlorpropamide is admitted for elective cholecystectomy. On the day of admission, blood glucose is noted to be 270 mg/dL and the patient is treated with 15 units of regular insulin subcutaneously in addition to her regular dose of chlorpropamide. 24 hours later after overnight fasting, the patient is brought to the operating room without her daily dose of chlorpropamide and is anesthesized. A serum glucose is measured and found to be 35 mg/dL. The most likely explanation for this is

a)

Insulin

b)

Chlorpropamide

c)

hypovolemia

d)

effect of general anesthesia

28.

Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus

a)

is characterized by a relative lack of insulin plus resistance to endogenous insulin

b)

Always requires insulin

c)

Affects 95% of patients with diabetes

d)

Can be controlled with diet, weight loss and oral hypoglycemic agents

29.

A 27 year old obese woman is scheduled to undergo foot surgery under general anesthesia. She underwent a subtotal thyroidectomy 3 years ago and takes levothyroxine. Which of the following laboratory tests would be the most useful in evaluating whether this patient is euthyroid

a)

Total plasma thyroxine (T4)

b)

Total plasma triiodothyronine (T3)

c)

Thyroid Stimulating hormone (TSH)

d)

Resin triiodothyronine uptake

30.

A 40 year old woman with history of Graves disease is in the recovery room after undergoing a Ct Scan under general anesthesia. While in the recovery room, her blood pressure drops to 80/55 mmHg, her heart rate increases to 140 bpm, and she becomes agitated and complains of difficulty breathing and feeling hot. The most likely diagnosis for these signs is

a)

Thyroid storm

b)

Carcinoid syndrome

c)

Malignant Hyperthermia

d)

Pheochromocytoma

31.

A "sniffing" position improves airway patency by:

a)

Closing the nasopharynx

b)

Aligning oral, pharyngeal, and laryngeal axes

c)

Compressing cervical veins

d)

Flexing the cervical spine completely

32.

For a patient with retrognathia and obstructive sleep apnea, mask ventilation difficulty is predicted by:

a)

Mouth opening >4cm

b)

High-arched palate alone

c)

Thyromental distance <6cm

d)

Stridor only when supine

33.

For myringotomy in a child with URTI, you?

a)

Proceed with mask anesthesia

b)

Cancel Surgery

c)

Proceed and secure airway by intubating

d)

Use deep sedation

34.

OTC antihistamines pose risk because of:

a)

Decreased platelet function

b)

Increased bleeding tendencies

c)

Increase salivation

d)

Increase anxiety

35.

In type 1 pediatric OSAS, apnea occurs due to:

a)

Central drive failure

b)

Obesity lymphoid hyperplasia

c)

Fluid overload

d)

Lymphoid hyperplasia without obesity

36.

The STBUR questionnaire is primarily used to:

a)

Diagnose central sleep apnea

b)

Replace PSG in children

c)

Screen children at risk for perioperative respiratory events

d)

Detect airway anatomical problems

37.

Mandibular distraction osteogenesis (MDO) relives OSAS because it:

a)

Shrinks tonsils

b)

Advances bony structure and enlarges airway

c)

Causes weight loss

d)

Improves central respiratory drive

38.

Which combination yields longest time to rescue analgesia post-adenotonsillectomy?

a)

Fentanyl + rectal acetaminophen

b)

Fentanyl + IV acetaminophen

c)

Fentanyl alone

d)

Ketorolac + Fentanyl

39.

First line treatment for post-tonsillectomy nausea and vomiting:

a)

Metoclopramide + Ondansetron

b)

Ondansetron + Propofol

c)

Dexamethasone + Metoclopramide

d)

Ondansetron + Dexamethasone

40.

Middle ear negative pressure post-N2O cessation can cause:

a)

Dysrhythmias

b)

Bleeding

c)

Enhanced muscle tone

d)

Improved field only

41.

1. According to the modified ASA difficult airway algorithm for trauma, failure of an awake intubation attempt would entail:

a)

a. Cancelling the case

b)

b. Consideration of other options for intubation

c)

c. Immediate invasive airway access

d)

d. Waiting to return to spontaneous ventilation

42.

2. As the attending anesthesiologist, this patient has an ABC (Assessment of Blood Consumption) score of:

a)

a. 1

b)

b. 2

c)

c. 3

d)

d. 4

43.

3. His ABG showed a base deficit of -11. This means that the patient is in:

a)

a. Mild haemorrhagic shock

b)

b. Moderate haemorrhagic shock

c)

c. Severe haemorrhagic shock

d)

d. Blood lactate is a better prognostic marker in the management of shock.

44.

4. Given the patient’s clinical condition, you immediately institute resuscitation. Which of the following is FALSE regarding damage-control resuscitation?

a)

a. A massive transfusion protocol is activated based on ABC score of 2 or more.

b)

b. Crystalloid infusions are minimized.

c)

c. Blood products are administered early with a recommended ratio of 1:1:1.

d)

d. Coagulation studies are done only after bleeding has been controlled.

45.

5. After bleeding has been controlled, tachycardia was resolved but the patient was still noted to be hypotensive. The surgeon tells you that intraoperative blood loss was estimated to be only 800cc and that 4 units of pack RBC has already been given. His ECG was noted to have a prolonged QT interval due to lengthening of the ST segment. Which of the following manoeuvres will you do next?

a)

a. Administer 1g CaCl2 intravenously.

b)

b. Immediate referral to cardiology.

c)

c. Tell the surgeon to search for occult sources of blood loss.

d)

d. Do nothing. The hypotension is due to unaccounted blood loss outside the hospital.

46.

6. The following are challenges to acute pain management of trauma patients EXCEPT:

a)

a. Substance abuse.

b)

b. Emotional issues.

c)

c. Multiple sites of injury.

d)

d. Intensive nature of care.

47.

7. Of the drugs given for intraoperative management of traumatic brain injury, the only drug associated with an increase in mortality is:

a)

a. Propofol

b)

b. Phenobarbital

c)

c. Succinylcholine

d)

d. Corticosteroids

48.

8. A patient with a T5 spinal cord injury was referred to you for debridement of pressure ulcers of the right upper extremity. You then instituted general anesthesia for this case. Intraoperatively, you noted hypertension with bradyarrhythmia despite adequate analgesia and anesthetic depth. The next best thing to do is:

a)

a. Cancel the case.

b)

b. Check the abdomen for a distended urinary bladder.

c)

c. Change general anesthetic from inhalational to TIVA.

d)

d. Refer to radiology for emergency cranial CT scan.

49.

9. The following is not a feature of pericardial tamponade:

a)

a. Bradycardia

b)

b. Distended neck veins

c)

c. Distant heart sounds

d)

d. Pulsus paradoxus

50.

10. A patient at the ER was referred to you for intubation due to sudden loss of consciousness following a blow to the chest from a mixed martial arts tournament. He had a thready pulse when he arrived at the ER and his ECG showed a ventricular tachyarrhythmia. This patient probably has:

a)

a. Pericardial tamponade

b)

b. Spinal shock

c)

c. Occult blood loss

d)

d. Commotio cordis

51.

1. Which statement about serum calcium is true?

a)

a. 50% is bound to albumin

b)

b. 100% is ionized

c)

c. It is primarily stored in soft tissues

d)

d. It does not cross cell membranes

52.

2. Which of the following is NOT a major calciotropic hormone?

a)

a. Vitamin D

b)

b. Parathyroid hormone

c)

c. Calcitonin

d)

d. Thyroxine

53.

3. The major etiology of hypermagnesemia is:

a)

a. Renal failure

b)

b. Iatrogenic from administration of MgSO4

c)

c. Increased dietary intake of magnesium

d)

d. Decreased colonic secretion of magnesium

54.

4. The vast majority of phosphate in the body (85-90%) is found in:

a)

a. Calcium oxalate crystals

b)

b. Struvite crystals

c)

c. Calcium palmitate

d)

d. Apatite

55.

5. The Henderson–Hasselbalch equation relates pH to:

a)

a. pO₂ and H⁺ concentration

b)

b. pCO₂ and bicarbonate concentration

c)

c. strong ion difference and albumin

d)

d. base excess and pH

56.

6. The following are consequences of severe acidemia (pH<7.2) EXCEPT:

a)

a. Respiratory depression

b)

b. Increased catabolism of proteins

c)

c. Inhibition of cerebral cellular metabolism

d)

d. Decreases the threshold to trigger malignant arrhythmias

57.

7. Winter’s formula for expected pCO₂ in metabolic acidosis is:

a)

a. 1.5 × [HCO₃⁻] + 8 ± 2

b)

b. 0.7 × [HCO₃⁻] + 20 ± 5

c)

c. 2 × [HCO₃⁻] – 6

d)

d. [HCO₃⁻]/0.03

58.

8. An ABG showed a pH of 7.29, PaO2 of 93 mmHg, PaCO2 of 32 mmHg, HCO3 of 15 mEq/L, and serum electrolytes showed Na+ of 125 mEq/L, K+ of 3.2 mEq/L, and Cl- of 118 mEq/L. This means that:

a)

a. The patient has compensated HAGMA

b)

b. The patient has compensated NAGMA

c)

c. The patient has a partially compensated HAGMA

d)

d. The patient has a partially compensated NAGMA

59.

9. A primary metabolic alkalosis can result from all EXCEPT:

a)

a. Naso-gastric suctioning

b)

b. Loop diuretic use

c)

c. Hyperaldosteronism

d)

d. Metformin intake

60.

10. In the Stewart approach, the following are determinants of pH and bicarbonate concentration EXCEPT:

a)

a. PaCO2

b)

b. Strong ion difference

c)

c. Concentration of weak acids

d)

d. Base excess