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Welding Safety and Techniques Quiz

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does PPE stand for in welding safety?

a)

Personal Protective Equipment

b)

Professional Protective Environment

c)

Personal Performance Evaluation

d)

Proper Protective Elements

2.

The color of an oxygen cylinder is usually:

a)

Red

b)

Green

c)

Black

d)

Yellow

3.

Which polarity is commonly used for E7018 in SMAW?

a)

DCEN

b)

DCEP

c)

AC only

d)

Both AC and DCEN

4.

A fire extinguisher labeled “ABC” is safe for:

a)

Only paper fires

b)

Electrical, flammable liquid, and combustible fires

c)

Metal fires only

d)

Only welding gas fires

5.

Convert 5/16” to decimal:

a)

0.3125

b)

0.4375

c)

0.2500

d)

0.5000

6.

In oxy-fuel cutting, the preheat flame is adjusted until:

a)

Feather disappears

b)

Cone turns green

c)

Gas flow stops

d)

No sparks are visible

7.

What is the tensile strength of an E6010 electrode?

a)

60,000 psi

b)

70,000 psi

c)

80,000 psi

d)

100,000 psi

8.

The abbreviation “IP” on a blueprint means:

a)

Interpass

b)

Inside Pitch

c)

Inspection Point

d)

Initial Pass

9.

Which joint type is created when two plates are edge to edge?

a)

Lap joint

b)

Tee joint

c)

Butt joint

d)

Corner joint

10.

If a student welds 12” per minute for 15 minutes, how many inches total are welded?

a)

120”

b)

150”

c)

160”

d)

180”

11.

What does the flux coating on SMAW electrodes do?

a)

Speeds up weld cooling

b)

Produces shielding gas and slag

c)

Makes arc strike harder

d)

Adds porosity intentionally

12.

The maximum safe working pressure for acetylene is:

a)

10 psi

b)

15 psi

c)

20 psi

d)

30 psi

13.

Which electrode is fast-freeze?

a)

E7018

b)

E7024

c)

E6010

d)

E6013

14.

GMAW with 100% CO₂ tends to produce:

a)

Smooth spray arc

b)

Harsh arc with more spatter

c)

No penetration

d)

TIG-like bead

15.

In FCAW, “self-shielded” means:

a)

Argon gas is required

b)

Flux core creates shielding gas

c)

Wire has no flux inside

d)

Only indoor use allowed

16.

Why is preheat used on thick carbon steel?

a)

Increases weld spatter

b)

Slows cooling to reduce cracking

c)

Reduces tensile strength

d)

Increases distortion

17.

If a 1/4” fillet weld is specified 6” long both sides, total weld length is:

a)

6”

b)

12”

c)

18”

d)

24”

18.

What symbol indicates a weld must be made in the shop, not the field?

a)

Flag

b)

Circle

c)

Tail

d)

No symbol

19.

A WPS provides:

a)

Directions for how a weld must be made

b)

Inspector’s visual notes

c)

AWS Code rules

d)

Weld repair log

20.

What’s the typical argon flow rate for GTAW on carbon steel?

a)

2–5 cfh

b)

10–20 cfh

c)

50–60 cfh

d)

100+ cfh

21.

Which process uses a non-consumable electrode?

a)

SMAW

b)

GMAW

c)

GTAW

d)

FCAW

22.

The GMAW transfer mode used for thin sheet metal is:

a)

Spray transfer

b)

Short circuit transfer

c)

Globular transfer

d)

Pulsed spray transfer

23.

Hydrogen-induced cracking is most likely in:

a)

Aluminum GTAW

b)

Mild steel with low hydrogen electrodes

c)

High-strength steels without preheat

d)

Stainless steel GMAW

24.

Interpass cleaning is especially critical in:

a)

E6010 stringers

b)

E7024 drag rods

c)

GMAW spray transfer

d)

FCAW with flux build-up

25.

Which discontinuity is most dangerous for fatigue loading?

a)

Undercut

b)

Overlap

c)

Porosity

d)

Spatter

26.

A backing strip on a groove weld is used to:

a)

Strengthen the weld face

b)

Reduce need for cleaning

c)

Ensure full root penetration

d)

Make code compliance easier

27.

A correctly adjusted TIG arc length is typically:

a)

Equal to electrode diameter

b)

Twice electrode diameter

c)

Touching base metal

d)

As long as possible

28.

When inspecting fillet weld size, the “leg” is measured:

a)

From root to toe

b)

Across the throat

c)

Face width

d)

Bead reinforcement

29.

Which AWS document covers structural welding in steel?

a)

D1.1

b)

D1.3

c)

D17.1

d)

A5.1

30.

A groove weld symbol with no root opening shown implies:

a)

No prep required

b)

Must follow WPS for root details

c)

Use fillet weld instead

d)

Groove angle = 90°

31.

Which discontinuity is typically detected best by ultrasonic testing?

a)

Surface porosity

b)

Internal slag inclusions

c)

Burn-through

d)

Spatter

32.

A heat-affected zone (HAZ) is:

a)

Only visible under microscope

b)

The portion of base metal altered by welding heat

c)

The area of filler metal dilution

d)

The weld face

33.

Low hydrogen electrodes must be stored in ovens around:

a)

150°F

b)

250°F

c)

450°F

d)

650°F

34.

A CWI performing visual inspection must ensure:

a)

Correct filler metal

b)

Weld meets acceptance criteria in codebook

c)

Machine amperage is always maxed out

d)

Inspector welds sample plates

35.

The throat of a fillet weld is the:

a)

Distance from root to face

b)

Length of bead

c)

Distance across leg

d)

Root opening

36.

Which welding defect appears as long linear cracks along bead edges?

a)

Hot cracking

b)

Cold lap

c)

Wormhole porosity

d)

Arc strikes

37.

Which element in steel primarily increases hardness but reduces toughness?

a)

Carbon

b)

Nickel

c)

Chromium

d)

Copper

38.

Weld procedure qualification requires destructive tests such as:

a)

Nick break and bend tests

b)

X-ray film review only

c)

Visual inspection

d)

Hardness spark test

39.

If interpass temperature is too high, welds may:

a)

Become more ductile

b)

Lose toughness and mechanical properties

c)

Show better bead contour

d)

Self-stress relieve

40.

Which process is most often used for aerospace aluminum welding?

a)

SMAW

b)

GTAW

c)

FCAW

d)

SAW

41.

You’re welding a 3G groove with E7018, but porosity keeps appearing. Best fix?

a)

Increase arc length

b)

Reduce arc length and clean thoroughly

c)

Increase amperage

d)

Switch to 6010

42.

If a print shows a 1/4” intermittent fillet weld 2” long every 6”, total weld length on a 36” joint is:

a)

10”

b)

12”

c)

14”

d)

18”

43.

A welder qualification test fails bend testing when:

a)

Slight convexity appears

b)

Fracture shows slag inclusions

c)

Grind marks are visible

d)

Weld reinforcement is high

44.

What is the minimum preheat for 1” thick high-strength low-alloy steel?

a)

100°F

b)

225°F

c)

400°F

d)

Refer to WPS/code

45.

Which NDE test uses fluorescent dye and UV light?

a)

PT

b)

UT

c)

RT

d)

MT

46.

Why is carbon equivalent (CE) important in welding?

a)

Determines bead width

b)

Predicts weld cracking tendency

c)

Measures penetration depth

d)

Sets amperage automatically

47.

If a 2F fillet weld has excessive convexity, it may cause:

a)

Undercut

b)

Stress concentration

c)

Lack of fusion

d)

Increased toughness

48.

Which transfer mode in GMAW allows high deposition with low spatter and deep penetration?

a)

Globular

b)

Spray transfer

c)

Short circuit

d)

Stick-out transfer

49.

A welder submits coupons with grinding marks across face bend areas. Inspector’s action?

a)

Accept, cosmetic only

b)

Reject – improper prep

c)

Bend test anyway, grind marks irrelevant

d)

Rewrite WPS

50.

Why is hydrogen cracking often delayed (appears hours after welding)?

a)

Hydrogen migrates through microstructure over time

b)

Cooling rate is too fast

c)

Tungsten contamination occurs

d)

Shielding gas absorption continues