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Mo Exam 1 Review Session

Total questions: 32

Worksheet time: 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a route of administration of Azactam (Aztreonam)? SATA

a)

Intramuscular

b)

Intrathecal

c)

Inunction

d)

Inhalation

e)

Intravenously

2.

Which of the following is NOT a route of administration of Aztreonam? SATA

a)

Intramuscular

b)

Intrathecal

c)

Inunction

d)

Inhalation

e)

Intravenously

3.

Which of the following should a Pharmacist NOT recommend for the treatment of an infection that was caused by a Carbapenem-resistant bacterium?

a)

Gentamicin (Garamycin)

b)

Temocillin (Negaban)

c)

Polymyxin (Coly-Mycin M)

d)

Imipenem + Cilastatin (Primaxin)

e)

Fosfomycin (Monurol)

4.

Which of the following should a Pharmacist recommend for the treatment of an infection that was caused by a Carbapenem-resistant bacterium? SATA

a)

Garamycin

b)

Negaban

c)

Coly-Mycin M

d)

Primaxin

e)

Monurol

5.

Administering HCTZ (Hydrochlorothiazide) with which of the following penicillins may result in additive HYPOkalemia?

a)

Piperacillin (Piperacil)

b)

Pen VK

c)

Pen G (Bicillin, Benzathine, Wycillin)

d)

Amoxicillin (Amoxil, Trimox)

e)

Dicloxacillin (Dynapen)

6.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a 2nd Generation Cephalosporin?

a)

Cefadroxil (Duricef)

b)

Cefuroxime (Ceftin, Zincef)

c)

Cefazolin (Ancef, Kefzol)

d)

Ceftobiprole (Zevtera/Mabelio)

e)

Cefixime (Suprax)

7.

Which of the following is a 3rd Generation Cephalosporin?

a)

Cefadroxil (Duricef)

b)

Cefuroxime (Ceftin, Zinacef)

c)

Cefazolin (Ancef, Kefzol)

d)

Ceftobiprole (Zevtera/Mabelio)

e)

Cefixime (Suprax)

8.

SATA: Which of the following is administered concurrently with Cycloserine (Seromycin) in order to increase the effectiveness of that regimen?

a)

Capreomycin

b)

Bedaquilline

c)

Rifampin

d)

Isoniazid

e)

Delamidid

9.

SATA: Which of the following choices work by inhibiting Mycolic Acid?

a)

Capreomycin

b)

Bedaquilline

c)

Rifampin

d)

Isoniazid

e)

Delamidid

10.

Which of the following bacteria is MOST likely to be extracted from a human bite?

a)

Eikella

b)

Corynebacterium Difficile

c)

Bactoroides Fragilis

d)

Streptococcus Anginosus

11.

The MOA of Bacitracin (Baciguent) involves the inhibition of which of the following?

a)

Park Nucleotide

b)

Transglycosylation

c)

Inhibition of the Dephosphorylation

d)

Inhibition of Lipid II

e)

Inhibition of Lipid III

12.

SATA: Which of the following is a mechanism of action of Fosfomycin (Monurol)?

a)

Inhibition of the translation of RANTES

b)

Inhibition of IL-2

c)

Immunomodulate of IL-8

d)

Inactivation of Pyruval Transferase

e)

Enhanced phagocytic activity of Neutrophils

13.

Which of the following is an appropriate dosage of Fosfomycin (Monurol)? SATA

a)

4 g IV Q6H

b)

3 of the 3g packets PO TID

c)

8 g IV Q12H

d)

1-2 capsules of the 500 mg strength Q6H

e)

3 granules (1 packet) with 3-4 oz of COLD water x 1 dose

14.

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate dosage of Monurol?

a)

4 g IV Q6H

b)

3 x 3g packets PO TID

c)

8 g IV Q12H

d)

1-2 capsules of the 500 mg strength Q6H

e)

3 granules (1 packet) with 3-4 oz of COLD water x 1 dose

15.

An individual who is severely allergic to Tazobactam should NOT be treated with which of the following? SATA

a)

Unasyn

b)

Vabomere

c)

Recarbrio

d)

Zosyn

e)

Zerbaxa

16.

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate route of administration of Bicillin (Benzathine Pen G)?

a)

IM

b)

IP

c)

IV

d)

SC

e)

Intraventricularly

17.

The MOST appropriate dosage of Pivya (Pivmecillin) for the treatment of uncomplicated catheter induced UTI is which of the following?

a)

400 mg PO Q8H x 7 days

b)

100 mg PO QD x 7 days

c)

200 mg PO BID x 5 days

d)

400 mg PO STAT, then 400 mg PO Q8H x 7 days

e)

200 mg PO QD x 7 days

18.

SATA: Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be a prophylactic indication of Pen G?

a)

Jaurisch-Hauximer Reaction

b)

Well's Disease

c)

Gonorrheal Ophthalmia (eyes of neonates)

d)

Endocarditis

e)

Rheumatic Fever

19.

Which of the following inhibits the renal tubular secretion of Penicillin G? (Pen G)

a)

Erythromycin

b)

Aminoglycosides

c)

Benemid (Probenecid)

d)

Oral Contraceptives

e)

Warfarin (Coumadin)

20.

SATA: Which of the following is an indication of Ampicillin?

a)

Nocardiosis

b)

Ampicillin Rash

c)

Meningitis in Children

d)

Prophylaxis of Endocarditis

e)

Typhoid Fever

21.

SATA: Which of the following is an adverse effect of Primaxin (Imipenem)?

a)

Headaches

b)

Insomnia

c)

Hallucinations

d)

Seizures

e)

Delirium

22.

T/F: E. coli is a lactose fermenter

a)

True

b)

False

23.

T/F: Proteus Vulgaris is an endopositive bacterium

a)

True

b)

False

24.

T/F: Campylobacter Jejuni is a capnophilic bacterium

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Staphylococcus aureus is a coagulase positive pathogen

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Morganella Moganii is a ureas splitting bacterium

a)

True

b)

False

27.

A Cephamycin is effective in treating the infections caused by all of the following genera EXCEPT:

a)

Pseudomonas

b)

Escherichia

c)

Haemophilus

d)

Peptostreptococcus

e)

Bacteroides

28.

Which respect to Acid-Fast staining method, which of the following statements is FALSE? SATA

a)

The primary staining is hot carbol fuchsin

b)

The decolorizer is 95% ethyl alcohol

c)

The Mordant is Lugol's Solution

d)

The primary stain is Crystal Violet

e)

The decolorized is acid alcohol

29.

Which of the following statements are INCORRECT regarding Vancomycin (Vancocin)?

a)

It can be administered orally

b)

It produces a time-dependent bactericidal effect

c)

It can be given IV and PO while Teichoplanin is administered IV, PO, and IM

d)

It has a shorter half-life than Teichoplanin

e)

It produces the Red Man Syndrome less often than Teichoplanin

30.

SATA: How would you classify Vibrio Vulnificus based on its oxygen requirement and based on the growth pattern (shape)?

a)

Bacillus

b)

Coccus

c)

Aerobic

d)

Anaerobic

e)

Comma-Shaped, Produces a Flesh-Eating Infection

31.

Which of the following is BEST classified as an Isoxazoyl Penicillin?

a)

Ticarcillin

b)

Ampicillin

c)

Penicillin VK

d)

Nafcillin

e)

Oxacillin

32.

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

a)

Cefuroxime is effective against Fusobacterium Nucle but Cefotetan is NOT

b)

Cefoxitin (Mefoxin) is LESS effective than Cefadroxil in treating Staph. Infections

c)

URTIs caused by Moraxella Catarrhalis can be effectively treated with Cefotetan (Cefotan) but NOT with Cephalexin (Keflex)

d)

Both Cefazolin (Ancef) and Cefoxitin (Mefoxin) are effective in treating infections caused by Klebsiella Pneumoniae

e)

Cefmetazole (Zefazone) is effective against Proteus Vulgaris, but Cefazolin (Ancef) is NOT

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