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Environmental Science Quiz

Total questions: 105

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The relative warming potential of is approximately 25 times greater than carbon dioxide.

a)

Nitrous oxide

b)

Methane

c)

CFC

d)

Argon

2.

The boundary between troposphere and stratosphere is called.

a)

Mesopause

b)

Stratopause

c)

Tropopuase

d)

Thermopause

3.

The rocks formed by cooling and solidification of molten rock material such as magma (e.g. basalt) are called rocks.

a)

Igneous

b)

Sedimentary

c)

Metamorphic

d)

All of above

4.

If the sources of pollution are not specific, multiple and unidentifiable then it is called.

a)

Point source pollution

b)

Non-point source pollution

c)

Single source pollution

d)

Mega pollution

5.

A resource that cannot be replaced quickly by natural processes is called.

a)

Renewable resource

b)

Useful resource

c)

Non-renewable resource

d)

Depleted resource

6.

Enrichment of water bodies with nitrates and phosphates (inorganic nutrients) is known as.

a)

Algal blooms

b)

Plant proliferation

c)

Eutrophication

d)

Natural attenuation

7.

The study of the interaction of living organisms and the natural environment is called.

a)

Agronomy

b)

Soil Science

c)

Ecology

d)

Pathology

8.

The term for all the species of living organisms in a region or ecosystem at a specific time is called.

a)

Biodiversity

b)

Population

c)

Environment

d)

Regional

9.

Green House effect refers to.

a)

Cooling of earth

b)

Trapping of UV rays

c)

Warming of earth

d)

Cultivation of plants

10.

Which gas is mainly responsible for global warming.

a)

CO2

b)

SO2

c)

N2

d)

CH4

11.

The term green revolution was coined by.

a)

M.S. Swaminathan

b)

Chares Elton

c)

William Gaud

d)

E.Odum

12.

A species restricted to a given area is.

a)

Endemic species

b)

Allopatric species

c)

Sympatric species

d)

Sibling species

13.

IUCN Stands for.

a)

International Union for Conservation of Nature

b)

International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources

c)

International Union Council for Nature

d)

International Union council for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources

14.

The following is the correct food chain of an aquatic ecosystem.

a)

Phytoplankton →Zooplankton →Fish →Bird → Vulture

b)

Phytoplankton→ Fish→Zooplankton → Bird→ Vulture

c)

Zooplankton→Phytoplankton→ Vulture→ Fish→ Bird

d)

Fish→ Zooplankton→Phytoplankton→ Bird →Vulture

15.

The diversity between communities is called as.

a)

Beta diversity

b)

Alpha diversity

c)

Delta diversity

d)

Gamma diversity

16.

Ozone layer is present in.

a)

Troposphere

b)

Ionosphere

c)

Lithosphere

d)

Stratosphere

17.

is a colorless, odorless and toxic gas is produced when organic material like coal and their product incompletely burnt.

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Carbon Monoxide

c)

Sulphur dioxide

d)

Nitrogen oxide

18.

General term for particles suspended in air is.

a)

Mist

b)

Dust

c)

Fog

d)

Aerosol

19.

Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides are transported by prevailing winds they form secondary pollutants such as nitric acid vapour, droplets of sulfuric acid descends on earth surface is called.

a)

Rain

b)

Acid rain

c)

Basic rain

d)

Ice rain

20.

Ozone is a form of oxygen with atoms.

a)

2

b)

3

c)

1

d)

4

21.

The major pollutant from automobile exhaust is.

a)

CO

b)

NO

c)

YES

d)

SO2

22.

The rapidly moving stream of charged particles that is being driven away from the sun is known as what?

a)

Coronal Mass Ejection

b)

Solar Flare

c)

Sunspot

d)

Solar Wind

23.

About how many light years across is the Milky Way?

a)

1,000

b)

10,000

c)

100,000

d)

1,000,000

24.

Which unlucky Apollo lunar landing was canceled after an oxygen tank exploded?

a)

Apollo 13

b)

Apollo 11

c)

Apollo 8

d)

Apollo 17

25.

The only one planet in the solar system has a day which lasts longer than its year.

a)

Mercury

b)

Venus

c)

Mars

d)

Jupiter

26.

The first manned spacecraft.

a)

Sputnik 1

b)

Soyuz

c)

Vostok 1

d)

Freedom 7

27.

Who was the first man to classify stars according to their brightness?

a)

Aristarchus

b)

Pythagorus

c)

Copernicus

d)

Hipparchus

28.

What is the star nearest to the sun?

a)

Alpha Centauri

b)

Proxima Centauri

c)

Sirius

d)

Barnard's Star

29.

The Orion Nebula is a good example of what kind of nebula?

a)

Reflection Nebula

b)

Dark Nebula

c)

Planetary Nebula

d)

Emission Nebula

30.

What is the collection of small rocky bodies, otherwise known as minor planets, 99.8 percent of whose orbits lie between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter?

a)

Comets

b)

Meteoroids

c)

Kuiper Belt Objects

d)

Asteroids

31.

Elliptical, Spiral and Irregular are classifications of what type of astronomical systems?

a)

Galaxies

b)

Star Clusters

c)

Nebulae

d)

Planetary Systems

32.

Which of the following men wrote the book 'On the Revolutions of the Heavenly Spheres'?

a)

Kepler

b)

Euclid

c)

Copernicus

d)

Newton

33.

The Magellanic Clouds are.

a)

irregular galaxies

b)

spiral galaxies

c)

elliptical galaxies

d)

large clouds of gas and dust

34.

The VISUAL aurora consists of luminous arcs, rays or bands in the night sky, usually confined to high latitudes and located in the.

a)

troposphere

b)

stratosphere

c)

ozonosphere

d)

ionosphere

35.

According to Kepler's Laws, all orbits of the planets are.

a)

ellipses

b)

parabolas

c)

hyperbolas

d)

square

36.

Which type of star is maintained by the pressure of an electron gas?

a)

Main Sequence Star

b)

White Dwarf

c)

Neutron Star

d)

Black Hole

37.

Io, Europa, Ganymede and Callisto are satellites of what planet?

a)

Jupiter

b)

Saturn

c)

Neptune

d)

Uranus

38.

Name the outer boundary of the sun's magnetic field?

a)

Magnetopause

b)

Bow Shock

c)

Termination Shock

d)

Heliopause

39.

Phobos and Deimos are moons that orbit which planet?

a)

Jupiter

b)

Saturn

c)

Mars

d)

Venus

40.

The two main radiation belts that surround the earth are known by what name?

a)

Aurora Borealis

b)

Van Allen Belts

c)

Magnetosphere

d)

Ionosphere

41.

The period from one full moon to the next is:

a)

30.3 days

b)

30 days

c)

29.5 days

d)

28 days

42.

A pulsar is actually a:

a)

black hole

b)

white dwarf

c)

red giant

d)

neutron star

43.

What are the two bright spots of light on opposite sides of a halo around the sun called?

a)

Solar Flares

b)

Sun Dogs

c)

Moonbows

d)

Corona

44.

What are the Geminids, the Perseids, and the Leonids?

a)

Meteor Showers

b)

Comets

c)

Asteroids

d)

Constellations

45.

Astronomers use cepheids principally as measures of what?

a)

size

b)

speed

c)

chemical composition

d)

distance

46.

95% of the Martian atmosphere is composed of what substance?

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Argon

d)

Carbon monoxide

47.

What is the motion called when a planet seems to be moving westward in the sky?

a)

Retrograde

b)

Parallax

c)

Opcentric

d)

Reverse parallax

48.

Who was the first individual to observe the phases of Venus?

a)

Nicolaus Copernicus

b)

Johannes Kepler

c)

Tycho Brahe

d)

Galileo

49.

What causes a planet to have a magnetic field?

a)

the dynamo effect.

b)

the Doppler effect.

c)

the Photoelectric effect.

d)

its rotation about its sun

50.

What is the point at which the orbit of Mercury comes closest to the Sun called?

a)

Aphelion

b)

Perigee

c)

Perihelion

d)

Apogee

51.

Which civilization developed and implemented the first solar calendar?

a)

Babylonian

b)

Greek

c)

Egyptian

d)

Aztec

52.

What percentage of the earth's atmosphere does O2 comprise?

a)

75%

b)

50%

c)

21%

d)

32%

53.

Cirrus clouds are:

a)

rain clouds

b)

thick and fleecy

c)

made of ice crystals

d)

low cloud layers

54.

The name of a rapid rise of coastal water that accompanies the arrival of a cyclone is called:

a)

hurricane

b)

storm surge

c)

tidal wave

d)

cyclonistat

55.

In the nebular hypothesis, each planet is formed from which of the following?

a)

a comet

b)

a number of moons

c)

a passing star

d)

a ring of gas

56.

The available incoming solar radiation is known as:

a)

reflection

b)

insolation

c)

reradiation

d)

absorption

57.

Which planet's axis is almost parallel to its orbital plane, making it spin nearly on its side?

a)

Saturn

b)

Jupiter

c)

Venus

d)

Uranus

58.

With which US spacecraft did Neil Armstrong and Edwin Aldrin, Jr. land on the moon?

a)

Apollo 11

b)

Apollo 7

c)

Apollo 17

d)

Apollo 13

59.

Which spacecraft was Laika, the first living creature sent into space?

a)

Sputnik 2

b)

Sputnik 3

c)

Vostok 1

d)

Apollo 11

60.

Who was the first to suggest the idea of an artificial satellite?

a)

Leonardo da Vinci

b)

Galileo Galilei

c)

Johannes Kepler

d)

Sir Isaac Newton

61.

The amount of light emitted by an object in a unit of time is known as

a)

Themal radiation

b)

Black body radiation

c)

Starlight

d)

Luminosity

62.

Which type of telescope is used for examining the moon and other planets of the solar system?

a)

catadioptric telescope

b)

Schmidt Telescope

c)

Refracting telescope

d)

Reflecting telescope

63.

What is the scientific term used for the twinkling of stars?

a)

Parallax

b)

Scintillation

c)

Albedo

d)

Refraction

64.

What makes a planet a dwarf planet?

a)

size and shape

b)

smell

c)

distance from the Sun

d)

color

65.

Who discovered the Crab Nebula?

a)

Charles Messier

b)

Ernst Otto Fischer

c)

John Bevis

d)

John Flamsteed

66.

What is the dark center of a sunspot called?

a)

Dark spot

b)

Penumbra

c)

Umbra

d)

Filament

67.

What is the nucleus of a comet made of?

a)

ice, dust, and organic materials

b)

sugar, spice and everything nice

c)

radio, infrared and gamma rays

d)

helium and water

68.

Which astronomer formulated the modern big bang theory?

a)

Georges Lemaître

b)

Carl Sagan

c)

Edwin Hubble

d)

William Herschel

69.

Who invented the telescope?

a)

Hypatia

b)

Galileo

c)

Hans Lippershey

d)

Johannes Kepler

70.

The first satellite to operate in geostationary orbit is:

a)

Syncom 2

b)

Sputnik 1

c)

Skylab

d)

Mir

71.

What are the clouds of interstellar gas and dust that emit light in different colors called?

a)

Planetary nebulae

b)

Emission nebulae

c)

Dark nebulae

d)

Reflection nebulae

72.

What two motions do all planets have?

a)

wiggle and wobble

b)

twist and shout

c)

rock and roll

d)

orbit and spin

73.

Which is the name of a radio source that is very far from Earth?

a)

taser

b)

phaser

c)

tracer

d)

quasar

74.

Who discovered dark matter?

a)

Jan Oort

b)

Vera Rubin

c)

Fritz Zwicky

d)

Halton Arp

75.

The doughnut-shaped zones of highly energetic charged particles trapped at high altitudes in the magnetic field of Earth are known as:

a)

Magnetopause

b)

Magnetosheath

c)

Magnetosphere

d)

Van Allen radiation belt

76.

Which planets do not have a natural satellite?

a)

Uranus and Venus

b)

Mercury and Venus

c)

Mercury and Neptune

d)

Mercury and Saturn

77.

The instance when the Sun is exactly above the Equator and day and night are of equal length is called:

a)

Winter solstice

b)

Summer solstice

c)

Beginning of spring

d)

Vernal equinox

78.

What term describes the alignment of three celestial bodies?

a)

syzygy

b)

suzerainty

c)

symbology

d)

sizzle

79.

Who discovered the laws of planetary motion?

a)

Galileo

b)

Newton

c)

Kepler

d)

Copernicus

80.

What is a group of old stars closely packed in a symmetrical form called?

a)

Star cluster

b)

Globular cluster

c)

Open cluster

d)

Galactic cluster

81.

Which of the following technologies provides the least information about celestial bodies in our solar system?

a)

Telescope

b)

Remote sensing

c)

Spectral analysis

d)

Global positioning system

82.

What is the source of energy for the Sun?

a)

Hydrogen Fusion

b)

Internal Combustion

c)

Nuclear Fission of Metals

d)

Burning of solar gases

83.

The surfaces of planet Mercury and our moon contain some very large craters that are most likely the results of

a)

Giant lava flows

b)

Asteroid impacts

c)

Nuclear explosions

d)

Large collapsed craters

84.

As part of the modern theory of the origins of the elements, it is hypothesized that before the formation of the stars, most of the matter in the universe consisted of what atoms?

a)

hydrogen and helium

b)

nitrogen and carbon

c)

silicon and lithium

d)

uranium and radium

85.

Stars begin their life cycle in

a)

a black hole.

b)

a nova.

c)

a nebula.

d)

a supernova

86.

Which of these could increase average global temperatures?

a)

increased use of fossil fuels

b)

increased ocean algal blooms

c)

decreased carbon dioxide emissions

d)

increased numbers of animal species

87.

When a layer of cool air at the surface of Earth is found under a layer of warmer air above it, the result is known as

a)

the Coriolis effect.

b)

the greenhouse effect.

c)

a temperature inversion.

d)

an upwelling.

88.

Snow on the ground prevents polar climates from gaining heat by what mechanism?

a)

heating by greenhouse gases

b)

heat spread from the equator

c)

reflection of solar radiation

d)

release of heat from Earth's core

89.

Earth's atmosphere is divided into layers that are based upon their

a)

water content.

b)

relative humidity.

c)

gas content.

d)

temperature gradient

90.

Which is the most volcanic world in our solar system?

a)

Earth

b)

Venus

c)

Io

d)

Europa

91.

In 1962, Mariner 2 became the first spacecraft to successfully encounter another planet. What planet was this?

a)

Mercury

b)

Mars

c)

Venus

d)

Jupiter

92.

The gaseous water density of the atmosphere is more commonly known as what?

a)

Pressure

b)

Temperature

c)

Precipitation

d)

Humidity

93.

Rocks formed in layers are said to be

a)

crystalline

b)

stratified

c)

chemical

d)

metamorphosed

94.

In a food chain of grassland ecosystem the top consumers are

a)

Herbivorous

b)

Carnivorous

c)

Bacteria

d)

Either carnivorous or herbivorous

95.

Barnacles growing on the back of whale is an example for

a)

Mutualism

b)

Parasitism

c)

Amensalism

d)

Commensalism

96.

The final stable community in an ecological succession is called

a)

Final community

b)

Ultimate community

c)

Climax community

d)

Serial community

97.

Which of the following levels of organization is arrange in correct sequence from most to least inclusive?

a)

Community, ecosystem, individual, population

b)

Ecosystem, community, population, individual

c)

Population, ecosystem, individual, community

d)

Individual, population, community, ecosystem

98.

What is probably the most important factor affecting the distribution of biomes?

a)

Wind and water currents

b)

Species diversity

c)

Climate

d)

Day length and rainfall

99.

An organism’s (species’) niche is best described as the set of interactions between the organism and the 

a)

positive features of its environment.

b)

abiotic parts of its environment

c)

abiotic and biotic parts of its environment.

d)

positive and negative features of its environment

100.

Which of the following would increase the size of a population?

a)

Increased mortality

b)

Increased emigration

c)

Decreased immigration

d)

Increased natality

101.

A pioneer species is

a)

An ancient type of organism

b)

one which has evolved quickly

c)

one which has avoided evolution

d)

one of the first types to grow in a new area

102.

Which weather tool measures precipitation?

a)

thermometer

b)

rain gauge

c)

barometer

d)

anemometer

103.

a higher albedo means

a)

less reflection

b)

more reflection

c)

greater absorption

d)

more refraction

104.

Air that is moving is called

a)

coriolis

b)

humidity

c)

wind

d)

temperature

105.

Which is the driving force of the water cycle

a)

Wind

b)

Sound

c)

Sun

d)

Rotation of the earth