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Mechanical 3rd Semester 2025-26

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which property of fluid represents resistance to flow?

a)

Surface tension

b)

Viscosity

c)

Cohesion

d)

Compressibility

2.

Specific gravity is defined as the ratio of:

a)

Density of fluid to density of water

b)

Mass of fluid to volume of water

c)

Weight of fluid to weight of water

d)

Volume of fluid to volume of water

3.

The SI unit of surface tension is:

a)

N/m

b)

N/m²

c)

N·s/m²

d)

Pa·s

4.

A fluid that has no viscosity is called:

a)

Real fluid

b)

Superfluid

c)

Ideal fluid

d)

Newtonian fluid

5.

The bulk modulus of a fluid is a measure of its:

a)

Compressibility

b)

Density

c)

Elasticity

d)

Surface tension

6.

Which of the following is dimensionless?

a)

Density

b)

Viscosity

c)

Specific gravity

d)

Pressure

7.

A Newtonian fluid is defined as one which:

a)

Has constant viscosity

b)

Obeys Newton's law of viscosity

c)

Has no shear stress

d)

Has zero density

8.

The property which allows liquid to rise or fall in a capillary tube is:

a)

Adhesion

b)

Cohesion

c)

Surface tension

d)

Compressibility

9.

Which of the following measures atmospheric pressure?

a)

Piezometer

b)

Bourdon gauge

c)

Barometer

d)

Micromanometer

10.

Differential manometer measures:

a)

Absolute pressure

b)

Gauge pressure

c)

Difference of pressure between two points

d)

Negative pressure

11.

Which instrument is suitable for high pressure measurement?

a)

Barometer

b)

U-tube manometer

c)

Bourdon gauge

d)

Piezometer

12.

The SI unit of pressure is:

a)

Pascal

b)

Bar

c)

atm

d)

Torr

13.

1 atm is equal to:

a)

760 mm of mercury

b)

1000 mm of mercury

c)

1 bar

d)

10⁶ Pa

14.

Vacuum pressure is defined as:

a)

Pressure below atmospheric pressure

b)

Pressure above atmospheric pressure

c)

Absolute pressure

d)

None of these

15.

Gauge pressure =

a)

Absolute pressure + Atmospheric pressure

b)

Absolute pressure - Atmospheric pressure

c)

Atmospheric pressure - Absolute pressure

d)

Absolute pressure × Atmospheric pressure

16.

In a fluid at rest, the pressure at a point acts:

a)

Vertically only

b)

Horizontally only

c)

Equally in all directions

d)

None of these

17.

The total pressure force on a submerged surface acts at:

a)

Centroid

b)

Center of pressure

c)

Center of gravity

d)

Metacenter

18.

The SI unit of pressure head is:

a)

m of fluid

b)

N/m²

c)

kg/m²

d)

N/m

19.

If a body sinks in a liquid, then:

a)

Weight of body > Buoyant force

b)

Weight of body < Buoyant force

c)

Weight of body = Buoyant force

d)

Density of body < Density of fluid

20.

Neutral equilibrium occurs when:

a)

Metacenter above center of gravity

b)

Metacenter below center of gravity

c)

Metacenter coincides with center of gravity

d)

Center of buoyancy coincides with center of gravity

21.

The primary reasons for use of cutting fluids are:

a)

Lubrication

b)

Cooling

c)

Chip flushing

d)

All of these

22.

Which of the following is not a property of a good cutting fluid?

a)

High heat absorbing capacity

b)

Easily Oxidized or decomposed

c)

Good lubricating properties

d)

High Flash Point

23.

Which type of cutting fluids is best suited for broaching operations?

a)

Straight cutting oils

b)

Soluble Oils

c)

Semi synthetic oils

d)

Synthetic oils

24.

Which of the following is an example of a solid lubricant?

a)

Lithium

b)

Graphite

c)

Silicon

d)

Lead

25.

Which lathe operation creates a rough diamond pattern on the surface of workpiece for decorative purposes:

a)

Facing

b)

Threading

c)

Knurling

d)

Step Turning

26.

Which of the following are methods of taper turning operations?

a)

Tailstock set-over method

b)

Form tool method

c)

Compound rest swiveling method

d)

All of the above

27.

Which taper turning method uses a specialized attachment that guides the cross slide to move at a set angle while the carriage feeds longitudinally?

a)

Compound rest swiveling method

b)

Tailstock set-over method

c)

Form tool method

d)

Taper attachment method

28.

The surface over which the chip flows as it is cut from the work piece by a single point cutting tool is known as:

a)

Shank face

b)

Relief face

c)

Rake face

d)

Cutting Face

29.

The primary sharp cutting edge which performs the cutting action in a single point cutting tool is Known as:

a)

Side cutting edge

b)

End cutting edge

c)

Front cutting edge

d)

Back cutting edge

30.

The angle between the tool face and a plane parallel to the base of the tool, measured in a plane perpendicular to the base and parallel to the side cutting edge is:

a)

Side rake angle

b)

Back rake angle

c)

Side relief angle

d)

End relief angle

31.

The space between two consecutive teeth in a broach is known as:

a)

Pitch

b)

Land

c)

Gullet

d)

Margin

32.

The most common material used to manufacture a broach tool is

a)

High Speed steel

b)

Stainless steel

c)

Tungsten steel

d)

Mild steel

33.

A large, versatile machine with a radial arm that allows the drill head to be moved over a wide area, making it ideal for drilling holes in large, heavy work pieces is:

a)

Sensitive Drilling machine

b)

Portable Drilling machine

c)

Gang Drilling machine

d)

Radial Drilling machine

34.

Which of these operations can be performed by a drilling machine?

a)

Reaming

b)

Counter Boring

c)

Tapping

d)

All of these

35.

Which type of reamer has spiral flutes for better chip ejection and smoother cutting action?

a)

Machine Reamer

b)

Hand Reamer

c)

Straight Fluted Reamer

d)

Helical Fluted reamer

36.

Which of the following is not an element of a broach tool?

a)

Front Pilot

b)

Nose

c)

Cutting Teeth

d)

Rear Pilot

37.

A larger nose radius in a single point cutting tool improves

a)

Surface Finish

b)

Tool strength

c)

Both (a) and (b)

d)

None of the above

38.

The carriage of a lathe does not consist of

a)

Compound rest

b)

Cross slide

c)

Lead Screw

d)

Saddle

39.

Heavy Duty Lathes are not used in

a)

Large shaft machining industries

b)

Ship Building industries

c)

Tool rooms and maintenance shops

d)

Railway workshops

40.

Fluid is dispensed as droplets directly onto the tool or workpiece. This application of cutting fluid is known as

a)

Drip Application

b)

Jet Application

c)

Mist Application

d)

Flood Application

41.

Stress is always measured as:

a)

External force acting on body

b)

Internal resisting force per unit area

c)

Change in length per unit length

d)

None of these

42.

Strain is a:

a)

Dimensionless quantity

b)

Quantity with unit of N/m²

c)

Vector quantity

d)

Scalar with unit

43.

Shear stress acts:

a)

Perpendicular to area

b)

Parallel to area

c)

At 45° to area

d)

None of these

44.

If stress is doubled and strain remains same, modulus of elasticity will:

a)

Double

b)

Become half

c)

Remain same

d)

Increase four times

45.

The ability of a material to resist permanent deformation is called:

a)

Elasticity

b)

Plasticity

c)

Ductility

d)

Toughness

46.

The property of a material by which it can be drawn into wires is:

a)

Malleability

b)

Ductility

c)

Hardness

d)

Resilience

47.

Resistance against wear, indentation or scratching is called:

a)

Toughness

b)

Hardness

c)

Plasticity

d)

Strength

48.

The energy stored in a body up to elastic limit is:

a)

Resilience

b)

Toughness

c)

Creep

d)

Fatigue strength

49.

A brittle material generally fails at:

a)

High strain

b)

Low strain

c)

High stress

d)

Low stress

50.

Effective number of atoms for FCC is ______________

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

1

51.

c/a ratio for HCP is _____________

a)

1.633

b)

0.816

c)

1.05

d)

0.74

52.

Coordination number for BCC structure is _______________

a)

8

b)

12

c)

2

d)

6

53.

Amorphous solids have _______ structure.

a)

Regular

b)

Linear

c)

Irregular

d)

Dendritic

54.

Bravais lattice consists of __________ space lattices.

a)

Eleven

b)

Twelve

c)

Thirteen

d)

Fourteen

55.

The smallest portion of the lattice is known as __________

a)

Lattice structure

b)

Lattice point

c)

Bravais crystal

d)

Unit cell

56.

What is the atomic radius of a BCC crystal structure?

a)

a/2

b)

a/4

c)

a√2/4

d)

a√3/4

57.

What is the atomic packing factor of FCC structure?

a)

0.54

b)

0.68

c)

0.74

d)

0.96

58.

A van der Waals bond is a _________ bond.

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

59.

Which among the following is not a type of intermolecular bond?

a)

Dispersion

b)

Dipole

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Hydrogen

60.

Which of the following is a point defect in crystals?

a)

Edge dislocation

b)

Interstitialcies

c)

Grain boundaries

d)

Cracks

61.

The defect that occurs due to a displacement of an ion from regular crystal to interstitial site is known as __________

a)

Vacancy defect

b)

Schottky defect

c)

Frenkel defect

d)

Interstitial defect

62.

_______ occurs when a foreign substance replaces an atom in a crystal.

a)

Vacancy defect

b)

Substitutional impurity

c)

Frankel defect

d)

Interstitial impurity

63.

In screw dislocation, the Burger's vector lies _________ to the dislocation line.

a)

Perpendicular

b)

Parallel

c)

At an angle

d)

Sideways

64.

A disturbance in a region between two ideal parts of a crystal is known as ________

a)

Boundary defect

b)

Point defect

c)

Line defect

d)

Volume defect

65.

The axial relationship of a cubic crystal system is given as ___________

a)

a = b = c

b)

a = b ≠ c

c)

a ≠ b = c

d)

a ≠ b ≠ c

66.

A unit cell that contains lattice points only at the corners is known as _________

a)

Primitive unit cell

b)

Secondary unit cell

c)

Layered unit cell

d)

Derived unit cell

67.

The interaxial angles of a triclinic crystal system are given by __________

a)

α = β = ϒ = 90o

b)

α = β = 90o ϒ = 120o

c)

α = β = ϒ ≠ 90o

d)

α ≠ β ≠ ϒ ≠ 90o

68.

What is crystallography?

a)

Description of arrangement of atoms

b)

Description of the purity of crystals

c)

Description of the sign language

d)

Description of the crystals history

69.

Which of the following is a property of non-metallic crystals?

a)

Highly ductile

b)

Less brittle

c)

Low electrical conductivity

d)

FCC structure

70.

Which of the following is an application of thermodynamics?

a)

Refrigerators

b)

Gas compressors

c)

Power plants

d)

All of the mentioned

71.

Which of the following occurs without a change in the internal energy?

a)

Isochoric process

b)

Isenthalpic process

c)

Steady-state process

d)

Isenthalpic process

72.

Which of the following thermodynamic law gives the concept of enthalpy?

a)

First law of thermodynamics

b)

Second law of thermodynamics

c)

Third law of thermodynamics

d)

Fourth law of thermodynamics

73.

Which of the following is the standard fixed point of thermometry?

a)

The steam point

b)

The triple point of water

c)

The ice point

d)

All of the mentioned

74.

Heat flow into a system is ____, and heat flow out of the system is ________

a)

positive, positive

b)

negative, negative

c)

negative, positive

d)

positive, negative

75.

In which of the following systems does mass transfer occur across the system boundary?

a)

isolated system

b)

closed system

c)

open system

d)

none of the mentioned

76.

What is the relationship between Kelvin-Planck's and Clausius' statements?

a)

violation of one doesn't violate the other

b)

not connected to each other

c)

virtually two parallel statements of the second law

d)

none of the mentioned

77.

The entropy of an isolated system can never ____

a)

Decrease

b)

be zero

c)

increase

d)

none of the mentioned

78.

Thermodynamic properties are

a)

point function

b)

path function

c)

depends on the state

d)

none of the mentioned

79.

Cyclic integral of a property is always

a)

Zero

b)

One

c)

Infinite Value

d)

None of the above

80.

Constant pressure process is also known as

a)

isopiestic process

b)

isobaric process

c)

all of the mentioned

d)

None of the above

81.

For a process in which pV=C, work done is

a)

Zero

b)

p*(V2-V1)

c)

p1*V1*ln(V2/V1)

d)

none of the mentioned

82.

The area of the indicator diagram represents the magnitude of the

a)

net heat transfer by the system

b)

net work done on the system

c)

net work done by the system

d)

none of the mentioned

83.

What is the unit of Enthalpy

a)

Joule / kg

b)

Joule / kg . Kelvin

c)

Kg / Joule . Kelvin

d)

Kelvin / Joule . kg

84.

According to Gibbs phase rule, what is the minimum number of variables required to define the state of a one-component system in equilibrium?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

85.

What is the first law of thermodynamics also known as?

a)

Law of conservation of energy

b)

Law of Entropy

c)

Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics

d)

Boyle's law

86.

What is the equation for the ideal gas law?

a)

RV = nPT

b)

PV = mRT

c)

RT = mPV

d)

RP = nVT

87.

What does the term "adiabatic" mean in thermodynamics?

a)

Constant Volume

b)

No heat Transfer

c)

Constant Pressure

d)

Isobaric Process

88.

What is the entropy of a perfect crystal at absolute zero?

a)

Zero

b)

Infinte

c)

Negative

d)

Constant

89.

What is the formula for calculating work done in thermodynamics?

a)

W = F.d

b)

W = PV

c)

W = mg

d)

W = mRT

90.

The yield point is observed clearly in:

a)

Mild steel

b)

Cast iron

c)

Aluminium

d)

Glass

91.

The stress-strain curve of cast iron is almost:

a)

Linear

b)

Parabolic

c)

Horizontal

d)

Vertical

92.

The ultimate stress point indicates:

a)

Maximum stress a material can withstand

b)

Beginning of elastic behavior

c)

Proportional limit

d)

Breaking strength

93.

Necking in a tensile specimen starts at:

a)

Elastic limit

b)

Upper yield point

c)

Ultimate stress point

d)

Breaking point

94.

Factor of safety is defined as:

a)

Yield stress / Working stress

b)

Working stress / Yield stress

c)

Ultimate stress / Yield stress

d)

Breaking stress / Working stress

95.

If the ultimate stress of a material is 400 MPa and the factor of safety is 4, then permissible

stress is:

a)

100 MPa

b)

400 MPa

c)

1600 MPa

d)

40 MPa

96.

Higher factor of safety is generally used for:

a)

Brittle materials

b)

Ductile materials

c)

Rigid materials

d)

Superconductors

97.

Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of:

a)

Shear strain to shear stress

b)

Lateral strain to longitudinal strain

c)

Stress to strain

d)

Lateral strain to shear strain

98.

Which relation is correct between elastic constants?

a)

E = 2G(1 + m)

b)

E = 3K(1 - 2m)

c)

Both a & b

d)

None

99.

Thermal strain in a body is given by:

a)

ΔT · L

b)

α · ΔT

c)

α · ΔT · L

d)

Stress / E

100.

Thermal stress is developed only when:

a)

Body is free to expand

b)

Expansion is fully prevented

c)

Expansion is partially prevented

d)

Temperature change is zero

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