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CEREB MISS 3.0 - PRACTICE TEST

Total questions: 20

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 62-year-old male with a history of recurrent gouty arthritis and metabolic syndrome is found to have mixed hyperlipidemia. His physician plans to add a second agent to his statin therapy, primarily to raise his HDL-C. Which of the following agents is most likely to exacerbate his underlying joint condition?


a)

Niacin


b)

Fenofibrate

c)

Colesevelam

d)

Ezetimibe

2.

A 65-year-old female with heterozygous familial hypercholesterolemia develops severe myalgias and an elevated creatine kinase level after starting high-intensity atorvastatin. Her LDL-C remains significantly above goal. An alternative lipid-lowering agent that inhibits cholesterol synthesis upstream of HMG-CoA reductase is considered. Which agent fits this description and is associated with a significantly lower risk of myopathy?


a)

Bempedoic acid

b)

Ezetimibe

c)

Evolocumab

d)

Fenofibrate

3.

A 72-year-old male with persistent atrial fibrillation and hypertension is managed with long-term metoprolol succinate. During a follow-up, his ventricular rate is inadequately controlled. If intravenous verapamil is administered, which of the following represents the most immediate and life-threatening adverse event?


a)

Complete (third-degree) atrioventricular block

b)

Torsades de Pointes

c)

Severe peripheral vasodilation and reflex tachycardia

d)

Hypertensive emergency

4.

A patient with ventricular tachycardia secondary to myocardial ischemia is administered a Class Ib antiarrhythmic. Which of the following electrophysiological changes is the primary therapeutic mechanism responsible for its effect in ischemic tissue?

a)

Shortening of the action potential duration and QT interval.

b)

Prolongation of the action potential duration and effective refractory period.

c)

Marked depression of the phase 0 upstroke with minimal effect on repolarization.

d)

Significant increase in the slope of phase 4 spontaneous depolarization.

5.

A 72-year-old male with a history of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation and preserved left ventricular function is started on an antiarrhythmic medication for rhythm control. Several weeks later, he presents to the emergency department after a syncopal episode. His initial ECG reveals sinus rhythm at 65 bpm, a PR interval of 210 ms, a QRS duration of 135 ms (baseline was 95 ms), and a QTc of 515 ms (baseline was 430 ms). While on telemetry, he has a self-terminating episode of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia. Which of the following medications was most likely prescribed?


a)

Procainamide


b)

Lidocaine

c)

Flecainide

d)

Phenytoin

6.

A 72-year-old male with chronic heart failure (ejection fraction 30%) and persistent atrial fibrillation is initiated on a long-term oral anti-arrhythmic agent known for its efficacy in structural heart disease. Which baseline laboratory assessment is most crucial for monitoring a well-known non-cardiac toxicity of this specific drug?


a)

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4

b)

Serum creatinine and electrolytes

c)

Complete blood count with differential

d)

Liver function tests

7.

A 66-year-old male with a history of an anterior wall myocardial infarction presents to the emergency department with palpitations and lightheadedness. His blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and heart rate is 160/min. An ECG reveals monomorphic ventricular tachycardia. He is administered an intravenous bolus of an anti-arrhythmic agent. Twenty minutes later, a repeat ECG shows conversion to sinus rhythm at 75/min, but with a new QRS duration of 140 ms (baseline was 90 ms) and a QTc of 510 ms (baseline was 440 ms). Which agent, categorized by the Vaughan Williams classification, was most likely administered?

a)

A Class Ic agent

b)

A Class Ib agent

c)

A Class III agent

d)

A Class IV agent

8.

A 38-year-old female is newly diagnosed with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (WHO Group 1) via right heart catheterization. What is the most critical next step to guide the selection of her initial oral vasodilator therapy?

a)

Acute vasoreactivity testing with a short-acting vasodilator.

b)

Initiation of an oral phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor.

c)

Empirical trial of high-dose nifedipine for one month.

d)

Immediate referral for an atrial septostomy.

9.

 A 58-year-old male with a history of hypertension is on maximum tolerated doses of valsartan, amlodipine, and hydrochlorothiazide. His office blood pressure remains uncontrolled at 158/96 mmHg. Laboratory workup, including renal function and electrolytes, is unremarkable. Which medication is the most appropriate addition to his regimen?

a)

Spironolactone

b)

Labetalol

c)

Clonidine

d)

Lisinopri

10.

A 31-year-old primigravida at 32 weeks gestation presents to the obstetric emergency department with a severe throbbing headache and "flashing lights" for the past six hours. She has no significant past medical history. Her blood pressure is 184/112 mmHg, and heart rate is 98/min. Physical examination reveals 3+ pedal edema and hyperreflexia. Fetal heart tones are reassuring. Urinalysis shows 3+ proteinuria. Initial laboratory results show AST 95 U/L, ALT 88 U/L, and a platelet count of 90,000/µL. Which of the following intravenous medications is the most appropriate initial therapy?

a)

Labetalol

b)

Nicardipine

c)

Hydralazine

d)

Sodium Nitroprusside

11.

A 32-year-old pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation, with pregnancy-induced hypertension, presents with progressive fatigue and scleral icterus. Her laboratory results show a normocytic anemia, elevated indirect bilirubin, and a positive direct Coombs test. Which anti-hypertensive agent is the most likely cause of this presentation?

a)

Methyldopa

b)

Labetalol

c)

Nifedipine

d)

Hydralazine

12.

A 62-year-old male with long-standing hypertension and a history of gout, currently well-controlled on allopurinol, requires an additional agent for blood pressure control. His current regimen includes amlodipine. Which of the following antihypertensives would offer a secondary therapeutic benefit for his comorbid condition?

a)

Losartan

b)

Ramipril

c)

Telmisartan

d)

Hydrochlorothiazide

13.

A 58-year-old African American female with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, managed with lisinopril and metformin for the past two years, presents to the emergency department with acute, non-pitting swelling of her lips and tongue that developed over three hours. She denies any new foods, insect bites, or pruritus. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 155/92 mmHg, heart rate is 88/min, and respiratory rate is 18/min with an oxygen saturation of 97% on room air. Her airway is patent. Laboratory studies are significant for a serum potassium of 5.3 mEq/L and creatinine of 1.4 mg/dL. After stabilization and discontinuation of the offending agent, which of the following is the most appropriate long-term antihypertensive agent to initiate for this patient?

a)

Valsartan

b)

Enalapril

c)

Aliskiren

d)

Spironolactone

14.

A 55-year-old male with a 10-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents for a routine follow-up. His home blood pressure log averages 148/94 mmHg. A recent urine analysis is significant for microalbuminuria. Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line therapy for his hypertension?

a)

Lisinopril


b)

Amlodipine

c)

Hydrochlorothiazide

d)

Metoprolol

15.

A 62-year-old male with a history of hypertension presents with 2 hours of substernal chest pain. An ECG reveals ST-segment depressions in leads II, III, and aVF, and troponin I is elevated. He is diagnosed with NSTEMI. When asked about recent medication use, he mentions taking sildenafil for erectile dysfunction 12 hours ago. What is the most appropriate initial management?


a)

Aspirin, supplemental oxygen, morphine, and metoprolol

b)

Sublingual nitroglycerin, aspirin, morphine, and supplemental oxygen

c)

Unfractionated heparin infusion, clopidogrel, and supplemental oxygen

d)

Intravenous streptokinase infusion and aspirin

16.

A 62-year-old male being treated for stable angina with isosorbide mononitrate is prescribed sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. Concurrent administration of these two agents is contraindicated due to a high risk of profound hypotension. What is the primary pharmacodynamic mechanism for this severe adverse effect?

a)

Synergistic augmentation of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) levels

b)

Competitive inhibition of endothelial nitric oxide synthase

c)

Increased phosphodiesterase-5 activity leading to rapid cGMP degradation

d)

Alpha-1 adrenergic receptor antagonism in peripheral vasculature

17.

A 58-year-old male with chronic stable angina, who is already on a beta-blocker and a statin, is prescribed an additional anti-anginal agent. The new medication is known to exert its therapeutic effect by acting as both a nitric oxide donor and an opener of ATP-sensitive potassium channels in vascular smooth muscle. Which drug was prescribed?

a)

Nicorandil

b)

Isosorbide mononitrate

c)

Ranolazine

d)

Trimetazidine

18.

A 66-year-old male with a history of hypertension and coronary artery disease treated with percutaneous coronary intervention five years ago presents with persistent exertional angina. His current regimen includes aspirin, atorvastatin, and lisinopril. He is also on metoprolol succinate 200 mg daily, and any further increase is limited by fatigue. His resting heart rate is 72 bpm and blood pressure is 125/80 mmHg. He is in normal sinus rhythm. A decision is made to add another agent to control his anginal symptoms. Two months later, he reports significant improvement in his exercise tolerance but complains of transient episodes of "seeing bright halos around streetlights" when driving at night. Which of the following medications was most likely added to his regimen?


a)

Ivabradine

b)

Ranolazine

c)

Trimetazidine

d)

Diltiazem

19.

A 45-year-old female with a history of Raynaud's phenomenon presents with recurrent, substernal chest pain occurring predominantly in the early morning hours at rest. An ECG during an episode shows transient ST-segment elevation. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial long-term management?

a)

Calcium channel blockers

b)

High-dose beta-blockers

c)

Thrombolytic therapy

d)

Immediate Percutaneous Coronary Intervention (PCI)

20.

A 68-year-old African American male with a history of ischemic cardiomyopathy and heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF, LVEF 30%) remains persistently symptomatic with NYHA class III dyspnea. His current regimen includes maximally tolerated doses of lisinopril, carvedilol, and spironolactone. Which of the following adjunctive therapies has been shown to provide a significant mortality benefit in this specific patient population?

a)

Isosorbide dinitrate and hydralazine

b)

Digoxin

c)

Furosemide

d)

Amlodipine