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Biology/Anatomy Multiple Choice Questions

Total questions: 49

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The dermis is attached to the epidermis via multiple finger-like projections called what?

a)

Cilia

b)

Flagella

c)

Dermal papillae

d)

Microvilli

2.

The adrenals are stimulated to release aldosterone by several factors, including elevated levels of potassium and decreased levels of sodium, decreased blood volume, or:

a)

increased blood pH

b)

decreased blood pressure

c)

excess cortisol

d)

none of the above

3.

Cerebrospinal fluid circulates throughout the central nervous system via a series of passageways and chambers that include the arachnoid layer of the meninges as well as:

a)

Choroid plexus inside the cerebellum and the transverse canals of the cord

b)

Ventricles inside the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord

c)

White matter of the spinal cord and central canal of the cerebrum

d)

Ventricles, corpus callosum, and choroid plexus

4.

What is the function of mucus in the digestive tract?

a)

Facilitates elimination of solid waste and excretion of metabolic waste

b)

Protects the tract from erosion and facilitates swallowing food

c)

Helps trap invading organisms and humidify air

d)

Facilitates absorption of nutrients and removal of foreign substances

5.

What is the name of cranial nerve V?

a)

Trigeminal nerve

b)

Trochlear nerve

c)

Facial nerve

d)

none of the above

6.

Which of the following are the appropriate matches of the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone Pathway?

a)

Lungs: Angiotensin Converting Enzyme; Liver: Angiotensinogen; Kidney: Renin; Aldosterone: Adrenal Medulla

b)

Kidney: Renin; Liver: Angiotensinogen; Lungs: Angiotensin Converting Enzyme; Adrenal Cortex: Aldosterone

c)

Lungs: Angiotensinogen; Liver: Angiotensin Converting Enzyme; Kidney: Renin; Aldosterone: Adrenal cortex

d)

none of the above

7.

The olfactory and gustatory receptors are both examples of what type of receptor?

a)

Photoreceptor

b)

Chemoreceptors

c)

Mechanoreceptor

d)

Nociceptors

8.

What is the name for the connective tissue layer of epithelial membranes?

a)

stratified membrane

b)

aponeurosis

c)

subepithelium

d)

basement membrane

9.

What is the anatomical name for sweat glands?

a)

Sudoriferous

b)

Melanocytes

c)

Keratinocytes

d)

Sebaceous

10.

Which of these statements best describes the function of neurotransmitters?

a)

Form a chemical bridge to carry the impulse across the synapse.

b)

Increase the permeability of the neuron membrane

c)

Repolarize the neuron after the impulse is transmitted

d)

Actively transport the sodium outside of the neuron

11.

What is the pathophysiology behind trigger point development?

a)

False stretch reflex report from the muscle spindle

b)

Fibrotic build-up within the sarcomeres

c)

Calcium leak that causes actin and myosin bonding

d)

Nerve compression or tension

12.

What is the name of the specialized capillaries that supply the cells that produce cerebrospinal fluid?

a)

Arachnoid mater

b)

Pia mater

c)

Choroid plexus

d)

Corpus callosum

13.

What part of a neuron contains the vesicles that store and release the neurotransmitters?

a)

Nodes of Ranvier

b)

Synaptic end bulbs

c)

Axon

d)

Cell body

14.

What layer of skin is also considered to be the superficial fascia of the body?

a)

Papillary layer

b)

Granular layer of the epidermis

c)

Dermis

d)

Subcutaneous/hypodermis

15.

What is the importance of doing "closed chain" exercises when rehabilitating a musculoskeletal injury?

a)

Myofascial adhesions are less likely to develop within the muscle if the exercises place stress on all muscles of the chain.

b)

The closed chain means the cerebellum receives more sensory information to help re-establish efficient muscle recruitment.

c)

Both open and closed chain exercises are necessary to maintain equilibrium and coordination.

d)

The collagen remodeling process cannot be completed without closed chain exercises.

16.

What are some of the factors that appear to contribute to fibromyalgia?

a)

Peripheral neuritis that is a side effect of drug interactions

b)

HPA axis dysfunction, lack of stage IV sleep, central sensitization

c)

Sleep deprivation, untreated depression, obsessive-compulsive disorder

d)

ATP energy crisis, demyelination of local neurons, unique referred pain patterns

17.

Which horizontal fascial planes should be prioritized in a treatment plan to help relieve chronic neck pain associated with a forward head posture, rounded shoulders, and collapsed thorax?

a)

Cranial base and diaphragm

b)

Pelvic floor and cranial base

c)

Thoracic inlet and diaphragm

d)

Diaphragm and iliotibial band

18.

Saltatory nerve impulse conduction only occurs on what kind of neuron?

a)

motor neuron

b)

myelinated neuron

c)

unmyelinated neuron

d)

sensory neuron

19.

What body membrane is classified as a connective tissue membrane?

a)

Respiratory

b)

Mucous

c)

Synovial

d)

Serous

20.

A sarcomere of skeletal muscle is small unit of bundled:

a)

myofibrils

b)

myofilaments

c)

myofibers

d)

none of the above

21.

Which of the following are receptors for vision?

a)

rods and cones

b)

olfactory cells

c)

gustatory cells

d)

taste buds

22.

What is the most common form of anxiety disorder?

a)

Agoraphobia (a.k.a., Phobic disorder)

b)

Panic disorder (a.k.a., Panic attack disorder)

c)

General anxiety disorder (a.k.a., General anxiety disorder)

d)

Social phobia (a.k.a., Social anxiety disorder)

23.

Which cranial nerve is affected in the pathology of Bell's palsy?

a)

Trigeminal

b)

Accessory

c)

Facial

d)

Vagus

24.

Which muscle attachment is generally on the bone that moves during any motion?

a)

aponeurotic

b)

insertion

c)

tenoperiosteal

d)

origin

25.

What is another term for nerve impulse?

a)

Action potential

b)

Polarizing potential

c)

Electric impulse

d)

Hyperpolarization

26.

What is the function of the cutaneous membrane?

a)

Covers and protects the organs in the abdominal cavity

b)

Lines the cavities open to the external environment

c)

Provides the outer protective covering for the entire body

d)

Lines the dorsal cavities

27.

Which type of receptor is a specialized mechanoreceptor found in skeletal muscles and joints?

a)

Thermoreceptor

b)

Nociceptor

c)

Proprioceptor

d)

none of the above

28.

Fibromyalgia is identified by:

a)

Central sensitization; pain that begins in one area but spreads from there

b)

Sensitivity amplification, fatigue, mental fogginess

c)

Active and latent trigger points, referred pain, stiffness after rest

d)

Fatigue that is unrelieved by rest, occasional digestive upset, extreme allergies

29.

What portion of a muscle cell is the actual contractile unit?

a)

sarcomere

b)

sarcolemma

c)

sarcoplasmic reticulum

d)

none of the above

30.

The gluteal, sciatic, and posterior femoral nerves are all major branches of which plexus?

a)

Brachial plexus

b)

Sacral plexus

c)

Cervical plexus

d)

Lumbar plexus

31.

Although most skeletal muscle generally has a 50:50 mix of fiber types, postural muscles tend to have a higher ratio of which type of fiber?

a)

Fast twitch

b)

Type I

c)

White

d)

Type II

32.

Once stimulus is removed, which of these is the last step in the sliding filament mechanism?

a)

Calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcomere.

b)

Myosin heads form cross-bridges with the exposed bonding sites on actin.

c)

ATP is used to detach the myosin heads so they can flip forward to the next actin bonding site.

d)

ATP is used to pump calcium back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

33.

Which layer of skin contains the blood vessels and sensory receptors?

a)

Epidermis

b)

Dermis

c)

Hypodermis

d)

none of the above

34.

The neuromuscular reflex that inhibits the antagonist of a contracting muscle is called:

a)

Contract-relax

b)

reciprocal inhibition

c)

all or none

d)

none of the above

35.

The mineralocorticoid hormones are secreted by what endocrine gland?

a)

adrenal gland

b)

kidney

c)

posterior pituitary

d)

hypothalamus

36.

In the body's tensegrity system, which components serve as the compression spacers?

a)

muscle and tendons

b)

cartilage and joint capsules

c)

bones

d)

abdominal organs

37.

What is meant by the term fascial plasticity?

a)

It refers to the stiff plastic feeling of fascial planes when in their sol state.

b)

It refers to the rich network of nerves that create piezoelectricity in fascia.

c)

That all fascia have a limited capacity to stretch and rebound

d)

It denotes the changeable, responsive, and adaptive nature of fascia.

38.

What fascial layer surrounds each skeletal muscle fiber?

a)

epimysium

b)

perimysium

c)

deep fascia

d)

endomysium

39.

What are the therapeutic implications of fascial plasticity and the direct link between myofascial receptors and the autonomic nervous system?

a)

Myofascial techniques are the most important form of manual therapy for relief of chronic pain.

b)

The best therapeutic intervention for chronic pain patients is eliminating myofascial trigger points.

c)

All forms of manual therapy are likely to stimulate an emotional release in addition to reduced pain.

d)

All forms of manual therapy should be considered as primary modalities for relief of chronic pain.

40.

What does the ACTH abbreviation stand for?

a)

acetylcholinesterase tropic hormone

b)

adenocalcitriole transfer hormone

c)

adrenocorticotropic hormone

d)

accelerating cortical thymosin hormone

41.

The constant production of keratinocytes occurs in the deepest layer of the epidermis, or the stratum

a)

granulosum

b)

spinosum

c)

corneum

d)

germinativum

42.

What is the best description of diabetes mellitus?

a)

A) A group of conditions that lead to hypoglycemia

b)

B) The result of damage to beta cells in the pancreas

c)

C) A group of conditions that lead to hyperglycemia

d)

D) The result of insulin resistance in muscle cells

43.

The epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium of skeletal muscle collectively form which of the four fascial tubes in the body?

a)

Pannicular

b)

Axial

c)

Visceral

d)

Meningeal

44.

Manual therapy methods that use some type of repositioning designed to reverse gamma gain include positional release, strain counter-strain, and:

a)

Functional technique

b)

Trager method

c)

Alexander technique

d)

Rolfing

45.

Which of these is the best definition of a kinetic chain?

a)

A) A group of associated muscles that are engaged in a specific sequence to create a complex and coordinated movement

b)

B) The neurofascial imprints on the cerebrum that develop with repetition of movements

c)

C) The myofascial connections that communicate tension between muscles in a body region

d)

D) A series of muscles in the same extremity that are anatomically connected

46.

The endocrine glands located in the head are the:

a)

pineal, thyroid, and parathyroid

b)

hypothalamus, pituitary, and pineal

c)

thymus, pineal, and thyroid

d)

pituitary, thymus, hypothalamus, and adenoids

47.

The process of coordinating and rotating the work between different motor units in the postural muscles is called what?

a)

Motor tone

b)

Motor unit recruitment

c)

Graded response

d)

Muscle recruitment

48.

Which type of accessory gland plays the larger role in regulation of temperature, pH, and fluid balance?

a)

eccrine

b)

apocrine

c)

sebaceous

d)

none of the above

49.

What is the term for the small gap between Schwann cells in the myelin sheath of axons?

a)

Neurilemma

b)

Synaptic cleft

c)

Nodes of Ranvier

d)

Sarcolemma