WorksheetsPRCC-AUBF_1MT-P3
Total questions: 159
Worksheet time: 1hrs 20mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What is the normal urine odor?
a)
Aromatic
b)
Ammoniacal
c)
Pungent, fetid
d)
Sweet, fruity
e)
Distinctive
2.
An old urine or improperly stored urine, would have which of the following odor?
a)
Aromatic
b)
Ammoniacal
c)
Pungent, fetid
d)
Sweet, fruity
e)
Distinctive
3.
What is the odor of the urine of patients with urinary tract infection?
a)
Aromatic
b)
Ammoniacal
c)
Pungent, fetid
d)
Sweet, fruity
e)
Distinctive
4.
Ketone production due to diabetes mellitus, starvation, dieting, malnutrition, strenuous exercise, vomiting, diarrhea leads to which of the following urinary odor?
a)
Aromatic
b)
Ammoniacal
c)
Pungent, fetid
d)
Sweet, fruity
e)
Distinctive
5.
What is the odor of the urine of patients with diabetes mellitus?
a)
Aromatic
b)
Ammoniacal
c)
Pungent, fetid
d)
Sweet, fruity
e)
Distinctive
6.
What is the odor of the urine of patients with malnutrition?
a)
Aromatic
b)
Ammoniacal
c)
Pungent, fetid
d)
Sweet, fruity
e)
Distinctive
7.
What is the odor of the urine of patients who had strenuous exercise?
a)
Aromatic
b)
Ammoniacal
c)
Pungent, fetid
d)
Sweet, fruity
e)
Distinctive
8.
What is the odor of the urine of patients with diarrhea?
a)
Aromatic
b)
Ammoniacal
c)
Pungent, fetid
d)
Sweet, fruity
e)
Distinctive
9.
What is the odor of the urine of patients that are vomiting?
a)
Aromatic
b)
Ammoniacal
c)
Pungent, fetid
d)
Sweet, fruity
e)
Distinctive
10.
What is the odor of the urine of patients with certain diet?
a)
Aromatic
b)
Ammoniacal
c)
Pungent, fetid
d)
Sweet, fruity
e)
Distinctive
11.
Ingested substances: asparagus, garlic, onions
a)
Aromatic
b)
Ammoniacal
c)
Pungent, fetid
d)
Sweet, fruity
e)
Distinctive
12.
What is the odor of the urine of patients with Maple syrup urine disease?
a)
Maple syrup
b)
Rancid
c)
Rotting/old fish
d)
Cabbage, hops
e)
Menthol-like
13.
What is the odor of the urine of patients with Tyrosinemia?
a)
Maple syrup
b)
Rancid
c)
Rotting/old fish
d)
Cabbage, hops
e)
Menthol-like
14.
What is the odor of the urine of patients with Trimethylaminuria?
a)
Maple syrup
b)
Rancid
c)
Rotting/old fish
d)
Cabbage, hops
e)
Menthol-like
15.
What is the odor of the urine of patients with Methionine malabsorption?
a)
Maple syrup
b)
Rancid
c)
Rotting/old fish
d)
Cabbage, hops
e)
Menthol-like
16.
What is the odor of the urine of patients who takes Phenol medications?
a)
Maple syrup
b)
Rancid
c)
Rotting/old fish
d)
Cabbage, hops
e)
Menthol-like
17.
What is the odor of the urine of patients with Isovaleric acedemias?
a)
Sweaty feet
b)
Mousy, bamy
c)
Bleach
d)
Odorless
e)
Swimming pool like
18.
What is the odor of the urine of patients with Phenylketonuria?
a)
Sweaty feet
b)
Mousy, bamy
c)
Bleach
d)
Odorless
e)
Swimming pool like
19.
Adulteration of the specimen would lead to what urine odor?
a)
Sweaty feet
b)
Mousy, bamy
c)
Bleach
d)
Odorless
e)
Swimming pool like
20.
Specimen contamination would lead to which odor?
a)
Sweaty feet
b)
Mousy, bamy
c)
Bleach
d)
Odorless
e)
Swimming pool like
21.
Specimen contamination, and Adulteration of the specimen would lead to which urine odor?
a)
Sweaty feet
b)
Mousy, bamy
c)
Bleach
d)
Odorless
e)
Swimming pool like
22.
What is the odor of the urine of patients with Hawkinsinuria?
a)
Sweaty feet
b)
Mousy, bamy
c)
Bleach
d)
Odorless
e)
Swimming pool like
23.
What is the odor of the urine of patients with Acute tubular necrosis?
a)
Sweaty feet
b)
Mousy, bamy
c)
Bleach
d)
Odorless
e)
Swimming pool like
24.
Reagent strips must be stored at...
a)
Freezing temperature -8 degree C
b)
Room temperature <30 degree C
c)
Refrigerated temperature 2 to 8 degree C
d)
Body temperature 37 degree C
25.
Reagent strips should never be stored at...
a)
Freezing temperature -8 degree C
b)
Room temperature <30 degree C
c)
Refrigerated temperature 2 to 8 degree C
d)
Body temperature 37 degree C
26.
A visual inspection of the strip should be done each time a strip is used to detect deterioration, even though the strips may still be within the expiration date.
a)
True
b)
False
27.
uses a spectrophotometric measurement of light reflection
a)
Automated reagent strip readers
b)
Reflectance photometry
28.
spectrophotometric measurement of light reflection is called
a)
Automated reagent strip readers
b)
Reflectance photometry
29.
principle: light reflection from test pads decreases in proportion to intensity of color produced by the concentration of the test substance
a)
Automated reagent strip readers
b)
Reflectance photometry
30.
determination is the most indicative of renal disease; presence of proteinuria is associated with early renal part of any physical examination
a)
Protein disease
b)
Albumin
c)
Other proteins
31.
major serum protein found in urine
a)
Protein disease
b)
Albumin
c)
Tamm Horsfall protein
d)
Tobular microglobulins
e)
Proteins from prostatic, seminal, and vaginal secretions
32.
other proteins
a)
Protein disease
b)
Albumin
c)
Tamm Horsfall protein
d)
Tobular microglobulins
e)
Proteins from prostatic, seminal, and vaginal secretions
33.
What is the normal protein level?
a)
<10 mg/dL or 100 mg/24 hr
b)
>=30 mg/dL or 300 mg/L
34.
What is the protein concentration in urine of patients who have clinical proteinuria?
a)
<10 mg/dL or 100 mg/24 hr
b)
>=30 mg/dL or 300 mg/L
c)
Option 3
35.
<10 mg/dL or 100 mg/24 hr of protein
a)
normal
b)
clinical proteinuria
c)
overflow proteinuria or pre-renal proteinuria
36.
>=30 mg/dL or 300 mg/L
a)
normal
b)
clinical proteinuria
c)
overflow proteinuria or pre-renal proteinuria
37.
the increased filtration of these proteins exceeds the normal reabsorptive capacity of the renal
a)
normal
b)
clinical proteinuria
c)
overflow proteinuria or pre-renal proteinuria
38.
Acute phase reactants
a)
Intravascular hemolysis
b)
Multiple myeloma
c)
Bence jones protein
39.
turbid at 40 to 60 degree Celsius, clear at 100 degree celsius
a)
Intravascular hemolysis
b)
Multiple myeloma
c)
Bence jones protein
40.
coagulates at 40 to 60 C and dissolves at 100 C
a)
Intravascular hemolysis
b)
Multiple myeloma
c)
Bence jones protein
41.
turbid at 40 to 60 C
a)
Multiple myeloma
b)
Bence jones protein
42.
clear at 100C
a)
Multiple myeloma
b)
Bence jones protein
43.
coagulates at 40 to 60 C
a)
Multiple myeloma
b)
Bence jones protein
44.
dissolves at 100 C
a)
Multiple myeloma
b)
Bence jones protein
45.
MM 40 to 60 C
a)
clear
b)
turbid
46.
MM 100 C
a)
clear
b)
turbid
47.
Immune complex disorders
a)
Renal proteinuria: GLOMERULAR
b)
Renal proteinuria: TUBULAR
c)
Post renal proteinuria
48.
Dehydration
a)
Renal proteinuria: GLOMERULAR
b)
Renal proteinuria: TUBULAR
c)
Post renal proteinuria
49.
Amyloidosis
a)
Renal proteinuria: GLOMERULAR
b)
Renal proteinuria: TUBULAR
c)
Post renal proteinuria
50.
Hypertension
a)
Renal proteinuria: GLOMERULAR
b)
Renal proteinuria: TUBULAR
c)
Post renal proteinuria
51.
Pre-eclampsia
a)
Renal proteinuria: GLOMERULAR
b)
Renal proteinuria: TUBULAR
c)
Post renal proteinuria
52.
Orthostatic proteinuria
a)
Renal proteinuria: GLOMERULAR
b)
Renal proteinuria: TUBULAR
c)
Post renal proteinuria
53.
Postural albuminuria
a)
Renal proteinuria: GLOMERULAR
b)
Renal proteinuria: TUBULAR
c)
Post renal proteinuria
54.
Strenuous exercise
a)
Renal proteinuria: GLOMERULAR
b)
Renal proteinuria: TUBULAR
c)
Post renal proteinuria
55.
Diabetic nephropathy
a)
Renal proteinuria: GLOMERULAR
b)
Renal proteinuria: TUBULAR
c)
Post renal proteinuria
56.
Fanconi syndrome
a)
Renal proteinuria: GLOMERULAR
b)
Renal proteinuria: TUBULAR
c)
Post renal proteinuria
57.
Severe viral infections
a)
Renal proteinuria: GLOMERULAR
b)
Renal proteinuria: TUBULAR
c)
Post renal proteinuria
58.
Heavy metals
a)
Renal proteinuria: GLOMERULAR
b)
Renal proteinuria: TUBULAR
c)
Post renal proteinuria
59.
Lower urinary tract infections
a)
Renal proteinuria: GLOMERULAR
b)
Renal proteinuria: TUBULAR
c)
Post renal proteinuria
60.
Lower urinary tract inflammation
a)
Renal proteinuria: GLOMERULAR
b)
Renal proteinuria: TUBULAR
c)
Post renal proteinuria
61.
Injury/trauma
a)
Renal proteinuria: GLOMERULAR
b)
Renal proteinuria: TUBULAR
c)
Post renal proteinuria
62.
Menstrual contamination
a)
Renal proteinuria: GLOMERULAR
b)
Renal proteinuria: TUBULAR
c)
Post renal proteinuria
63.
Prostatic fluid or spermatozoa
a)
Renal proteinuria: GLOMERULAR
b)
Renal proteinuria: TUBULAR
c)
Post renal proteinuria
64.
Vaginal secretions
a)
Renal proteinuria: GLOMERULAR
b)
Renal proteinuria: TUBULAR
c)
Post renal proteinuria
65.
Toxic agents
a)
Renal proteinuria: GLOMERULAR
b)
Renal proteinuria: TUBULAR
c)
Post renal proteinuria
66.
Principle: Protein error of indicators (Sorensen's) to produce a visible colorimetric reaction; protein (PRIMARILY ALBUMIN) accepts hydrogen ions from the indicator
a)
Urine reagent strip
b)
Protein reagent strip
c)
Stool reagent strip
67.
multistix
a)
Protein 15 to 30 mg/L
b)
Protein 6.0 mg/dL
68.
chemstrip
a)
Protein 15 to 30 mg/L
b)
Protein 6.0 mg/dL
69.
tetrabromphenol blue
a)
Multistix
b)
Chemstrip
70.
3'3'',5'5'' tetrachlorophenol 3,4,5,6- tetrabromosulfophthalein
a)
Multistix
b)
Chemstrip
71.
yellow (negative through shades of green to blue)
a)
Multistix
b)
Chemstrip
72.
highly buffered alkaline urine would lead to which protein reagent strip result?
a)
False positive reagent strip
b)
False negative reagent strip
73.
Pigmented specimens, phenazopyridine Quaternary ammonium compounds (detergents0 Antiseptics, chlorhexidine would lead to which protein reagent strip result?
a)
False positive reagent strip
b)
False negative reagent strip
74.
Loss of buffer from prolonged exposure of the reagent strip to the specimen would lead to which protein reagent stirp result?
a)
False positive reagent strip
b)
False negative reagent strip
75.
High specific gravity would lead to which protein reagent strip result?
a)
False positive reagent strip
b)
False negative reagent strip
76.
Proteins OTHER THAN ALBUMIN would lead to which protein reagent strip result?
a)
False positive reagent strip
b)
False negative reagent strip
77.
Microalbuminuria
a)
False positive reagent strip
b)
False negative reagent strip
78.
As per the reagent strip for protein reporting, a 30 mg/dL protein is graded as?
a)
Trace protein
b)
1+ protein
c)
2+ protein
d)
3+ protein
e)
4+ protein
79.
As per the reagent strip for protein reporting, a 100 mg/dL protein is graded as?
a)
Trace protein
b)
1+ protein
c)
2+ protein
d)
3+ protein
e)
4+ protein
80.
As per the reagent strip for protein reporting, a 300 mg/dL protein is graded as?
a)
Trace protein
b)
1+ protein
c)
2+ protein
d)
3+ protein
e)
4+ protein
81.
As per the reagent strip for protein reporting, a 2000 mg/dL protein is graded as?
a)
Trace protein
b)
1+ protein
c)
2+ protein
d)
3+ protein
e)
4+ protein
82.
As per the reagent strip for protein reporting, a <30 mg/dL protein is graded as?
a)
Trace protein
b)
1+ protein
c)
2+ protein
d)
3+ protein
e)
4+ protein
83.
As per the reagent strip for protein reporting, a trace reporting is done when how much protein is measured from the specimen?
a)
<30 mg/dL
b)
30 mg/dL
c)
100 mg/dL
d)
300 mg/dL
e)
2000 mg/dL
84.
As per the reagent strip for protein reporting, a 1+ reporting is done when how much protein is measured from the specimen?
a)
<30 mg/dL
b)
30 mg/dL
c)
100 mg/dL
d)
300 mg/dL
e)
2000 mg/dL
85.
As per the reagent strip for protein reporting, a 2+ reporting is done when how much protein is measured from the specimen?
a)
<30 mg/dL
b)
30 mg/dL
c)
100 mg/dL
d)
300 mg/dL
e)
2000 mg/dL
86.
As per the reagent strip for protein reporting, a 3+ reporting is done when how much protein is measured from the specimen?
a)
<30 mg/dL
b)
30 mg/dL
c)
100 mg/dL
d)
300 mg/dL
e)
2000 mg/dL
87.
As per the reagent strip for protein reporting, a 4+ reporting is done when how much protein is measured from the specimen?
a)
<30 mg/dL
b)
30 mg/dL
c)
100 mg/dL
d)
300 mg/dL
e)
2000 mg/dL
88.
Which of the following is a confirmatory test to detect proteins in urine?
a)
Sulfosalicyclic acid precipitation test
b)
Cold precipitation test
89.
Which of the following is a test that reacts equally with all forms of protein?
a)
Sulfosalicyclic acid precipitation test
b)
Cold precipitation test
90.
Fill in the blanks:
Add _ of 3% SSA reagent to __ of centrifuged urine.
Mix by inversion and observe for cloudiness
Grade the degree of turbidity
a)
1 mL
b)
2 mL
c)
3 mL
d)
4 mL
91.
If the result upon performing sulfosalicylic acid precipitation test shows no increase in turbidity, what will be the grading?
a)
Negative
b)
Trace
c)
1+
d)
2+
e)
3+
92.
If the result upon performing sulfosalicylic acid precipitation test shows a visible circle in the bottom of the test tube when viewed from the top, what will be the grading?
a)
Negative
b)
Trace
c)
1+
d)
2+
e)
3+
93.
If the result upon performing sulfosalicylic acid precipitation test shows noticeable turbidity or perceptible turbidity, what will be the grading?
a)
Negative
b)
Trace
c)
1+
d)
2+
e)
3+
94.
If the result upon performing sulfosalicylic acid precipitation test doesn't show a visible circle in the test tube bottom when viewed from the top, what will be the grading?
a)
Negative
b)
Trace
c)
1+
d)
2+
e)
3+
95.
If the result upon performing sulfosalicylic acid precipitation test allows you to still read newsprint through the mixture, what will be the grading?
a)
Negative
b)
Trace
c)
1+
d)
2+
e)
3+
96.
If the result upon performing sulfosalicylic acid precipitation test shows DISTINCT TURBIDITY WITH NO GRANULATION, what will be the grading?
a)
Negative
b)
Trace
c)
1+
d)
2+
e)
3+
97.
If the result upon performing sulfosalicylic acid precipitation test shows that you can no longer read newsprint through the mixture, what will be the grading?
a)
Negative
b)
Trace
c)
1+
d)
2+
e)
3+
98.
If the result upon performing sulfosalicylic acid precipitation test shows TURBIDITY WITH GRANULATION WITH NO FLOCCULATION, what will be the grading?
a)
Negative
b)
Trace
c)
1+
d)
2+
e)
3+
99.
If the result upon performing sulfosalicylic acid precipitation test shows TURBIDITY WITH GRANULATION AND FLOCCULATION, what will be the grading?
a)
Negative
b)
Trace
c)
1+
d)
2+
e)
3+
100.
If the result upon performing sulfosalicylic acid precipitation test shows CLUMPS OF PROTEIN, what will be the grading?
a)
Trace
b)
1+
c)
2+
d)
3+
e)
4+
101.
What is the grading in SSA if the results is: Protein mg/dL: <6
a)
Negative
b)
Trace
c)
1+
d)
2+
e)
3+
102.
What is the grading in SSA if the results is Protein mg/dL: 6 to 30
a)
Negative
b)
Trace
c)
1+
d)
2+
e)
3+
103.
What is the grading in SSA if the results is: Protein mg/dL: 30 to 100
a)
Negative
b)
Trace
c)
1+
d)
2+
e)
3+
104.
What is the grading in SSA if the results is Protein mg/dL: 100 to 200
a)
Negative
b)
Trace
c)
1+
d)
2+
e)
3+
105.
What is the grading in SSA if the results is Protein mg/dL: 200 to 400
a)
Trace
b)
1+
c)
2+
d)
3+
e)
4+
106.
What is the grading in SSA if the results is Protein mg/dL: >400
a)
Trace
b)
1+
c)
2+
d)
3+
e)
4+
107.
What is the possible false result if the specimen is Highly alkaline or buffered urine WITH NO albumin present?
a)
False positive reagent strip test
b)
False negative reagent strip test
c)
False positive SSA test
d)
False negative SSA test
108.
What is the possible false result if the specimen is Highly alkaline or buffered urine WITH albumin present?
a)
False positive reagent strip test
b)
False negative reagent strip test
c)
False positive SSA test
d)
False negative SSA test
109.
In SSA, a highly alkaline or buffered urine WITH NO albumin present would lead to which of the following result?
a)
Positive
b)
Negative
110.
A presence of protein other than albumin would yield what reagent strip test result?
a)
Positive reagent strip test
b)
Negative reagent strip test
111.
A presence of radiographic contrast media would yield what reagent strip test result?
a)
Positive reagent strip test
b)
Negative reagent strip test
112.
A presence of drugs and/or other metabolites would yield what reagent strip test result?
a)
Positive reagent strip test
b)
Negative reagent strip test
113.
In SSA, a presence of radiographic contrast media would yield what SSA strip test result?
a)
Positive SSA test
b)
Negative SSA test
114.
In SSA, a presence of drugs and/or other metabolites would yield what SSA strip test result?
a)
Positive SSA test
b)
Negative SSA test
115.
Microalbumin is considered significant when __ of albumin is excreted in 24 hrs
a)
30 to 300 mg
b)
20 to 200 mg
c)
50 to 100 mg
116.
Microalbumin is considered significant when albumin excretion rate (AER) is
a)
30 to 300 mg in 24 hours
b)
20 to 200 ug/min
117.
Results reported in mg of albumin/24 hrs or as the albumin excretion rate in ug/min
a)
True
b)
False
118.
Principle: enzyme immunoassay
Reagents: gold labeled antibody b galactosidase, chlorophenol, red galactoside
interference: false negative, dilute urine
a)
Micral test
b)
Albumin test
c)
Creatinine test
119.
Sensitivity of micral test
a)
0 to 10 mg/dL
b)
10 to 20 mg/dL
c)
20 to 25 mg/dL
d)
30 to 35 mg/dL
e)
30 to 300 mg/g
120.
abnormal results for the A:C ratio
a)
0 to 10 mg/dL
b)
10 to 20 mg/dL
c)
20 to 25 mg/dL
d)
30 to 35 mg/dL
e)
30 to 300 mg/g
121.
provide simultaneous measurement of albumin or protein and creatinine that permits an estimation of the 24 hr microalbumin excretion; by comparing the albumin excretion to the creatinine excretion, the albumin reading can be corrected for overhydration and dehydration in a random sample
a)
Albumin creatinine ratio
b)
Creatinine albumin ratio
122.
utilize the dye bis (3'3''', diodo 4',4'' dihydroxy 5'5'-dinitro phenyl) 3,4,5,6-tetra-bromosulphonphthalein (DIDNTB), which has higher sensitivity and specificity
a)
Albumin reagent strips
b)
Creatinine
123.
based on the pseudoperoxidase activity of copper-________ complexes. The reaction follows the same principle as the reaction for blood on the reagent strips. Reagent strips contain copper sulfate (CuSO4, 3,3,5,5'-tetramethylbenzidine (TMB) and diisopropyl benzene dihydroperoxide (DBDH)
a)
Albumin reagent strips
b)
Creatinine
124.
Falsely elevated results can be caused by:
1. visible bloody urine
2. abnormally colored urines
In which of the following tests?
Results are reported as 10 to 150 mg/L (1 to 15 mg/dL)
a)
Albumin
b)
Creatinine
125.
Falsely elevated results can be caused by:
1. visible bloody urine
2. presence of gastric acid-reducing drug cimetidine
3. abnormally color urines may also interfere with the readings
In which of the following tests?
a)
Albumin
b)
Creatinine
126.
Most frequently performed chemical analyses of urine
a)
Glucose
b)
Albumin
c)
Creatinine
127.
renal threshold
a)
120 to 160 mg/dL
b)
160 to 180 mg/dL
c)
200 to 250 mg/dL
128.
As per the clinical significance of urine glucose, diabetes mellitus falls under which of the following criteria?
a)
Hyperglycemia-associated
b)
Renal-associated
129.
As per the clinical significance of urine glucose, Pancreatitis falls under which of the following criteria?
a)
Hyperglycemia-associated
b)
Renal-associated
130.
As per the clinical significance of urine glucose, Pancreatic cancer falls under which of the following criteria?
a)
Hyperglycemia-associated
b)
Renal-associated
131.
As per the clinical significance of urine glucose, Acromegaly falls under which of the following criteria?
a)
Hyperglycemia-associated
b)
Renal-associated
132.
As per the clinical significance of urine glucose, Cushing syndrome falls under which of the following criteria?
a)
Hyperglycemia-associated
b)
Renal-associated
133.
As per the clinical significance of urine glucose, Hyperthyroidism falls under which of the following criteria?
a)
Hyperglycemia-associated
b)
Renal-associated
134.
As per the clinical significance of urine glucose, Phechromocytoma falls under which of the following criteria?
a)
Hyperglycemia-associated
b)
Renal-associated
135.
As per the clinical significance of urine glucose, CNS damage falls under which of the following criteria?
a)
Hyperglycemia-associated
b)
Renal-associated
136.
As per the clinical significance of urine glucose, Stress falls under which of the following criteria?
a)
Hyperglycemia-associated
b)
Renal-associated
137.
As per the clinical significance of urine glucose, Gestational diabetes falls under which of the following criteria?
a)
Hyperglycemia-associated
b)
Renal-associated
138.
As per the clinical significance of urine glucose, Fanconi syndrome falls under which of the following criteria?
a)
Hyperglycemia-associated
b)
Renal-associated
139.
As per the clinical significance of urine glucose, Advanced renal disease falls under which of the following criteria?
a)
Hyperglycemia-associated
b)
Renal-associated
140.
As per the clinical significance of urine glucose, Osteomalacia falls under which of the following criteria?
a)
Hyperglycemia-associated
b)
Renal-associated
141.
As per the clinical significance of urine glucose, Pregnancy falls under which of the following criteria?
a)
Hyperglycemia-associated
b)
Renal-associated
142.
Principle: double sequential enzymatic reaction: glucose oxidase and peroxidase
a)
Creatinine reagent strip
b)
Glucose reagent strip
c)
Albumin reagent strip
d)
Nitrite reagent strip
143.
Glucose oxidase catalyzes a reaction between glucose and room air to produce gluconic acid and peroxide
a)
1st step in glucose reagent strip
b)
2nd step in glucose reagent strip
144.
Peroxidase catalyzes the reaction between peroxide and chromogen to form an oxidized colored compound that represents the presence of glucose
a)
1st step in glucose reagent strip
b)
2nd step in glucose reagent strip
145.
Glucose multistix reference range
a)
75 to 125 mg/dL
b)
40 mg/dL
146.
Glucose chemstrip reference range
a)
75 to 125 mg/dL
b)
40 mg/dL
147.
glucose oxidase peroxidase potassium iodide
a)
Green to brown
b)
Yellow to green
148.
glucose oxidase peroxidase potassium iodide
a)
Multistix
b)
Chemstrip
149.
glucose oxidase peroxidase tetramethylbenzidine
a)
Multistix
b)
Chemstrip
150.
glucose oxidase peroxidase tetramethylbenzidine
a)
Green to brown
b)
Yellow to green
151.
contamination by oxidizing agents and detergents
a)
False positive glucose
b)
False negative glucose
152.
High levels of ascorbic acid
a)
False positive glucose
b)
False negative glucose
153.
High levels of ketones
a)
False positive glucose
b)
False negative glucose
154.
High specific gravity
a)
False positive glucose
b)
False negative glucose
155.
Low temperatures
a)
False positive glucose
b)
False negative glucose
156.
Improperly preserved specimens
a)
False positive glucose
b)
False negative glucose
157.
relies on the ability of glucose and other substances to reduce copper sulfate to cuprous oxide in the presence of alkali and heat.
a)
Benedict's test
b)
Exton's test
c)
Micral test
158.
A color change progressing from a negative blue (CuSO4) through green, yellow, and orange/red (Cu2O) occurs when reaction takes place
a)
Benedict's test
b)
Exton's test
c)
Micral test
159.
The tablet contain COPPER SULFATE, SODIUM CARBONATE, SODIUM CITRATE, and SODIUM HYDROXIDE
a. Place a glass test tube in a rack, add 5 drops of urine
b. Add 10 drops of distilled water to the urine in the test tube
c. Drop one Clinitest tablet into the test tube and observe the reaction until completion (cessation of boiling)
a)
Benedict's test
b)
Exton's test
c)
Micral test
100 %
