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Worksheets

Nursing Assessments and Interventions

Total questions: 87

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with the parents of an infant who is postoperative following a cleft lip repair. Which of the following parental actions indicate understanding of the teaching?

a)

Preventing the infant from crying or sucking

b)

Positioning the infant on the abdomen for sleep

c)

Gently cleansing the suture line to prevent infection

d)

Applying elbow restraints to prevent the infant from touching the lip

e)

Feeding the infant with a dropper for 1–2 weeks

2.

A nurse is explaining the purpose of the Apgar scoring system to a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following statements should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)

a)

“The score evaluates five objective signs, including heart rate and muscle tone.”

b)

“It predicts the child’s future neurologic outcomes.”

c)

“It is performed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth.”

d)

“It helps determine whether the newborn had difficulties during the birthing process.”

e)

“The scoring system assesses gestational age.”

3.

A nurse is assessing a client for a positive Homan’s sign. Which of the following findings indicates a positive result?

a)

Numbness in the toes when the leg is elevated

b)

Calf pain when the foot is dorsiflexed

c)

Redness along the thigh when palpated

d)

Tingling in the foot with plantar flexion

4.

A client presents with a positive Homan’s sign. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse anticipate to confirm the presence of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

a)

MRI

b)

Chest X-ray

c)

Ultrasound with or without Doppler assistance

d)

CT scan of the abdomen

5.

A nurse is reviewing medications used for cervical ripening with a group of students. Which of the following should the nurse include?

a)

Oxytocin (Pitocin) and Terbutaline

b)

Dinoprostone (Cervidil or Prepidil) and Misoprostol (Cytotec)

c)

Magnesium sulfate and Nifedipine

d)

Methylergonovine and Carboprost

6.

A nurse is preparing to administer misoprostol for cervical ripening. Which of the following client conditions is a contraindication for this medication?

a)

History of hypertension

b)

History of uterine myomectomy surgery

c)

History of gestational diabetes

d)

History of hyperemesis gravidarum

7.

A newborn has been diagnosed with jaundice. Which of the following interventions should the nurse anticipate?

a)

Administration of methylergonovine

b)

Phototherapy and frequent bilirubin level monitoring

c)

Administration of magnesium sulfate

d)

IV infusion of oxytocin

8.

A nurse is caring for a client immediately after an amniotomy. Which of the following is the priority assessment?

a)

Maternal blood pressure

b)

Maternal temperature

c)

Fetal heart rate

d)

Uterine contraction frequency

9.

The nurse is assessing the amniotic fluid after an amniotomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as abnormal?

a)

Clear fluid

b)

Cloudy, yellow fluid

c)

Pink-tinged fluid

d)

Green-stained fluid

10.

A nurse is administering terbutaline to a client. Which of the following side effects should the nurse warn the patient about?

a)

Hypotension and bradycardia

b)

Increased pulse rate, increased blood pressure, and hyperglycemia

c)

Excessive sedation and constipation

d)

Hypoglycemia and nasal dryness

11.

A nurse is preparing to administer terbutaline for preterm labor. The nurse should plan to discontinue the medication at which time?

a)

Immediately after delivery

b)

24 hours before delivery

c)

2 hours before delivery

d)

After the client reports nasal stuffiness

12.

A nurse is caring for an infant who has a shunt placed for hydrocephalus. The nurse notes the fontanelles are sunken. Which position should the nurse place the infant in?

a)

Prone with head elevated

b)

Flat position in bed

c)

Semi-Fowler’s position

d)

Side-lying with head lowered

13.

A nurse is monitoring an infant with a shunt for hydrocephalus and observes bulging fontanelles. Which position should the nurse place the infant in?

a)

Trendelenburg

b)

Semi-Fowler’s

c)

Prone with head turned

d)

Flat supine

14.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a group of parents about potential complications for post-term infants. Which of the following conditions are associated with a post-term birth? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Asphyxia caused by chronic hypoxia

b)

Meconium aspiration

c)

Poor nutritional status with hypoglycemia

d)

Polycythemia with risk for jaundice

e)

Difficult delivery due to increased size

15.

A nurse is assessing a newborn and notes soft tissue swelling of the scalp that crosses the suture line. Which condition should the nurse suspect?

a)

Caput succedaneum

b)

Cephalohematoma

c)

Hydrocephalus

d)

Subdural hematoma

16.

A nurse is assessing a newborn and notes a collection of blood beneath the periosteum that does not cross the suture line. The nurse should identify this finding as:

a)

Caput succedaneum

b)

Cephalohematoma

c)

Subgaleal hemorrhage

d)

Craniosynostosis

17.

A nurse is assessing a newborn with suspected neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Body tremors

b)

Hyperirritability

c)

Diarrhea

d)

Poor feeding

e)

Wakefulness

18.

A nurse is assessing a newborn for developmental dysplasia of the hip. Which of the following are expected manifestations? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Limited abduction of the leg on the affected side

b)

Knee lower on the dislocated side

c)

Shortening of the femur

d)

Asymmetrical thigh skin folds

e)

One buttock appearing higher when prone

19.

A nurse is caring for a newborn immediately after birth. Which situation is an example of heat loss by evaporation?

a)

A newborn lying near a cold wall

b)

A newborn placed on a cold scale without a blanket

c)

A newborn exposed to a fan blowing across the crib

d)

A newborn not dried immediately after a bath

20.

Which of the following situations places a newborn at risk for heat loss through conduction?

a)

A newborn placed under an air vent

b)

A newborn’s crib positioned near a cold window

c)

A newborn lying on a cold mattress without a blanket

d)

A newborn whose skin is still wet after birth

21.

A nurse is teaching a group of students about ways newborns lose heat. Which of the following is an example of convection?

a)

A newborn wrapped in a blanket next to a cold wall

b)

A newborn exposed to drafts from an open door

c)

A newborn wet from amniotic fluid after delivery

d)

A newborn placed on a cold metal scale

22.

A newborn is at risk for heat loss through radiation in which of the following situations?

a)

A newborn placed next to a cold window

b)

A newborn bathed and left wet without drying

c)

A newborn placed on a cold scale

d)

A newborn exposed to blowing air from a fan

23.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a postpartum client about the expected changes in lochia. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?

a)

“Lochia rubra is pink and lasts about 10 days.”

b)

“Lochia serosa is red and lasts for the first 3 days.”

c)

“Lochia alba is white and may last from day 10 up to 3 weeks.”

d)

“Lochia rubra is brown and lasts up to 21 days.”

24.

A nurse is preparing a newborn for discharge. Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as an expected weight change?

a)

A newborn who lost 3% of birth weight

b)

A newborn who lost 8% of birth weight

c)

A newborn who lost 12% of birth weight at term

d)

A newborn who lost 18% of birth weight

25.

A nurse is calculating the quantitative blood loss (QBL) for a postpartum client. Which method should the nurse use?

a)

Estimating the amount of blood on perineal pads by observation

b)

Counting the number of saturated pads in an hour

c)

Measuring the dry weight and subtracting it from the wet weight

d)

Measuring fundal height changes over time

26.

A nurse is caring for a client on postpartum day 2. Which lochia findings should the nurse expect?

a)

Lochia rubra: bright red and lasts for about the first 3 days

b)

Lochia serosa: pinkish brown and lasts for 10–21 days

c)

Lochia alba: yellowish white and lasts for the first week

d)

No vaginal discharge should be present

27.

On postpartum day 5, a client asks what type of vaginal discharge is normal. Which response should the nurse provide?

a)

“You should expect bright red bleeding that soaks a pad in an hour.”

b)

“You should expect pinkish brown discharge that lasts up to 10 days.”

c)

“You should expect yellowish-white mucus that lasts for the first 2 days.”

d)

“You should not have any vaginal discharge at this point.”

28.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with the parents of a child who has a cleft palate. The nurse should include that children with this condition are at increased risk for which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Ear infections

b)

Dental decay

c)

Irregular tooth eruptions

d)

Need for intermittent hospitalizations and frequent clinic visits

e)

Difficulty with feedings requiring special nipples

29.

A nurse is assessing a postpartum client and suspects the presence of a hematoma. Which of the following findings supports this suspicion?

a)

Foul-smelling lochia with a fever

b)

A bulging, bluish or purplish mass on the vulva or in the vagina

c)

Uterine atony with a soft, boggy fundus

d)

Bright red bleeding that saturates more than one pad per hour

30.

A nurse is assessing a laboring client who is hyperventilating. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Dizziness

b)

Tingling of hands and feet

c)

Cramps and muscle spasms of the hands

d)

Numbness around the nose and mouth

e)

Blurred vision

31.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client experiencing hyperventilation during labor. Which of the following are appropriate interventions? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Breathe slowly, especially during exhalation

b)

Breathe into cupped hands

c)

Place a moist washcloth over the mouth and nose while breathing

d)

Hold breath for a few seconds before exhaling

e)

. Increase respiratory rate to expel carbon dioxide

32.

A nurse is caring for a client with a prolapsed umbilical cord. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

Place the client in a side-lying position with hips elevated

b)

Administer oxygen at 10 L/min

c)

Insert a gloved hand into the vagina and push the fetus upward

d)

Displace the fetus upward to relieve cord compression

33.

While awaiting an emergency cesarean section for a prolapsed cord, which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

a)

Apply fundal pressure to aid delivery

b)

Keep a gloved hand in the vagina to elevate the presenting part

c)

Place the client in high Fowler’s position

d)

Insert a urinary catheter

34.

A nurse is positioning a client with a prolapsed cord to relieve pressure on the umbilical cord. Which positions are appropriate?

a)

Supine with legs straight

b)

Knee-chest or Trendelenburg

c)

High Fowler’s with feet dangling

d)

Semi-Fowler’s with a wedge

35.

A nurse is assessing a postpartum client after delivery of the placenta. Where should the nurse expect to palpate the fundus?

a)

Midline, at or slightly below the umbilicus, firm and round

b)

Above the umbilicus, boggy and soft

c)

Right of the umbilicus, enlarged and tender

d)

Two fingerbreadths above the symphysis pubis, firm and flat

36.

A nurse is assessing a postpartum client on day 3 after delivery. Which finding is expected?

a)

Fundus at the level of the umbilicus, boggy

b)

Fundus 3 cm below the umbilicus, firm

c)

Fundus not palpable at this time

d)

Fundus 2 cm above the umbilicus, firm

37.

A nurse is preparing to administer medications for postpartum hemorrhage. Which of the following medications contract the uterus?

a)

Oxytocin, Methylergonovine, and Carboprost

b)

Terbutaline, Nifedipine, and Magnesium sulfate

c)

Misoprostol, Terbutaline, and Oxytocin

d)

Labetalol, Hydralazine, and Oxytocin

38.

A nurse is caring for a preterm infant and notes pauses in breathing. Which of the following meets the definition of apnea in a newborn?

a)

Breathing pauses of 5–10 seconds with mild color changes

b)

Cessation of breathing for 20 seconds or longer

c)

Rapid breathing with grunting sounds

d)

Occasional sighs between breaths

39.

A nurse is caring for an infant who recently had a ventriculoperitoneal shunt placed for hydrocephalus. Which of the following should the nurse monitor closely?

a)

Signs of increased intracranial pressure

b)

Blood glucose levels

c)

Respiratory rate and oxygen saturation only

d)

Heart rate variability

40.

A nurse is caring for an infant with hydrocephalus awaiting shunt placement. Which of the following are appropriate nursing interventions?

a)

Keep the head in a single position to prevent movement

b)

Frequent head position changes to prevent skin breakdown

c)

Head support only when the infant is asleep

d)

Measure head circumference along with vital signs

41.

A nurse is teaching a postpartum client about breast engorgement. Which of the following statements is accurate?

a)

Only non-breastfeeding mothers develop engorgement.

b)

Engorgement can result from mastitis and inadequate emptying of milk

c)

Engorgement is a rare complication occurring immediately after birth.

d)

Engorgement occurs only if the infant is formula-fed.

42.

A breastfeeding mother asks when breast engorgement is most likely to occur. The nurse should respond:

a)

Within the first 24 hours after birth

b)

Several weeks after birth

c)

Only after weaning the baby

d)

Engorgement does not occur in breastfeeding mothers

43.

A laboring client is experiencing tachysystole. Which of the following are potential risks?

a)

Maternal hypotension and fever

b)

Fetal compromise and uterine rupture

c)

Increased amniotic fluid and placental thickening

d)

Decreased maternal cardiac output only

44.

A nurse is assessing a postpartum client’s perineal incision. Which of the following findings would indicate a problem with healing?

a)

Redness with pain

b)

Mild edema that does not interfere with movement

c)

Ecchymosis that is small and localized

d)

Well-approximated suture line

45.

A laboring client is receiving Pitocin (oxytocin). The nurse should stop the infusion if which of the following occurs?

a)

The client complains of mild back pain

b)

Signs of fetal compromise or excessive uterine contractions are noted

c)

The client requests pain medication

d)

The contractions are 3–4 minutes apart and moderate intensity

46.

A postpartum client has a full bladder. The nurse knows this places the client at risk for:

a)

Uterine atony and increased risk of hemorrhage

b)

Hypotension due to bladder distension

c)

Infection of the urinary tract only

d)

Delayed lochia transition

47.

A nurse is assessing a term newborn for hypoglycemia. Which blood glucose level indicates hypoglycemia?

a)

45 mg/dL

b)

42 mg/dL

c)

38 mg/dL

d)

50 mg/dL

48.

A preterm newborn’s blood glucose is measured at 28 mg/dL. How should the nurse interpret this result?

a)

Normal for a preterm infant

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Cannot be determined without repeat measurement

49.

A newborn weighs below the 10th percentile for gestational age. How should the nurse classify this infant?

a)

AGA (Average for Gestational Age)

b)

LGA (Large for Gestational Age)

c)

SGA (Small for Gestational Age)

d)

Preterm

50.

A newborn weighs at the 50th percentile for gestational age. How should the nurse classify this infant?

a)

SGA

b)

LGA

c)

AGA

d)

Preterm

51.

A newborn weighs above the 90th percentile for gestational age. Which classification is appropriate?

a)

SGA

b)

AGA

c)

LGA

d)

post-term

52.

A nurse is caring for a newborn and wants to prevent heat loss. Which of the following interventions are appropriate? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Keep the infant’s head covered

b)

Place the infant on a cold surface for a short time to test temperature stability

c)

Keep the infant dry and swaddled

d)

Prevent drafts near the infant

53.

A nurse is caring for a newborn with spina bifida. Which of the following are appropriate nursing interventions? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Place a moist, sterile dressing on the sac

b)

Position the infant prone

c)

Monitor for hydrocephalus

d)

Delay surgery until after 6 months of age

e)

Avoid touching the sac to prevent trauma

54.

A nurse is assessing an infant and notes an unusually large head size. The nurse understands that hydrocephalus is caused by:

a)

A decrease in cerebrospinal fluid within the ventricles

b)

An increase in cerebrospinal fluid within the ventricles

c)

Early closure of the cranial sutures

d)

Hypotension of the brain vessels

55.

Which of the following conditions is a common cause of hydrocephalus in infants?

a)

Congenital hip dysplasia

b)

Obstruction of cerebrospinal fluid, such as from a tumor, infection, or perinatal hemorrhage

c)

Post-term birth

d)

Maternal gestational diabetes

56.

A nurse is caring for a postpartum client with uterine atony. What is the nurse’s first intervention?

a)

Administer oxytocin immediately

b)

Massage the uterus to firmness, then empty the bladder

c)

Place the client in Trendelenburg position

d)

Increase IV fluids to improve circulation

57.

A nurse is caring for a laboring client who received an epidural. Which of the following should the nurse assess regularly? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Bladder distention by palpating the suprapubic area

b)

Maternal hypotension

c)

Maternal pulse rate only

d)

Pain level and sensation in lower extremities

e)

Respiratory rate

58.

A nurse is assessing a preterm infant for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). Which of the following are signs of RDS? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Cyanosis

b)

Grunting

c)

Tachypnea

d)

Intercostal and sternal retractions

59.

A nurse is educating a postpartum client about afterpains. What is the best description?

a)

Mild cramping caused by uterine involution

b)

Sharp pain caused by episiotomy infection

c)

Pain from uterine rupture

d)

Pain caused by retained placental fragments

60.

What is the primary cause of afterpains in the postpartum period?

a)

Excessive ambulation

b)

Contractions of the uterus as it returns to pre-pregnancy size

c)

Maternal dehydration

d)

Bladder distention

61.

A nurse is monitoring a postpartum client after a vaginal birth. Which amount of blood loss is considered within the expected range?

a)

300 mL

b)

500 mL

c)

700 mL

d)

1000 mL

62.

A nurse is caring for a client who had a cesarean section. What is the expected blood loss for this type of delivery?

a)

400 mL

b)

500 mL

c)

800 mL

d)

1000 mL

63.

A nurse is caring for a macrosomic newborn. Which of the following complications should the nurse monitor for? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Cold stress due to depletion of fat stores

b)

Aspiration of meconium-stained amniotic fluid leading to respiratory distress

c)

Hypoglycemia from depleted glycogen stores

d)

Hyperbilirubinemia due to polycythemia

e)

Hypotension from low blood volume

64.

A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with a postpartum client. Which of the following signs should prompt the client to call the healthcare provider or return for reassessment? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Fever higher than 100.4°F (38°C)

b)

Persistent lochia rubra or foul odor

c)

Discharge, pain, redness, or separation of any suture line

d)

Bright red bleeding or lochia that changes from alba/serosa back to rubra

e)

Localized breast tenderness

65.

Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause cardiogenic shock in a postpartum client?

a)

Postpartum hemorrhage

b)

Pulmonary embolism

c)

Drug allergy

d)

Puerperal infection

66.

A nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is experiencing excessive blood loss. Which type of shock is the client at risk for?

a)

Cardiogenic

b)

Hypovolemic

c)

Anaphylactic

d)

Septic

67.

A client develops a sudden allergic reaction to a medication administered postpartum. Which type of shock should the nurse suspect?

a)

Cardiogenic

b)

Hypovolemic

c)

Anaphylactic

d)

Septic

68.

A postpartum client presents with fever, foul-smelling lochia, and hypotension. Which type of shock is most likely?

a)

Cardiogenic

b)

Hypovolemic

c)

Anaphylactic

d)

Septic

69.

Which of the following correctly describes the anterior fontanelle?

a)

Diamond-shaped; located at the junction of the parietal and frontal bones; closes by 12–18 months

b)

Triangular; located between occipital and parietal bones; closes by 2 months

c)

Circular; located at the center of the skull; closes by 6 months

d)

Square-shaped; located at the parietal-occipital junction; closes by 1 month

70.

Which statement accurately describes the posterior fontanelle?

a)

Diamond-shaped and larger than the anterior fontanelle

b)

Triangular; located between occipital and parietal bones; ossified by 2 months

c)

Circular; remains open until 18 months

d)

Located at the frontal-parietal junction; closes by 12–18 months

71.

A nurse is assessing an infant for increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following findings are consistent with ICP?

a)

Decreased BP, increased pulse, irregular respirations

b)

Increased BP, decreased pulse, decreased respirations

c)

Low-pitched cry, equal pupils, normal fontanelles

d)

Hyperactive reflexes and constipation

72.

Which of the following are signs of increased intracranial pressure in an infant?

a)

High-pitched cry, unequal pupil size, bulging fontanelles

b)

Lethargy, poor feeding, vomiting

c)

Irritability

d)

All of the above

73.

A nurse is caring for a client in latent labor (cervical dilation <4 cm) who reports frequent, painful contractions that are poorly coordinated. What type of labor is this?

a)

Hypotonic labor

b)

Hypertonic labor

c)

Precipitous labor

d)

Prolonged latent labor

74.

A client in active labor (cervical dilation >4 cm) is experiencing weak, ineffective contractions. Which interventions are appropriate?

a)

Provide mild sedation and administer tocolytic drugs

b)

Perform amniotomy and administer oxytocin; encourage walking and upright positions

c)

Monitor for precipitous delivery

d)

Apply forceps delivery immediately

75.

The gate control theory of pain explains that:

a)

Pain impulses are ignored by the brain until a threshold is reached

b)

Nerve fibers can be stimulated to block or interfere with transmission of pain impulses to the brain

c)

Pain is entirely psychological and not transmitted by nerves

d)

Pain cannot be influenced by external stimuli

76.

Which of the following are examples of interventions that utilize the gate control theory to reduce pain?

a)

Stroking or massaging the skin

b)

Rubbing the palm or foot

c)

Gripping a cold bed rail or applying pressure

d)

All of the above

77.

A postpartum client is experiencing hypovolemic shock due to excessive bleeding. Which interventions are appropriate?

a)

Stopping the blood loss and massaging the uterus

b)

Administering IV fluids and blood transfusions

c)

Providing oxygen and monitoring pulse oximetry

d)

Placing a Foley catheter to assess urine output

e)

All of the above

78.

A nurse is assessing a pregnant client and notes a lower-than-normal amount of amniotic fluid. This condition is called:

a)

Polyhydramnios

b)

Oligohydramnios

c)

Hydramnios

d)

Amniotic overload

79.

A client has an excessive amount of amniotic fluid. What is this condition called?

a)

Polyhydramnios

b)

Oligohydramnios

c)

Amniotic insufficiency

d)

Placental edema

80.

The process in which the reproductive organs return to pre-pregnancy size is called:

a)

Retrogression

b)

Regression

c)

Involution

d)

Regression

81.

After delivery, the uterus descends at approximately:

a)

1 cm per hour

b)

1 cm per day

c)

5 cm per day

d)

5 mm per day

82.

Which of the following statements about Terbutaline (Brethine) is correct?

a)

It is a calcium channel blocker used to stop contractions

b)

t is a beta-adrenergic medication given subcutaneously to stop contractions within minutes

c)

It is an NSAID that reduces amniotic fluid

d)

It is used primarily to protect the fetus from cerebral palsy

83.

Magnesium sulfate is primarily used in preterm labor to:

a)

Stop contractions immediately

b)

Protect the fetus from cerebral palsy

c)

Reduce amniotic fluid

d)

Increase uterine tone

84.

Which statement about Indomethacin is correct?

a)

It is commonly used and safe in all pregnancies

b)

It is an NSAID that stops contractions but reduces amniotic fluid and risks ductus arteriosus closure

c)

It is a calcium channel blocker

d)

It is a beta-adrenergic drug

85.

Which statement about Nifedipine (Procardia) is correct?

a)

It is rarely used due to severe side effects

b)

It is a calcium channel blocker commonly used to stop labor contractions

c)

It should be given simultaneously with magnesium sulfate

d)

It is an NSAID that reduces amniotic fluid

86.

A nurse suspects hypovolemic shock in a postpartum client. What is usually the first sign?

a)

Hypotension

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Decreased respiratory rate

87.

A nurse is educating a postpartum client about options for vaginal birth after cesarean (VBAC). Which type of uterine incision is considered safe for VBAC?

a)

Classic vertical incision

b)

Low transverse incision

c)

High vertical incision

d)

T-shaped incision