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Plastic Surgery Quiz

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Most common congenital craniofacial anomaly worldwide?

a)

Cleft lip/palate

b)

Microtia

c)

Craniosynostosis

d)

Hemifacial microsomia

2.

Which gene is commonly mutated in Treacher Collins syndrome?

a)

FGFR2

b)

TCOF1

c)

TBX1

d)

MSX1

3.

Goldenhar syndrome is also known as?

a)

Treacher Collins

b)

Oculo-auriculo-vertebral spectrum

c)

Crouzon syndrome

d)

Apert syndrome

4.

Which flap is first-line for cleft palate repair?

a)

Buccinator myomucosal flap

b)

Furlow double opposing Z-plasty

c)

Pharyngeal flap

d)

Tongue flap

5.

The 'law of timing' in craniofacial embryology suggests:

a)

Earlier defect = milder

b)

Later defect = severe

c)

Earlier defect = severe

d)

No relation

6.

Distraction osteogenesis principle:

a)

Compression forms bone

b)

Tension-stress forms bone

c)

Immobilization forms bone

d)

Vibration stimulates bone

7.

Which suture is most commonly involved in craniosynostosis?

a)

Metopic

b)

Sagittal

c)

Coronal

d)

Lambdoid

8.

Pierre Robin sequence triad includes:

a)

Micrognathia, glossoptosis, cleft palate

b)

Macroglossia, craniosynostosis, cleft palate

c)

Mandibular prognathism, ear anomaly, glossoptosis

d)

Hemangioma, cleft lip, micrognathia

9.

Most common congenital anomaly of the hand?

a)

Polydactyly

b)

Syndactyly

c)

Cleft hand

d)

Macrodactyly

10.

The intrinsic-plus position of the hand is also known as:

a)

Safe position

b)

Swan-neck

c)

Claw hand

d)

Z deformity

11.

Main blood supply to the thumb:

a)

Radial artery

b)

Ulnar artery

c)

Digital artery

d)

Median artery

12.

Kanavel’s four cardinal signs indicate:

a)

Trigger finger

b)

Flexor tenosynovitis

c)

Mallet finger

d)

Boutonniere deformity

13.

Most common nerve injured in supracondylar fracture:

a)

Median

b)

Ulnar

c)

Radial

d)

Anterior interosseous

14.

The tripod pinch involves which fingers?

a)

Thumb, index, middle

b)

Thumb, index, ring

c)

Index, middle, ring

d)

Thumb, middle, ring

15.

The “OK sign” tests which nerve?

a)

Median

b)

Ulnar

c)

Radial

d)

Axillary

16.

Pollicization is a reconstructive technique for:

a)

Absent thumb

b)

Syndactyly

c)

Dupuytren’s

d)

Macrodactyly

17.

Workhorse flap for head & neck reconstruction:

a)

ALT flap

b)

Radial forearm free flap

c)

Latissimus dorsi

d)

Gracilis

18.

Coupler device is used for:

a)

Arterial anastomosis

b)

Venous anastomosis

c)

Nerve coaptation

d)

Bone fixation

19.

Ischemia tolerance of muscle flap is approximately:

a)

2 hours

b)

4 hours

c)

6 hours

d)

8 hours

20.

Most common complication of free flap surgery:

a)

Hematoma

b)

Thrombosis

c)

Infection

d)

Seroma

21.

Preferred recipient artery in head and neck free flap:

a)

Facial

b)

Superior thyroid

c)

Lingual

d)

Transverse cervical

22.

Best monitoring method for buried flap:

a)

Clinical exam

b)

Doppler

c)

Near-infrared spectroscopy

d)

Needle prick

23.

Main indication for gracilis free flap in extremity reconstruction:

a)

Coverage

b)

Facial reanimation

c)

Pressure sore

d)

Hand burns

24.

Which vessel is harvested in a fibula free flap?

a)

Posterior tibial

b)

Peroneal

c)

Anterior tibial

d)

Saphenous

25.

Rule of nines: adult lower limb accounts for:

a)

9%

b)

18%

c)

22%

d)

15%

26.

Most common cause of death in burn patients:

a)

Fluid loss

b)

Infection

c)

Shock

d)

Inhalation injury

27.

Parkland formula: fluid resuscitation in 24 hrs =

a)

2 ml/kg/%TBSA

b)

3 ml/kg/%TBSA

c)

4 ml/kg/%TBSA

d)

5 ml/kg/%TBSA

28.

Silver sulfadiazine acts mainly as:

a)

Antibacterial

b)

Antifungal

c)

Antiviral

d)

Analgesic

29.

Early excision and grafting is recommended for burns of:

a)

Partial-thickness superficial

b)

Deep dermal/full thickness

c)

First-degree

d)

Electrical

30.

Most common bacteria in burn wound infection:

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

c)

E. coli

d)

Klebsiella

31.

Which layer is destroyed in third-degree burn?

a)

Epidermis

b)

Dermis

c)

Subcutaneous fat

d)

All skin layers

32.

Escharotomy is primarily performed to:

a)

Reduce infection

b)

Relieve vascular compromise

c)

Prevent contracture

d)

Aid graft take

33.

Which phase of wound healing involves angiogenesis?

a)

Inflammatory

b)

Proliferative

c)

Remodeling

d)

Hemostasis

34.

Tensile strength of a wound at 6 weeks is approx:

a)

10%

b)

20%

c)

50%

d)

80%

35.

Collagen predominantly laid down in early healing:

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

36.

Which vitamin deficiency impairs wound healing?

a)

Vit A

b)

Vit C

c)

Vit D

d)

Vit E

37.

Keloid differs from hypertrophic scar by:

a)

Staying within wound margin

b)

Regression with time

c)

Extending beyond wound margin

d)

Better response to steroids

38.

Hyperbaric oxygen improves healing by:

a)

Reducing angiogenesis

b)

Increasing leukocyte function

c)

Lowering perfusion

d)

Reducing collagen

39.

Most common cause of penile cancer:

a)

HPV

b)

Smoking

c)

Trauma

d)

Syphilis

40.

Epispadias is characterized by:

a)

Urethra on ventral side

b)

Urethra on dorsal side

c)

Absent urethra

d)

Double urethra

41.

Most common flap for scrotal reconstruction:

a)

ALT flap

b)

Gracilis flap

c)

Medial thigh flap

d)

Gluteal flap

42.

Micropenis defined as stretched penile length <:

a)

2 cm

b)

2.5 cm

c)

3 cm

d)

4 cm

43.

Hypospadias most commonly occurs at:

a)

Glandular

b)

Coronal

c)

Penile shaft

d)

Perineal

44.

Preferred graft material for penile skin loss:

a)

Split-thickness skin graft

b)

Full-thickness skin graft

c)

Mucosal graft

d)

Alloderm

45.

Golden ratio (phi) used in facial aesthetics ≈:

a)

1.2

b)

1.3

c)

1.6

d)

2.0

46.

Most common complication of rhinoplasty:

a)

Infection

b)

Bleeding

c)

Nasal obstruction

d)

Septal perforation

47.

Botulinum toxin acts by blocking:

a)

Dopamine

b)

Acetylcholine

c)

GABA

d)

Serotonin

48.

Most common site for liposuction fat harvest:

a)

Abdomen

b)

Thighs

c)

Flanks

d)

Buttocks

49.

SMAS is an important layer in which surgery?

a)

Abdominoplasty

b)

Facelift

c)

Rhinoplasty

d)

Otoplasty

50.

Baker classification is used for:

a)

Breast ptosis

b)

Capsular contracture in implants

c)

Rhinoplasty outcomes

d)

Facelift grading

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