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Quiz on GPS, Diodes, Geotextiles, and Ohm's Law

Total questions: 36

Worksheet time: 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

GPS satellites are located in which type of orbit?

a)

Geostationary orbit (~36,000 km)

b)

Medium Earth Orbit (~20,200 km)

c)

Low Earth Orbit (~500 km)

d)

Polar Orbit (~1,000 km)

2.

Which statement about GPS satellites is correct?

a)

They remain fixed above the equator.

b)

They match the Earth’s rotation (24 hours).

c)

They orbit with a period of about 12 hours in inclined planes.

d)

They orbit every 90 minutes like low Earth orbit satellites.

3.

Why are GPS satellites not placed in geostationary orbit?

a)

Because geostationary orbit is too close to Earth

b)

Because geostationary satellites only cover regions near the equator

c)

Because geostationary satellites cannot carry atomic clocks

d)

Because GPS requires satellites that remain fixed above one point

4.

Which of the following identifies the correct orbital characteristics of GPS satellites?

a)

Matches Earth’s rotation and is above the equator

b)

Matches Earth’s rotation but not above the equator

c)

Does not match Earth’s rotation and is not above the equator

d)

Does not match Earth’s rotation but is above the equator

5.

GPS satellites orbit in inclined planes. What is the main advantage of this?

a)

Allows continuous global coverage

b)

Makes them appear stationary above one point

c)

Reduces the need for atomic clocks

d)

Prevents signal interference

6.

What is the primary function of a diode in a circuit?

a)

Amplifies signals

b)

Allows current to flow in both directions

c)

Allows current to flow in only one direction

d)

Stores electric charge

7.

In the diode symbol (►|), which part represents the cathode?

a)

The triangle

b)

The line

c)

The arrow tip

d)

Both triangle and line

8.

What is the approximate forward voltage drop across a silicon diode?

a)

0.1 V

b)

0.3 V

c)

0.7 V

d)

1.5 V

9.

What happens when a diode is reverse biased?

a)

Current flows freely

b)

No current flows (except tiny leakage)

c)

It amplifies voltage

d)

It stores energy

10.

If the reverse voltage across a diode is too high, what occurs?

a)

The diode becomes a resistor

b)

The diode breaks down

c)

The diode emits light

d)

Nothing changes

11.

Which of the following is NOT a typical use of diodes?

a)

Rectification (AC → DC)

b)

Voltage regulation (Zener diode)

c)

Signal demodulation

d)

Energy storage in capacitors

12.

Which type of diode is specifically designed to emit light?

a)

Zener diode

b)

Schottky diode

c)

LED

d)

Tunnel diode

13.

What is the main function of a diode bridge in a power supply?

a)

To amplify alternating current (AC)

b)

To convert alternating current (AC) into direct current (DC)

c)

To store electrical energy for later use

d)

To step voltage up or down

14.

How many diodes are required to construct a standard diode bridge for full-wave rectification?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

6

15.

Compared to half-wave rectification, full-wave rectification using a diode bridge produces:

a)

A smoother DC output with both halves of the AC wave rectified

b)

No change in the output waveform

c)

A larger voltage drop across each diode

d)

A higher frequency AC waveform at the output

16.

What is the typical forward voltage drop across the conducting diodes in a bridge rectifier (using silicon diodes)?

a)

0.7 V total

b)

1.4 V total

c)

2.8 V total

d)

0 V

17.

Why is full-wave rectification preferred over half-wave rectification in power supplies?

a)

It eliminates the need for filtering

b)

It reduces the size and weight of the diodes

c)

It increases efficiency by using both halves of the AC cycle

d)

It allows AC to pass through unchanged

18.

In the waveform produced by a diode bridge, the frequency of the rectified output compared to the input AC frequency is:

a)

The same as the input frequency

b)

Half the input frequency

c)

Double the input frequency

d)

Zero (DC only)

19.

Which set of material properties should be considered when selecting the geotextile?

a)

Colour, opacity, filtration

b)

Colour, permeability, rigidity

c)

Tensile strength, opacity, rigidity

d)

Tensile strength, permeability, filtration

20.

Which of the following best describes a geotextile in civil engineering?

a)

A metallic reinforcement grid placed behind concrete walls

b)

A synthetic permeable fabric used for soil reinforcement and drainage

c)

A waterproof membrane used to prevent all water movement

d)

A ceramic material used to resist high compressive forces

21.

In a retaining wall, what property of a geotextile prevents soil particles being washed away while still allowing water to pass?

a)

Tensile strength

b)

Permeability

c)

Filtration

d)

Rigidity

22.

Why must a geotextile used in embankments or retaining walls have high tensile strength?

a)

To resist compressive loads from water pressure

b)

To act as a capacitor storing electrical charge

c)

To hold soil in place and provide reinforcement

d)

To reduce the density of the soil structure

23.

Which set of properties is most critical when selecting a geotextile for civil engineering applications?

a)

Colour, opacity, rigidity

b)

Tensile strength, permeability, filtration

c)

Density, opacity, electrical resistance

d)

Hardness, opacity, corrosion resistance

24.

In road construction, how do geotextiles improve the performance of the pavement structure?

a)

By increasing soil permeability and preventing mixing of base layers

b)

By reducing the coefficient of friction between asphalt layers

c)

By storing energy during vehicle loading

d)

By making the road surface reflective

25.

Which environmental benefit is directly linked to the use of geotextiles in civil structures?

a)

Improved signal transmission in telecommunications

b)

Reduction in soil erosion and sediment runoff

c)

Elimination of tensile stresses in reinforced concrete

d)

Reduced corrosion in metallic fasteners

26.

What is the main purpose of using a half-sectional view in engineering drawing?

a)

To show only the external features of a component

b)

To show hidden detail using dashed lines

c)

To show internal detail on one half and external view on the other

d)

To reduce the number of dimensions required

27.

In a half-section drawing, where is the cutting plane normally placed?

a)

Along the horizontal centreline

b)

Along the vertical centreline

c)

At an angle of 45° to the component

d)

Across any random feature

28.

When drawing a half section, what should be shown on the sectioned half of the view?

a)

External shape only

b)

Hidden detail with dashed lines

c)

Hatching lines for solid areas cut by the plane

d)

Nothing – it is left blank

29.

In a half-sectional view, what is shown on the non-sectioned half?

a)

Only external outlines and centre lines

b)

Hatching and hidden detail

c)

Full sectioning of the part

d)

Hidden lines only

30.

According to AS 1100 standards, which of the following is not correct in a half section?

a)

Hatching at 45° is applied to the cut material

b)

The cutting plane passes through the centreline

c)

The external half shows only outline and centre lines

d)

Hidden detail is included on the external half

31.

Why are half-sectional views commonly used in technical drawing?

a)

They make the drawing look more complex

b)

They reduce the amount of hatching required

c)

They hide internal features from the viewer

d)

They eliminate the need for dimensions

32.

Which of the following equations is the correct form of Ohm’s Law?

a)

P = I × V

b)

V = I × R

c)

E = m × c

d)

F = m × a

33.

If a resistor has a resistance of 20Ω and a current of 2A flows through it, what is the voltage across it?

a)

10 V

b)

20 V

c)

40 V

d)

80 V

34.

A 12 V supply is connected across a resistor. The current measured is 3A. What is the resistance?

a)

b)

c)

d)

35.

What happens to the current through a resistor if the resistance is doubled while the supply voltage remains the same?

a)

Current doubles

b)

Current halves

c)

Current remains the same

d)

Current becomes zero

36.

Which of the following best describes the relationship expressed by Ohm’s Law?

a)

Current is proportional to resistance at constant voltage

b)

Voltage is proportional to current at constant resistance

c)

Resistance is proportional to voltage at constant power

d)

Current is proportional to power at constant resistance