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Vascular Disease (PVD vs PAD)

Total questions: 87

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does the abbreviation PVD stand for in the context of cardiovascular diseases?

a)

Peripheral Venous Disease

b)

Pulmonary Vascular Disease

c)

Primary Vascular Disorder

d)

Peripheral Valve Dysfunction

2.

Which of the following is a type of Peripheral Vascular Disease (PVD)?

a)

Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD)

b)

Coronary Artery Disease

c)

Cerebrovascular Accident

d)

Myocardial Infarction

3.

According to the diagram, which level is located between the iliac and tibial levels in the vascular system?

a)

Femoral level

b)

Aortic level

c)

Pedal level

d)

Carotid level

4.

Which of the following best describes Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD)?

a)

Buildup or blockage of arterial walls causing inability of oxygenated blood to get to extremities.

b)

Buildup or blockage of venous walls causing inability of deoxygenated blood to get to the heart.

c)

Arteries carry de-oxygenated blood from body to heart.

d)

Veins carry oxygenated blood from heart to body.

5.

What is the main function of arteries in the circulatory system?

a)

Carry de-oxygenated blood from body to heart.

b)

Carry oxygenated blood from heart to body.

c)

Carry nutrients from intestines to the liver.

d)

Carry waste products from cells to the kidneys.

6.

Peripheral Venous Disease (PVD) is characterized by which of the following?

a)

Buildup or blockage of arterial walls.

b)

Inability of oxygenated blood to reach the extremities.

c)

Buildup or blockage of venous walls causing inability of deoxygenated blood to get to the heart.

d)

Arteries carrying de-oxygenated blood from body to heart.

7.

Which statement correctly differentiates between PAD and PVD?

a)

PAD affects veins, while PVD affects arteries.

b)

PAD involves oxygenated blood, while PVD involves deoxygenated blood.

c)

Both PAD and PVD affect only the heart.

d)

PAD and PVD are the same condition.

8.

A patient presents with excess buildup of blood in their extremities due to a vascular condition. Based on this information, which disease is most likely?

a)

Peripheral artery disease (PAD)

b)

Peripheral venous disease (PVD)

c)

Coronary artery disease

d)

Deep vein thrombosis

9.

Which of the following is a recommended dietary approach to reduce the risk factors for PAD?

a)

Increase sodium intake

b)

Follow DASH diet

c)

Avoid all carbohydrates

d)

Consume high-fat foods

10.

What is one of the key lifestyle modifications for clients to reduce cardiovascular (CV) risk factors associated with PAD?

a)

Increase tobacco use

b)

Manage hypertension (HTN)

c)

Avoid physical activity

d)

Skip meals

11.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended strategy for managing PAD risk factors?

a)

Tobacco cessation

b)

Reducing sodium in the diet

c)

Maintaining good glycemic control in diabetes

d)

Increasing cholesterol intake

12.

A patient with PAD is advised to maintain good glycemic control. Which condition does this recommendation specifically target?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Diabetes Mellitus (DM)

c)

High cholesterol

d)

Obesity

13.

A client with PAD wants to know how to reduce their cardiovascular risk factors. Which combination of actions would be most effective?

a)

Manage cholesterol, follow DASH diet, tobacco cessation

b)

Increase sodium, avoid exercise, eat more sugar

c)

Skip meals, increase cholesterol, smoke regularly

d)

Avoid all fruits, increase fat intake, reduce sleep

14.

What does PAD stand for in the context of pathophysiology?

a)

Peripheral Artery Disease

b)

Pulmonary Artery Disorder

c)

Primary Aortic Dysfunction

d)

Peripheral Aneurysm Disease

15.

Which of the following best describes the main pathological process in PAD?

a)

Progressive narrowing and degeneration of arteries

b)

Sudden rupture of veins

c)

Enlargement of heart chambers

d)

Overproduction of red blood cells

16.

What is ischemia as described in the context of PAD?

a)

A temporary or permanent reduction of blood flow to tissues

b)

A sudden increase in blood pressure

c)

A rapid heartbeat

d)

A chronic infection of the arteries

17.

What are the two main causes of PAD mentioned in the material?

a)

Atherosclerosis and embolism (blood clot)

b)

Hypertension and diabetes

c)

Viral infection and trauma

d)

Genetic mutation and dehydration

18.

At what percentage of vessel blockage do symptoms of PAD typically occur?

a)

60% to 75%

b)

10% to 20%

c)

80% to 90%

d)

30% to 40%

19.

A patient presents with symptoms of PAD. Using your understanding of the disease process, explain why tissue damage occurs in affected areas.

a)

Because reduced blood flow deprives tissues of oxygen and nutrients

b)

Because the veins are enlarged and leak fluid

c)

Because the heart pumps too much blood to the area

d)

Because the nerves in the area are overstimulated

20.

Which of the following is a common symptom of Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD)?

a)

Intermittent claudication

b)

Persistent cough

c)

Blurred vision

d)

Frequent urination

21.

What does paresthesia (N/T) in the toes or feet indicate in patients with PAD?

a)

Nerve involvement

b)

Muscle hypertrophy

c)

Bone fracture

d)

Improved circulation

22.

Which of the following best describes the appearance of a limb affected by PAD?

a)

Shiny, taut, loss of hair

b)

Swollen, red, with blisters

c)

Bruised, with varicose veins

d)

Pale, with increased hair growth

23.

What is a possible complication of PAD?

a)

Delayed healing and tissue necrosis (gangrene)

b)

Increased bone density

c)

Enhanced muscle growth

d)

Improved skin elasticity

24.

A patient presents with decreased or absent lower extremity (LE) pulses. What condition should be suspected?

a)

Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD)

b)

Asthma

c)

Diabetes Mellitus

d)

Hypertension

25.

A patient with PAD develops a wound infection and skin ulcer. Using your knowledge of complications, what is a potential severe outcome if left untreated?

a)

Tissue necrosis (gangrene)

b)

Bone fracture

c)

Muscle spasm

d)

Joint dislocation

26.

Which of the following is a characteristic of arterial ulcers in Peripheral Vascular Disease (PVD)?

a)

Dull, achy pain

b)

Lower leg edema

c)

No pulse or weak pulse

d)

Sores with irregular borders

27.

Where are venous ulcers most commonly located in patients with Peripheral Vascular Disease (PVD)?

a)

Toes and feet

b)

Ankles

c)

Hands

d)

Knees

28.

Which treatment is recommended for arterial ulcers in Peripheral Vascular Disease (PVD)?

a)

Diuretics

b)

Antiplatelets (clopidogrel)

c)

Compression stockings

d)

Antibiotics only

29.

A patient reports that their pain improves when they dangle their foot off the bed, but worsens when they elevate it. What type of ulcer is this most likely associated with?

a)

Venous ulcer

b)

Arterial ulcer

c)

Diabetic ulcer

d)

Pressure ulcer

30.

Compare the drainage characteristics of arterial and venous ulcers in Peripheral Vascular Disease (PVD).

a)

Both have no drainage

b)

Arterial ulcers have drainage, venous ulcers do not

c)

Venous ulcers have drainage, arterial ulcers do not

d)

Both have significant drainage

31.

Which of the following best describes the appearance of sores in arterial ulcers?

a)

Sores with irregular borders

b)

Round, smooth sores with black eschar

c)

Yellow slough or ruddy skin

d)

Sores with granulation tissue

32.

What does PAD stand for in the context of vascular diagnostics?

a)

Peripheral Arterial Disease

b)

Pulmonary Artery Disorder

c)

Primary Aortic Dysfunction

d)

Peripheral Aneurysm Disease

33.

Which imaging technique is mentioned for diagnosing PAD?

a)

Doppler Ultrasound with Duplex Imaging

b)

X-ray Imaging

c)

CT Scan

d)

MRI

34.

What does the Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) measure?

a)

The ratio of systolic ankle pressure to the highest systolic brachial pressure

b)

The difference between diastolic and systolic pressure in the ankle

c)

The average blood pressure in the arms and legs

d)

The heart rate during exercise

35.

How is the ABI calculated according to the material?

a)

By dividing ankle SBP by the higher of the left and right SBPs

b)

By subtracting ankle SBP from brachial SBP

c)

By multiplying ankle and brachial SBP

d)

By averaging the left and right ankle SBPs

36.

A patient has a systolic ankle pressure of 98 mmHg and the highest systolic brachial pressure is 122 mmHg. What is the ABI for the left leg?

a)

0.80

b)

1.24

c)

0.50

d)

1.00

37.

What is the clinical significance of a low Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI)?

a)

It indicates possible peripheral arterial disease (PAD)

b)

It confirms normal blood flow in the limbs

c)

It suggests high risk of pulmonary embolism

d)

It is unrelated to vascular health

38.

Which type of medication is critical for reducing cardiovascular disease (CVD) risks in patients with PAD?

a)

Antiplatelets

b)

Beta-blockers

c)

Diuretics

d)

Calcium channel blockers

39.

What is one effect of ACE inhibitors in the management of PAD?

a)

Increase PAD symptoms

b)

Decrease PAD symptoms

c)

Cause atherosclerosis

d)

Increase blood clotting

40.

Statins are primarily used in PAD therapy to:

a)

Increase blood pressure

b)

Decrease risk for atherosclerosis

c)

Reduce inflammation only

d)

Cure PAD completely

41.

Which of the following is NOT a possible surgical option for PAD?

a)

Stents

b)

Angioplasty

c)

Atherectomy

d)

Appendectomy

42.

A patient with PAD is not responding to drug therapy. Based on the provided options, which surgical interventions could be considered? (Select the most appropriate combination.)

a)

Stents, Angioplasty, Atherectomy

b)

Appendectomy, Angioplasty, Stents

c)

Statins, ACE Inhibitors, Antiplatelets

d)

Beta-blockers, Diuretics, Calcium channel blockers

43.

What is the primary goal of nursing care for patients with PAD?

a)

To increase heart rate

b)

To maintain adequate blood flow to the area and avoid tissue damage

c)

To reduce body temperature

d)

To increase blood pressure

44.

Which of the following is a recommended nursing intervention for monitoring circulation in a patient with PAD?

a)

Monitor distal pulses and compare bilaterally

b)

Measure blood glucose levels

c)

Assess lung sounds

d)

Monitor urine output

45.

Why is it important to encourage management of cardiovascular risk factors in patients with PAD?

a)

It helps prevent infection

b)

It reduces the risk of further vascular complications

c)

It increases appetite

d)

It improves sleep quality

46.

Which action should be taken to avoid pressure injuries on the heels in patients with PAD?

a)

Use a pillow under the calves

b)

Apply ice packs to the heels

c)

Massage the heels regularly

d)

Keep the feet uncovered

47.

A nurse is teaching a client with PAD about proper foot care. Which instruction is most appropriate?

a)

Inspect feet carefully and wear proper socks and shoes

b)

Walk barefoot at home

c)

Soak feet in hot water daily

d)

Use tight-fitting shoes for support

48.

Which of the following is part of the treatment for claudication symptoms in PAD?

a)

Structured exercise program and medications

b)

Bed rest and fluid restriction

c)

High-protein diet

d)

Frequent massage of the affected limb

49.

A client with PAD has a wound on their foot. What is the best nursing intervention?

a)

Cover the wound with dry, sterile dressings

b)

Leave the wound open to air

c)

Apply a warm compress

d)

Use an antibiotic ointment only

50.

Why should a client with PAD be taught to palpate pedal pulses?

a)

To monitor for changes in circulation

b)

To check for fever

c)

To assess for dehydration

d)

To measure blood pressure

51.

What does the abbreviation DVT stand for in medical terminology?

a)

Deep Vein Thrombosis

b)

Direct Vascular Therapy

c)

Distal Vein Treatment

d)

Deep Valve Thrombosis

52.

Where do blood clots most commonly tend to form in veins?

a)

In the valve cusps of veins

b)

In the artery walls

c)

In the heart chambers

d)

In the capillaries

53.

Which of the following best describes thrombophlebitis?

a)

Inflammation of a vein with blood clot formation

b)

Hardening of the arteries

c)

Infection of the heart valves

d)

Narrowing of the capillaries

54.

Based on the diagram, what is the main difference between normal blood flow and deep vein thrombosis?

a)

Presence of a blood clot in the vein

b)

Increased blood pressure

c)

Decreased oxygen levels

d)

Enlargement of the vein

55.

Which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)?

a)

Unilateral extremity pain, swelling, warmth, and redness

b)

Bilateral hand numbness and tingling

c)

Generalized body rash

d)

Persistent cough and sore throat

56.

A patient presents with swelling, warmth, and redness in only one leg. What condition should you suspect based on these symptoms?

a)

Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)

b)

Asthma

c)

Migraine

d)

Appendicitis

57.

Why is it important to recognize unilateral extremity pain, swelling, warmth, and redness in a clinical setting?

a)

These symptoms may indicate a serious vascular condition such as DVT, which requires prompt intervention

b)

They are always signs of a minor injury

c)

They suggest a common cold

d)

They are unrelated to any medical emergency

58.

What does DVT stand for in the context of medical complications?

a)

Deep Vein Thrombosis

b)

Diabetic Vascular Thrombosis

c)

Direct Vascular Trauma

d)

Diffuse Vein Thrombosis

59.

Which serious complication can arise from a DVT, as shown in the diagram?

a)

Pulmonary Embolism

b)

Heart Attack

c)

Stroke

d)

Kidney Failure

60.

According to the diagram, where does the blood clot travel to cause a pulmonary embolism?

a)

Lungs

b)

Liver

c)

Kidneys

d)

Brain

61.

Which of the following best describes the process leading to a pulmonary embolism as depicted in the image?

a)

A blood clot forms in the veins, travels through the bloodstream, and blocks an artery in the lungs.

b)

A blood clot forms in the heart and blocks a coronary artery.

c)

A blood clot forms in the brain and causes a stroke.

d)

A blood clot forms in the liver and blocks a hepatic vein.

62.

Why is a pulmonary embolism considered a dangerous complication of DVT?

a)

It can block blood flow to the lungs, causing tissue damage and potentially death.

b)

It causes immediate heart failure.

c)

It leads to chronic kidney disease.

d)

It results in permanent paralysis.

63.

Which diagnostic test is most commonly used for detecting pulmonary embolism (PE)?

a)

Venous duplex ultrasound

b)

D-dimer

c)

Spiral CT

d)

Doppler Flow Studies

64.

What is the primary purpose of a venous duplex ultrasound in the context of DVT?

a)

To measure blood sugar levels

b)

To visually examine veins

c)

To assess lung function

d)

To detect heart murmurs

65.

Which of the following diagnostic methods uses IV contrast to view pulmonary vessels?

a)

Doppler Flow Studies

b)

TEE

c)

Spiral CT

d)

D-dimer

66.

A patient is suspected of having a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following tests would NOT typically be used for diagnosis?

a)

D-dimer

b)

Doppler Flow Studies

c)

Spiral CT

d)

Venous duplex ultrasound

67.

Explain why Spiral CT is considered the most common diagnostic test for pulmonary embolism (PE), and discuss its advantages over other diagnostic methods.

a)

It is non-invasive and does not require any contrast agents.

b)

It uses IV contrast to provide detailed images of pulmonary vessels, making it highly effective for detecting PE.

c)

It is the least expensive and most widely available test.

d)

It is the only test that can detect both DVT and PE simultaneously.

68.

What is the primary function of anticoagulants in drug therapy for DVT?

a)

Increase the ability of blood to clot.

b)

Decrease the ability of blood to clot.

c)

Increase blood pressure.

d)

Decrease heart rate.

69.

Which laboratory value should be monitored when a patient is receiving Heparin therapy?

a)

INR

b)

aPTT

c)

Blood glucose

d)

Platelet count

70.

What is the therapeutic range for aPTT when monitoring Heparin therapy?

a)

2-3

b)

10-20

c)

46-70

d)

100-120

71.

Which of the following is the correct antidote for Heparin and Lovenox overdose?

a)

Vitamin K

b)

Protamine

c)

Aspirin

d)

Naloxone

72.

When administering Lovenox subcutaneously, what is an important technique to remember?

a)

Expel the air bubble before injection.

b)

Rotate injection sites and do not expel the air bubble.

c)

Only use the same injection site.

d)

Inject intramuscularly.

73.

Which laboratory value should be monitored for a patient on Warfarin (coumadin)?

a)

aPTT

b)

INR

c)

Blood urea nitrogen

d)

Hemoglobin

74.

What is the therapeutic INR range for patients on Warfarin therapy?

a)

1-2

b)

2-3

c)

4-5

d)

6-7

75.

A patient on Warfarin develops excessive bleeding. Which antidote should be administered?

a)

Protamine

b)

Vitamin K

c)

Epinephrine

d)

Glucagon

76.

A nurse is preparing to administer Lovenox to a patient. Which action demonstrates proper administration technique?

a)

Expelling the air bubble before injection.

b)

Rotating injection sites and leaving the air bubble in the syringe.

c)

Administering the medication intramuscularly.

d)

Mixing Lovenox with Heparin in the same syringe.

77.

Which two anticoagulant drugs are being compared in the provided learning material?

a)

Heparin and Warfarin

b)

Aspirin and Ibuprofen

c)

Penicillin and Amoxicillin

d)

Metformin and Insulin

78.

What is the primary goal of nursing care for patients with DVT?

a)

To prevent the formation of clot and decrease inflammation

b)

To increase blood pressure

c)

To reduce cholesterol levels

d)

To treat infections

79.

Which intervention helps increase blood flow in patients at risk for DVT?

a)

Using TEDs and SCDs

b)

Applying ice packs

c)

Restricting movement

d)

Administering antibiotics

80.

Why should clients on blood thinning drugs be closely monitored?

a)

To monitor risk of complications

b)

To increase appetite

c)

To prevent dehydration

d)

To improve sleep quality

81.

What should women on contraceptives do to reduce the risk of DVT?

a)

Stop taking contraceptives

b)

Increase salt intake

c)

Reduce fluid intake

d)

Take more vitamin C

82.

If a patient is taking anticoagulants, what is an important nursing action?

a)

Follow up with lab work

b)

Increase physical activity only

c)

Avoid all green vegetables

d)

Take antibiotics regularly

83.

Which dietary advice is important for patients on anticoagulants?

a)

Follow a consistent diet with foods containing vitamin K

b)

Avoid all carbohydrates

c)

Increase caffeine intake

d)

Eat only protein-rich foods

84.

A patient is planning a long-distance trip. What should they do to reduce the risk of DVT?

a)

Exercise their legs and calves

b)

Sleep throughout the journey

c)

Avoid drinking water

d)

Wear heavy boots

85.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended nursing care intervention for DVT?

a)

Restricting all movement

b)

Early mobilization

c)

Using compression socks

d)

Maintaining a healthy diet and exercise program

86.

Explain why early mobilization is important in the prevention of DVT.

a)

It helps increase blood flow and reduces the risk of clot formation.

b)

It increases the risk of infection.

c)

It causes muscle fatigue.

d)

It decreases appetite.

87.

A patient on anticoagulants asks about dietary changes. What should you advise?

a)

Maintain a consistent intake of foods containing vitamin K.

b)

Eliminate all fruits and vegetables.

c)

Double the intake of vitamin K suddenly.

d)

Eat only processed foods.