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WorksheetsEMS103 CHAP 21-25
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins
Which of the following BEST describes an appropriate shock sequence for the patient in ventricular tachycardia?
Shock, shock, shock, shock
Shock, 2 minutes of CPR, reanalyze, shock again if indicated
Shock, shock, shock, pulse check, 2 minutes of CPR, shock, shock, shock
Shock, pulse check, shock, pulse check, shock, pulse check
Mechanical CPR devices are used by EMS agencies in order to provide:
a faster response time to the scene.
better quality of care with less training.
a 100% success rate.
high-quality compressions.
You are on the scene of a 68-year-old male patient complaining of severe chest pain for the last 20 minutes. He has a previous history of myocardial infarction and states it feels "just like the last time." You have applied oxygen and assisted him in administering aspirin and nitroglycerin with no reduction in the chest pain. Your nearest facility is 5 minutes away, a Level III Trauma Center is 10 minutes away, and a hospital with cardiac catheterization capabilities is 20 minutes away. The patient is requesting to be transported to his cardiologist's hospital, which is 30 minutes away. Which hospital is the best destination?
The trauma center
The nearest facility
The nearest hospital with cardiac catheterization
The hospital the patient requests
You are on the scene of a 65-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. CPR is in progress and the AED has been applied. The AED advises shock. After defibrillating the patient, what is your next intervention?
Check for a pulse.
Continue CPR.
Insert a Combitube.
Place in the recovery position.
What does ventricular fibrillation do?
Causes asphyxial cardiac arrest
Initiates commotio cordis
Forces the heartbeat to become quite rapid
Prevents the heart muscle from contracting normally
If an EMT is tasked with managing the family of a patient who is deceased after termination of resuscitation, what is an effective care strategy?
Prevent the family from seeing the deceased patient.
Minimize the family's time with the deceased patient.
Tell the family the EMT knows how they feel.
Be straightforward and use direct language.
You are the first on the scene of a 72-year-old patient in cardiac arrest. You have your medical supply kit, oxygen, and an AED. At least 4 to 5 minutes of high-quality CPR has been provided by the police officer who arrived before you. You have confirmed an open airway, apnea, and pulselessness. Which of the following should you do next?
Apply the defibrillator pads and shock as indicated.
Perform bag-valve mask ventilations with supplemental oxygen for 30 seconds before applying the defibrillator pads.
Contact medical direction before taking any action.
Perform one-rescuer CPR until additional personnel arrive.
Once an EMT has begun resuscitative efforts, when may the EMT cease those efforts?
The patient has no pulse after 1 minute.
No other rescuer is available to relieve the EMT.
Spontaneous circulation and breathing occur.
The EMT's partner gives the order to cease.
You are transporting a 50-year-old male patient whom you successfully defibrillated at the scene. You are 5 minutes away from the hospital when the patient goes back into cardiac arrest. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
Tell the driver to stop, analyze the cardiac rhythm, and deliver a shock as necessary.
Tell the driver to stop and assist you with CPR, and request another unit for assistance.
Analyze the cardiac rhythm and deliver shocks as necessary.
Initiate CPR and continue transporting.
Your patient is a 66-year-old female who has regained a pulse after a shock with an AED; however, she remains unresponsive and is not breathing adequately. Which of the following should be done next?
Remove the AED, assist the patient's ventilations with a bag-valve mask and supplemental oxygen, and keep reassessing the pulse.
Apply a nonrebreather mask with high-concentration oxygen and keep reassessing the pulse.
Deliver a fourth shock to improve the patient's respiratory status.
Ventilate the patient with high-concentration oxygen and transport immediately.
EMTs arrive at the scene of a cardiac arrest to see a police officer beginning to defibrillate the patient. At what point should the EMTs take over?
After a "no shock indicated" message is received but otherwise not until the patient is resuscitated
Immediately, even if interrupting the police office in the middle of shocking the patient
After the shock is delivered or a "no shock indicated" message is received
Only if the EMTs feel the police office is incompetent to administer the AED correctly
You are preparing a patient in cardiac arrest for an AED when you palpate a small lump below the patient's right clavicle. How should this modify your placement of the AED?
Place the AED pads over the patient's abdomen.
While placing the pads in the general area you need them, keep them several inches away from the lump.
Place the AED as you would for any patient.
Do not place the AED but transport the patient immediately.
Which of the following BEST describes the continued need for prehospital advanced cardiac life support, even when EMTs in the community carry AEDs?
The patient may need medications to support his cardiac rhythm and blood pressure prior to attempting defibrillation.
Before attempting defibrillation, it may be necessary to obtain a 12-lead ECG on the patient.
Not all cardiac arrests are due to problems that respond to defibrillation.
All of the above
Which of the following should NOT be done during defibrillation?
A) Performing CPR while the AED is being attached
B) Pressing the defibrillation pads firmly to the chest to ensure good contact
C) Continued ventilation during the analysis phase to prevent hypoxia
D) Shaving the chest before placing the defibrillation pads to improve contact
Which of the following patients should have an automated external defibrillator applied?
A) A 19-year-old college athlete who collapsed during football practice and is pulseless and apneic
B) A 6-month-old in severe respiratory distress
C) A 40-year-old female in cardiac arrest due to chest injuries sustained in a motor vehicle crash
D) A 67-year-old man with severe, crushing chest pain that is not relieved by nitroglycerin
Which of the following describes the EMT's MOST important role in the ideal provision of emergency cardiac care?
Recognition and activation of emergency response system
Immediate high-quality CPR and rapid defibrillation
Postarrest care following advanced life support
Early advanced cardiac life support
Which of the following is NOT a reason that an AED may indicate that there is "no shock advised"?
The patient's heart rhythm is normal.
The patient is in ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia.
The patient's heart has no electrical activity; he is "flat line," or in asystole.
The patient has organized electrical activity in the heart but no pulse.
Which of the following people is allowed to continue providing patient care when the patient is to be "cleared" for delivery of a shock via the defibrillator?
Anyone in contact with the patient below the level of the patient's knees
The EMT performing bag-valve mask ventilations
The provider who is ventilating the patient, so long as the patient has been intubated by a paramedic so that the provider does not directly touch the patient
None of the above
You are on the scene of a 65-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. CPR is in progress and the AED has been applied. The AED does not advise shock. What is your next intervention?
Continue CPR.
Stop CPR and place the patient in the recovery position.
Replace the malfunctioning AED.
Insert a Combitube.
All of the following are elements of adult high-performance CPR, EXCEPT:
placing the heel of one hand on the center of the victim's chest.
compression rate of at least 100 per minute.
maintaining a 2:30 ratio of ventilations to compressions.
compressing the patient's chest to no more than 1 inch in depth before allowing full relaxation.
When assessing a conscious patient for a possible stroke using the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale, which of the following three functions should be tested by the EMT?
Memory, ability to speak, and ability to track movement with the eyes
Control of facial muscles, ability to speak, and ability to hold both arms in an extended position for 10 seconds
Ability to walk, control of facial muscles, and balance
Ability to walk, ability to hold both arms in an extended position for 10 seconds, and ability to name common objects
Which of the following blood glucose levels is considered normal for an adult?
150 mg/dL
180 mg/dL
40 mg/dL
80 mg/dL
Which of the following is characteristic of a patient with hyperglycemia?
A) A "fruity" odor of the breath
B) Pale and sweaty skin, confusion, and increased heart rate
C) Sudden onset of altered mental status
D) Use of excessive amounts of insulin or lack of adequate food intake
There are two types of seizures; if your patient is having a seizure that affects only one body part and does not cause her to lose consciousness, it is called a:
partial seizure.
tonic-clonic seizure.
postictal seizure.
generalized seizure.
Your patient is a 19-year-old female who is 7 months pregnant. She just experienced a seizure. Although she has no previous history of seizures or any other medical condition, she was just diagnosed with pregnancy-induced hypertension. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the seizure?
Hypoglycemia
Eclampsia
Trauma
Any of the above
Looking at the following list, which of the items does NOT correctly compare the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia?
The hyperglycemic patient often has acetone breath, whereas the hypoglycemic patient does not.
Hyperglycemia usually has a slower onset than hypoglycemia.
The hypoglycemic patient usually complains of a headache, whereas the hyperglycemic patient does not.
Hyperglycemic patients often have warm, red, dry skin, whereas hypoglycemic patients have cold, pale, moist, or clammy skin.
Your patient is a 70-year-old man whose wife called EMS because her husband began exhibiting unusual behavior. Upon your arrival you introduce yourself to the patient, who responds, "Not until nine o'clock." This phenomenon is BEST described as:
disorientation to time.
receptive aphasia.
expressive aphasia.
unresponsive to verbal stimuli.
Which of the following is the MOST critical piece of equipment to have immediately available for the seizure patient who has just stopped convulsing?
Glucometer
Bite block
Cervical collar
Suction
Which of the following is NOT a sign of a hypoglycemic diabetic emergency?
A) Slow heart rate
B) Anxiety
C) Cold, clammy skin
D) Combativeness
The condition in which there is an insufficient amount of sugar in the blood is called:
hyperglycemia.
tachycardia.
diabetic ketoacidosis.
hypoglycemia.
If the blood sugar level is very high, which of the following may result?
Polyuria and hyperactivity
Hyperactivity, excessive thirst, and polyuria
Excessive insulin, excessive glucose, and excessive urination
Excessive urination, excessive thirst, and excessive hunger
When someone is experiencing hypoglycemia, the body attempts to compensate by using the fight-or-flight mechanism of the autonomic nervous system. Which of the following is NOT one of the fight-or-flight responses?
The heart pumps faster.
The skin is hot and dry.
Blood vessels constrict.
Breathing accelerates.
Which is NOT one of the steps in managing a patient experiencing dizziness and syncope?
Lay the patient flat.
Loosen any tight clothing around the neck.
Apply cold packs to the patient's head.
Administer oxygen.
Which of the following is the LEAST important question in obtaining the history of a seizure patient in the prehospital setting?
What was the patient doing before the seizure?
Did the patient lose control of his bladder?
How did the patient behave during the seizure?
Does the patient have a family history of seizures?
Compared to hypoglycemia, which of the following is TRUE of hyperglycemia?
It is more easily treated in the prehospital environment than hypoglycemia.
Its onset is more gradual.
Its onset is preceded by an aura, such as hallucinations or detecting unusual odors.
Its onset is more sudden.
Which of the following may result in hypoglycemia in the diabetic patient?
Vomiting after eating a meal
Failure to take insulin or oral diabetes medications
Lack of exercise
Overeating
Many factors that cause dizziness and syncope are generally related to the:
brain.
kidneys.
heart.
lungs.
Which of the following is the cause of most strokes?
Blockage of an artery supplying part of the brain
A ruptured cerebral artery due to hypertension
A spasm in an artery supplying part of the brain
A ruptured cerebral artery due to an aneurysm
Which of the following is the most common cause of seizures in adults?
Failure to take prescribed medication
Fever
Head trauma
Withdrawal from alcohol
Your patient is a 25-year-old female with a history of diabetes. She is confused, agitated, and verbally abusive to you, and she is very sweaty. Although she refuses to give a history of the present illness, which of the following should you suspect as the likely cause of the patient's presentation?
Failure to take her insulin
Failure to intake sufficient sugar
Excessive intake of foods high in sugar, such as soda or candy
A nondiabetic-related problem, such as a head injury or mental illness
Which of the following explains why a patient may experience difficulty breathing during anaphylaxis?
Swelling in the brain decreases the respiratory drive.
Allergens clump together and block blood flow through the lungs.
Swelling of the airway tissues causes difficulty breathing.
Allergens bind to hemoglobin, preventing it from carrying oxygen.
Which of the following is not an indication that epinephrine is helping the anaphylaxis patient's condition?
Increased blood pressure
Increased dyspnea
Increased heart rate
Both B and C
A 35-year-old female has just eaten lobster and is now complaining of itchy, watery eyes. Her blood pressure is beginning to fall, but she denies difficulty breathing. Which of the following best describes her condition?
Mild allergy
Dyspnea
Anaphylaxis
Shock
Which of the following does a physician not take into consideration when writing a prescription for a patient to obtain an epinephrine auto-injector?
Severity of previous allergic reactions
Patient's known allergies
How far the patient lives from medical attention
Patient's medical history
After administering epinephrine per medical control via an auto-injector to an unresponsive anaphylactic adult patient, your partner reassesses the lung sounds. He tells you that the patient is now wheezing loudly in all fields whereas before the injection they were diminished in the upper fields and absent in the lower. What is your suspicion regarding the patient's condition?
There is no change in the patient's condition.
The patient's condition is worsening.
The patient's condition is improving.
The patient is about to go into cardiac arrest.
Which of the following is the proper method of disposing of a used epinephrine auto-injector?
Bend the needle at an angle to prevent accidental punctures and place it in the trash.
Place the device in a rigid biohazardous sharps disposal container.
Take it to the hospital for disposal in the emergency department.
Leave it at the scene for the patient or his family to dispose of.
You are on the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a car has driven off the roadway and is resting at the bottom of an embankment. The driver is in severe respiratory distress and is unable to speak. His skin is flushed and he has hives. A Medic-Alert bracelet indicates an allergy to peanuts. You noticed a candy bar wrapper on the floor of the car. Which of the following should you do first?
Search the patient for an epinephrine auto-injector.
Administer high-concentration oxygen.
Perform rapid extrication.
Read the candy wrapper to see if it contains peanuts.
Your patient has eaten a casserole that may have contained seafood. The patient is worried because he has a seafood allergy. Upon assessment, you find no signs or symptoms of anaphylaxis. The patient's vital signs are stable and he has an epinephrine auto-injector prescribed to him. Which of the following actions is most appropriate?
Try to find out if the casserole contained seafood.
Transport the patient rapidly before the onset of anaphylaxis.
Assist him with the administration of his epinephrine auto-injector.
Advise the patient that he does not require treatment and transport at this time.
You are called to the local park on a hot summer day for an 8-year-old child in respiratory distress. The child can barely speak and appears to be getting sleepy. Vital signs are blood pressure 90/60, pulse 120, and respiratory rate 32. Your physical exam reveals a swollen tongue, inspiratory stridor, wheezing, and hives on the neck and chest. What condition do you suspect?
Anaphylaxis
Asthma
Allergic reaction
Heat exhaustion
Upon delivering a patient to the emergency department, you remove your gloves and find that your hands are red and itchy. Which of the following is most likely?
You are showing early signs of an anaphylactic reaction.
You have been exposed to an infectious disease through contact with the patient.
You have come into contact with poison ivy in the patient's yard.
You are having an allergic reaction to the latex in the gloves.
Which of the following happens to blood vessels during an anaphylactic reaction?
A) Dilation
B) Constriction
C) Spasm
D) No change
After activating the EpiPen® auto-injector, how long should it be held in place before removing it from the patient's thigh?
1 minute
30 seconds
10 seconds
It should be removed from the injection site immediately.
You have responded to a park where you find a 23-year-old female sitting on a bench near a running trail. She states that she has been running for the past 30 minutes and suddenly cannot catch her breath. She states that this has never happened before and she usually runs 5 miles a day. Your assessment reveals that she is flushed, her pulse is fast and weak, her respirations are fast and she is wheezing, and she has hives on her arms and chest. She is most likely suffering from which of the following?
Anaphylaxis
Hyperventilation syndrome
Heat stroke
Allergic reaction
You respond to a local swim park for a 29-year-old male who was stung by a bee and "passed out." Upon arrival, you find the patient unresponsive to all stimuli with agonal respirations at 6 per minute. You insert an oral airway and administer oxygen at 15 liters per minute by bag-valve mask. You notice that it is difficult to bag the patient. Your partner listens to lung sounds and states they are very diminished in the upper fields and absent in the lower fields. What is the best action?
Request orders from medical control for an emergency cricothyroidotomy.
Hyperventilate the patient.
Request an ALS unit.
Request orders from medical control to administer epinephrine.
Your patient is a 45-year-old female who is allergic to sesame seeds, which she accidentally ingested when she ate a deli sandwich. She is having difficulty breathing and she has hives, watery eyes, a weak pulse of 120 per minute, and swelling of the face and tongue. Which of the following is the best course of immediate action?
Contact medical control for orders to administer the patient's epinephrine auto-injector.
Insert an oropharyngeal airway (OPA).
Contact dispatch to see where the closest ALS unit is.
Transport immediately.
As you prepare to enter a patient's room in a nursing home, you see a sign posted on the door indicating that the patient has a latex allergy. Which of the following is the best way to care for the patient?
Ask the nursing staff if the patient has an epinephrine auto-injector available in case of a reaction to your gloves.
Ask the nursing facility staff to find synthetic exam gloves to wear for contact with this patient.
Only perform a history on this patient, not a physical exam, so you can avoid contacting him with your gloves.
Put on latex gloves anyway; you must protect yourself with BSI.
Most epinephrine auto-injectors contain how many doses of epinephrine?
One
Two
Three
None of the above
Which of the following changes commonly occurs in the cardiovascular system during anaphylaxis?
High blood pressure due to vasoconstriction
Low blood pressure due to bradycardia
High blood pressure due to tachycardia
Low blood pressure due to vasodilation
Which of the following would you expect to hear when auscultating the lungs of a patient having an anaphylactic reaction?
Fine, wet crackles or rales
Wheezing
Coarse-sounding rhonchi
Clear, adequate air movement
You are unsure whether a patient's condition requires the administration of an epinephrine auto-injector. Which of the following actions is most appropriate?
Consult with a paramedic on your service for advice.
Administer the epinephrine, just in case.
Ask a family member if this is the type of situation when the patient usually takes his auto-injector.
None of the above
According to the signs of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), which of the following infection patients has an increased risk of sepsis?
A patient with a systolic blood pressure of 75 mmHg and a respiratory rate of 18
A patient with respiratory rate of 19 and a heart rate of 112
A patient with a heart rate of 88 and a temperature of 99.6°
A patient with a temperature of 95.4°F and a respiratory rate of 28
What is the most important thing you can do for a stable septic patient?
Notify the emergency department that the patient is septic.
Assess the patient using capnography.
Attempt to lower the patient's temperature.
Open and maintain the patient's airway.
You have been called to the scene of an 83-year-old woman with a high fever who reports chills and shortness of breath. She is tachypneic and showing signs of pain upon inspiration. You talk with her a bit and she seems confused and unaware of where she is, who she is, or who you are. Based on this presentation, the patient likely has:
tuberculosis.
croup.
pneumonia.
pertussis.
Which of the following is the most important thing you can do when treating patients during a public crisis related to a newly recognized infectious disease?
Follow the recommendations of the CDC and your local health department.
Gather data about patient signs and symptoms and report them to the local health department.
Share information with patients about the prevalence of the disease.
Tell patients not to worry because new reports exaggerate the severity of these diseases.
Which of the following most accurately describes the pathophysiology of sepsis?
An infectious agent in the body multiplies very rapidly, overwhelming the body's natural immune response.
The body overreacts to an infection and secretes substances that hurt cells, tissues, and organs.
More than one type of infectious agent invades the body, limiting the immune system's response to each agent.
Vasoconstriction and internal fluid retention lead to shock that does not respond to intravenous fluids.
According to the systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) system, which of the following criteria would not contribute to a patient's likelihood of developing sepsis?
A) Respiratory rate of 32
B) Temperature of 95.3°F
C) Heart rate of 87
D) Systolic blood pressure of 76
You have been called to the scene of a single vehicle crash. The victim lost control of the vehicle on an icy road and hit a tree. He shows signs of facial injury with bleeding, but is conscious and aware of his surroundings. Before you begin providing care to him, he tells you that he has HIV and is currently taking medication that has helped suppress his viral load. Based on this information, which of the following actions should you take?
Provide care without using precautions because his viral load is suppressed.
Take Standard Precautions while providing care for the patient.
Call medical direction and ask how you should proceed.
Avoid direct contact with the patient but provide him with dressings he can apply himself.
Which of the following statements about bacteria is false?
Bacteria need to be inside the body in order to reproduce.
Over time, bacteria have developed resistance to some antibiotics.
Sepsis is a serious and sometimes deadly complication of bacterial infection.
Some bacteria inside the body are good and necessary to survival.
Mumps infection is primarily spread through:
all body fluids.
saliva and droplets.
airborne droplets and direct contact.
blood and saliva.
What role do health care workers play in handling public crises related to newly recognized infectious diseases?
They work closely with local health departments to determine the microbes responsible for the disease and how to treat them.
They disseminate information about diseases and their treatment to health care providers and institutions.
They implement the steps outlined by the CDC and other agencies to reduce the number of people who become infected.
They report information about the outbreaks to the public and share information about the prevalence and spread of the conditions.
Which of the following individuals is likely in the incubation period of chickenpox?
A) A patient with a fever and a rash on the abdomen and back that began 3 days ago
B) A patient whose rash and fever went away a week ago
C) A patient who was exposed 6 days ago but does not yet have a fever or rash
D) A patient who was vaccinated last year, exposed 4 weeks ago, and shows no signs
You are called to the scene of a 13-year-old male with a fever and cough. Upon assessment, you note a red blotch rash on the face and trunk, and small bluish-white spots on the inside of the cheeks. Based on this presentation, the patient likely has:
chickenpox.
measles.
hepatitis A.
shingles.
Which of the following statements about sepsis is true?
Patients who use urinary catheters are at a decreased risk of sepsis because catheter use makes it harder for microbes to enter the urinary tract.
Treatment of sepsis has changed and improved over time, but the definition of the condition has remained relatively unchanged.
The exact pathway for the development of sepsis remains unclear, and most cases do not have a clearly defined source.
Infections of the lungs commonly lead to sepsis, but sepsis is not typically associated with cases of pneumonia.
Which of the following patients is at the lowest risk of developing sepsis?
A pediatric patient who has developed pneumonia in both lungs
A college-aged patient who breaks his arm in a skateboard crash
An elderly patient who is recovering from abdominal surgery
A patient with a compromised immune system who has a permanent gastrostomy tube
Which of the following best describes a difference between the systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) and the quick sepsis-related organ failure assessment (qSOFA)?
SIRS is more commonly used in the intensive care setting, whereas qSOFA is more commonly used in field assessments.
SIRS creates a score based on the number of abnormal findings, whereas qSOFA uses the presence of two or more specific criteria.
SIRS relies on the measurement of exhaled carbon dioxide to detect sepsis, whereas qSOFA uses a variety of measures.
SIRS is used to predict the likelihood a patient will develop sepsis, whereas qSOFA is used to predict the likelihood of patient death from sepsis.
You are called to the scene of a patient with influenza. She tells you her symptoms started about 5 days ago and that she began taking antiviral medication 2 days ago. Her symptoms have not improved since taking the medication. What is the most likely reason the medication has been ineffective?
Antiviral medications for the flu work against the strains of the virus that are expected to be prevalent that year, and the medication isn't effective against the strain this patient has.
Antiviral medication is often ineffective because the flu virus is capable of rapidly mutating inside the body.
Antiviral medications are not effective against the flu because it is caused by bacteria rather than a virus.
Antiviral medications for the flu must be started within 2 days of symptom onset to be effective.
Which of the following preventive measures is useful against all communicable diseases?
Covering sneezes and coughs
Vaccination
Standard Precautions
Hand washing
You have been called to the scene of a 19-year-old college student who is at his parents' house for the weekend. The patient complains of sensitivity to light and nausea. He also has a headache and is covered in what appears to be a red rash that does not blanch when pressed. Your partner asks the patient to sit up straight and then bring his chin down to his chest. For which of the following diseases is your partner assessing this patient?
Hepatitis C
Tuberculosis
Shingles
Meningitis
While caring for a patient known to have hepatitis B, you are splattered across the face with blood. You were not wearing eye protection at the time and some of the blood got onto your eyeball. You have never received your hepatitis B vaccination. Which of the following postexposure actions would not lower your risk of developing hepatitis B?
Washing your eye with water
Taking antiviral medication
Receiving immune globulin
Having the vaccination
Why is Lyme disease not considered a communicable disease?
The condition is not fatal.
A person with the disease cannot pass it to other people.
It is spread by an insect, not a bacteria, virus, or microbe.
A person can only pass the disease to another via contact with blood.
How does carbon monoxide cause toxic effects?
Preventing red blood cells from carrying oxygen
Preventing red blood cells from releasing carbon dioxide
Causing red blood cells to clump together
Preventing the blood from clotting
Which of the following is the most important means of managing a patient who has inhaled a poison, after the airway has been established?
Hyperventilation
Monitoring pulse oximetry
High concentrations of oxygen
Administering a specific antidote
Which patient would most likely benefit from the administration of activated charcoal?
45-year-old patient suffering from insecticide poisoning
8-year-boy who has a headache from carbon monoxide poisoning
18-year-old patient who is passed out from drinking too much beer
14-year-old female who overdoses on her grandfather's cardiac medication
Which of the following is the cause of the black residue found in a patient's mouth and nose following smoke inhalation?
Cyanide
Carbon
Carbon monoxide
Tar
Most cases of accidental poisoning involve which of the following?
Infants
Adolescents
Young children
Adults
Why would an EMT give activated charcoal to a patient who overdosed on a medication?
Activated charcoal prevents the patient from vomiting.
Activated charcoal binds to the medication, preventing absorption by the body.
Activated charcoal coats the intestinal tract, preventing absorption by the body.
Activated charcoal is the antidote to medication poisoning.
Which of the following is an injury that commonly occurs in alcoholic patients with even minor head injuries?
Subdural hematoma
Skull fracture
Intracerebral hematoma
Concussion
OxyContin is an example of which of the following types of drugs?
Barbiturate
Antidepressant
Appetite suppressant
Narcotic
Which of the following statements regarding syrup of ipecac is not true?
It causes vomiting in all patients with a single dose.
It has an immediate action.
It removes only about one-third of stomach contents.
It can cause a patient to aspirate stomach contents into the lungs.
Which of the following is least often seen in carbon monoxide poisoning?
Headache
Altered mental status
Cherry red lips
Nausea
Your patient is a conscious 16-year-old female who has ingested an unknown number of sleeping pills. Which of the following questions is least pertinent to the care of this patient?
Over what period of time did you take the pills?
Has anyone tried to treat you with anything?
How much do you weigh?
Who do these sleeping pills belong to?
Gamma hydroxybutyrate (GHB) is an example of which of the following types of drugs?
Volatile spirit
Stimulant
Depressant
Cannabis
When a substance enters the body through unbroken skin, it has entered the body by which of the following routes?
Ingestion
Injection
Absorption
Consumption
You respond to the county jail for a 48-year-old inmate arrested two days ago for public intoxication. Guards state the patient is a known alcoholic and "frequent flier." The guards state that for several hours the patient was "acting crazy" and seeing "bugs on the walls." The patient then began seizing and they called for an ambulance. You notice the patient is no longer seizing, diaphoretic, or confused. What condition do you suspect?
Delirium tremens
Acute episode of paranoid schizophrenia
LSD abuse
Alcohol poisoning
It is a chilly fall morning and you are called to an RV campground for three patients who are complaining of headache, dizziness, and nausea. Your primary assessment reveals that they are cyanotic and have an altered mental status. You suspect:
bee sting.
food poisoning.
carbon monoxide poisoning.
snake bite.
Which of the following is not part of the treatment for a 15-year-old female who has swallowed drain cleaner?
Maintain the airway.
Administer activated charcoal.
Call medical control.
Administer milk or water.
Your patient is a 38-year-old male who has taken an overdose of several different medications and has consumed some household cleaning agents as well. On your arrival, the patient only responds to painful stimuli and has a heart rate of 90 beats per minute with a respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute. Medical control orders you to give the patient two to three glasses of milk to drink to dilute the contents of the stomach. Which of the following actions should you do?
Assist the patient in drinking as much of the two to three glasses of milk as he can.
Refuse the order and explain why.
Assist the patient in drinking only one glass of milk to reduce the risk of aspiration.
Ask medical control if you can substitute water for the milk since water will not damage the lungs if aspirated.
A patient has a dry powder poison covering both upper extremities and chest. You should:
cover the patient's arms with a burn sheet to preserve the powder for the emergency room.
brush the powder off and irrigate the contaminated area with large amounts of water.
flush the area with large amounts of water and then brush the remaining poison off.
immediately wash the powder off to prevent further exposure.
You are called to the residence of a 78-year-old widow who lives alone with no children. She was found by neighbors on the floor of the living room. She has fallen and fractured her left humerus. She is disoriented and responds to verbal stimuli only. She has a blood pressure of 78/40 and a pulse of 48. She has a history of high blood pressure and takes medication for it. She also takes medication for high cholesterol and a medication to slow down a fast heart rate. Emergency Medical Responders find the medication bottles in the medicine cabinet and they are empty. Your partner suspects that she overdosed on her medications. Do you agree or disagree?
Agree. It is obvious that the broken arm is causing the decreased heart rate.
Disagree. The vital signs indicate that she has not taken her medication in several days.
Agree. The vital signs agree with this hypothesis.
Disagree. The patient's vital signs are related to her broken arm.
Smoke inhalation can result in all of the following except:
A) respiratory arrest.
B) cardiac arrest.
C) carbon monoxide poisoning.
D) lung contusion.
