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Quiz on Urea and Nitrogen Metabolism

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is the principal excretory product of nitrogen metabolism in humans?

a)

Ammonia

b)

Creatinine

c)

Urea

d)

Uric Acid

2.

Non-protein nitrogenous compounds are mainly measured in the laboratory to assess:

a)

Protein absorption

b)

Renal function

c)

Liver enzyme activity

d)

Muscle contraction

3.

Which of the following is NOT considered part of non-protein nitrogen substances?

a)

Creatinine

b)

Uric Acid

c)

Urea

d)

Albumin

4.

Which NPN compound is neurotoxic when elevated in plasma?

a)

Uric acid

b)

Creatinine

c)

Ammonia

d)

Urea

5.

A patient with uncontrolled elevation of NPN compounds may ultimately require:

a)

Hydration therapy

b)

Insulin therapy

c)

Dialysis

d)

Iron therapy

6.

The first metabolite to increase in kidney disease is:

a)

Creatinine

b)

Uric Acid

c)

Urea

d)

Ammonia

7.

Urea is synthesized in the:

a)

Kidney

b)

Liver

c)

Small intestine

d)

Pancreas

8.

Which factor has the least effect on urea levels in blood?

a)

Protein intake

b)

Hydration status

c)

Protein metabolism

d)

Plasma glucose level

9.

Urea excretion is approximately what percent by the kidneys?

a)

60%

b)

75%

c)

90%

d)

100%

10.

Which conversion is correct?

a)

Urea × 2.14 = BUN

b)

BUN × 2.14 = Urea

c)

BUN ÷ 2.14 = Urea

d)

Urea × 0.357 = BUN

11.

Azotemia refers to:

a)

High urea in urine

b)

High plasma urea without renal failure

c)

Low blood nitrogen levels

d)

Urea retention with renal failure

12.

Uremia is best described as:

a)

Elevated plasma ammonia

b)

Elevated plasma urea with renal failure

c)

Reduced urea excretion in urine only

d)

High uric acid due to gout

13.

Acute glomerulonephritis causing increased urea is classified as:

a)

Pre-renal azotemia

b)

Renal azotemia

c)

Post-renal azotemia

d)

Mixed azotemia

14.

Which condition is LEAST likely to cause pre-renal azotemia?

a)

CHF

b)

Hemorrhage

c)

Diabetic nephropathy

d)

Shock

15.

Post-renal azotemia is most likely caused by:

a)

Polycystic kidney disease

b)

Tumor obstruction of urinary tract

c)

Renal tubular necrosis

d)

Glomerulonephritis

16.

The Fearon reaction is also known as:

a)

Caraway Method

b)

Diacetyl monoxime method

c)

Berthelot’s Reaction

d)

Jaffe’s Reaction

17.

Nessler’s reagent produces what color end-product when reacting with ammonia?

a)

Blue

b)

Red

c)

Yellow

d)

Green

18.

Berthelot’s reaction yields what color?

a)

Blue

b)

Yellow

c)

Brown

d)

Violet

19.

The most frequently used enzymatic method for urea uses:

a)

Jaffe’s Reaction

b)

Urease-GLDH with NADH oxidation

c)

Phosphotungstic acid

d)

Conductimetric assay

20.

Which method is considered the reference method for urea measurement?

a)

Isotope Dilution Mass Spectrometry (IDMS)

b)

Diacetyl Monoxime

c)

Conductimetric method

d)

Urease-NADH oxidation

21.

Which is the most reliable index of glomerular filtration rate?

a)

Uric acid

b)

Creatinine clearance

c)

BUN

d)

Ammonia

22.

Creatinine is derived from:

a)

Creatine phosphate metabolism in muscle

b)

Amino acid deamination

c)

Purine metabolism

d)

Pyrimidine metabolism

23.

Creatine in urine has little diagnostic value because:

a)

It is rapidly excreted

b)

It is completely metabolized to creatinine

c)

It accumulates in blood

d)

It is not absorbed

24.

Which is used to evaluate the completeness of 24-hour urine collection?

a)

Creatinine excretion

b)

Urea nitrogen

c)

Uric acid

d)

Cystatin C

25.

Which is NOT true regarding creatinine?

a)

Proportional to muscle mass

b)

Affected by protein intake

c)

Freely filtered by glomeruli

d)

Not reabsorbed

26.

The formula for creatinine clearance includes:

a)

Plasma urea, urine urea, volume, time

b)

Plasma creatinine, urine creatinine, volume, time

c)

Serum uric acid, urine uric acid, time

d)

BUN, urine volume, time

27.

Reference range of creatinine clearance in adult males:

a)

65–95 mL/min

b)

85–125 mL/min

c)

75–112 mL/min

d)

120–150 mL/min

28.

In creatinine clearance computation, which correction is applied?

a)

Hematocrit

b)

Body Surface Area (BSA)

c)

Plasma albumin

d)

Total protein

29.

The estimated GFR (eGFR) formula includes correction for all EXCEPT:

a)

Age

b)

Gender

c)

Race

d)

Body mass index

30.

A patient with creatinine clearance of 30 mL/min is classified as:

a)

Normal

b)

Mild renal impairment

c)

Moderate renal impairment

d)

Severe renal impairment

31.

Uric acid is the end-product of metabolism of:

a)

Pyrimidines

b)

Proteins

c)

Purines

d)

Fatty acids

32.

Which condition shows decreased uric acid concentration?

a)

Gout

b)

Leukemia

c)

Chronic liver disease

d)

Polycythemia

33.

Which genetic disorder is associated with HGPRT deficiency?

a)

Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome

b)

Fanconi syndrome

c)

Wilson’s disease

d)

Tay-Sachs disease

34.

A patient undergoing chemotherapy develops sudden hyperuricemia. The likely mechanism is:

a)

Reduced excretion

b)

Increased purine catabolism from tumor lysis

c)

Impaired protein catabolism

d)

Decreased liver function

35.

Which drug inhibits xanthine oxidase to reduce uric acid formation?

a)

Probenecid

b)

Colchicine

c)

Allopurinol

d)

Sulfinpyrazone

36.

The Caraway method uses which reagent?

a)

Phosphotungstic acid

b)

Diacetyl monoxime

c)

Nessler’s salt

d)

Jaffe’s reagent

37.

Interference in Caraway’s method may come from:

a)

Proteins and lipids

b)

Urease inhibitors

c)

Hemoglobin only

d)

Sodium fluoride

38.

The enzymatic method for uric acid is based on:

a)

Uricase oxidation at 293 nm

b)

Urease-GLDH method

c)

Diacetyl monoxime

d)

Conductimetry

39.

Which anticoagulant should NOT be used for uric acid measurement?

a)

Lithium heparin

b)

EDTA

c)

Sodium heparin

d)

None of the above

40.

Falsely decreased uric acid may occur with:

a)

Bilirubin and hemolysis

b)

Thiazides

c)

Salicylates

d)

Alcohol ingestion

41.

Ammonia is mainly produced by:

a)

Muscle metabolism and gut flora

b)

Purine metabolism

c)

Creatine breakdown

d)

Fatty acid oxidation

42.

The primary clinical concern with elevated plasma ammonia is:

a)

Renal failure

b)

Hepatic encephalopathy

c)

Gout

d)

Polycythemia

43.

Ammonia concentration is normally kept low because it is:

a)

Rapidly reabsorbed in renal tubules

b)

Converted to urea in the liver

c)

Converted to uric acid in the kidney

d)

Excreted unchanged

44.

Which of the following causes falsely increased ammonia results?

a)

Delayed sample separation

b)

Hemolysis

c)

Poor refrigeration

d)

All of the above

45.

Which specimen is most appropriate for plasma ammonia determination?

a)

Heparinized plasma on ice

b)

Citrated plasma at room temperature

c)

Serum without anticoagulant

d)

EDTA plasma

46.

Which of the following NPN substances is most directly related to dietary protein intake?

a)

Uric Acid

b)

Urea

c)

Creatinine

d)

Ammonia

47.

Which NPN compound is least affected by diet?

a)

Urea

b)

Creatinine

c)

Ammonia

d)

Uric Acid

48.

Which NPN marker is most useful in evaluating diabetic nephropathy?

a)

Creatinine clearance

b)

Microalbuminuria

c)

BUN

d)

Uric acid

49.

Which marker is the best for early renal disease detection?

a)

Serum creatinine

b)

eGFR

c)

Cystatin C

d)

Uric Acid

50.

A patient with joint pain, birefringent crystals in synovial fluid, and high uric acid most likely has:

a)

Osteoarthritis

b)

Rheumatoid arthritis

c)

Gout

d)

Pseudogout