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H12-811 HCIA-Datacom Part 7

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The controller is the core component of SDN. The controller is connected to the device through the southbound interface. The following is missing from the controller southbound agreement?

a)

SNMP

b)

PCEP

c)

OpenFlow

d)

NETCONF

2.

After the two routers are configured with OSPF, the administrator configures the command on RTA. The following description is correct?

a)

The neighbor relationship between the two routers will be down

b)

The neighbor relationship between the two routers will not be affected

c)

RTA will no longer send OSPF packets

d)

RTA will continue to receive and analyze and process OSPF packets sent by RTB.

3.

Which of the following statements about the default route are correct?

a)

If the destination address of the message cannot match any other routing entries in the routing table, the router will forward the message according to the default route

b)

There must be a default route in the routing table of any router

c)

The default route can only be manually configured by the administrator

d)

In the routing table, the default route appears in the form of a route to the network 0.0.0.0 (the mask is also 0.0.0.0)

4.

The function of the OSPF hello message is?

a)

Neighbor discovery

b)

Maintain neighbor relations

c)

Update LSA Information

d)

Synchronize the LSDB of the router

5.

The output information of the sub-interface of a router aggregate port 1 is shown in the figure.

According to this information, which of the following statements are correct? (Multiple choice)

a)

The sub-interface number of the aggregate port is 100.

b)

The sub-interface of the aggregated port carries the VLAN when forwarding data frames

c)

There are two links on the aggregation port

d)

The IP address of the sub-interface of the aggregate port is 10.0.12.2/24

6.

On Huawei AR G3 series routers, what authentication modes does AAA support?

a)

802.1x

b)

Local

c)

None

d)

HWTACACS

7.

The output information of a certain device is shown in the figure. Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

The IP address of the interface is 10.0.12.2

b)

The MAC address of the interface is 00e0-fc22-4fff

c)

The working rate of this interface is 1Gbps

d)

The MTU value of this interface is 1000

8.

To query the configuration information of the device ospf protocol, which of the following commands can be used?

a)

Enter the command "display this" in the ospf protocol view

b)

Display current-configuration

c)

Display ospf peer

d)

Dis ip routing-table

9.

The transmission rate of the Eth-Trunk port in manual link aggregation mode is related to?

a)

Number of member ports

b)

Bandwidth of member port

c)

Whether an IP address is configured on the member port

d)

Is the member port on the public or private network

10.

In order to realize the network layer function on the VLANIF interface, do you need to configure it on the VLANIF interface?

a)

MAC Address

b)

Subnet mask

c)

IP prefix

d)

IP address

11.

In the CAPWAP tunnel establishment phase, after AC receives the Join Request message sent by the AP, AC will check the validity of the AP. Which of the following is the authentication method supported by AC?

a)

SN certification

b)

Password certification

c)

MAC Authentication

d)

Not certified

12.

Which of the following statements about the S field in the MPLS packet header are correct?

a)

The s bit has only 1 bit in frame mode, and 2 bits in cell mode

b)

The s bit exists in every MPLS packet header

c)

Used to mark whether there are other labels behind this label, 1 means yes, 0 means no

d)

Used to mark whether there are other labels behind this label, 0 means yes, 1 means no

13.

Through SR (Segment Routing), an explicit path can be easily defined. The nodes in the network only need to maintain the Segment Routing information to cope with the real-time and rapid development of the business. What are the following characteristics of Segment Routing?

a)

Extending the existing protocol (eg IGP) can make the existing network better and smoothly evolve

b)

SR (Segment Routing) adopts IP forwarding, no extra dimensioning is required-a label forwarding table

c)

Source routing technology is used to provide the ability to quickly exchange text between the network and upper-layer applications

d)

At the same time, it supports the centralized control mode of the controller and the distributed control mode of the transponder, providing a balance between centralized control and distributed control

14.

Which of the following statements about IPv6 address configuration are correct?

a)

IPv6 supports DHCPv6 for address configuration

b)

IPv6 address supports automatic configuration in multiple ways

c)

IPv6 addresses can only be configured manually

d)

IPv6 supports stateless automatic configuration

15.

Which of the following descriptions about the OSPF area is correct?

a)

All networks should be declared in zone 0

b)

The number of the backbone area cannot be 2

c)

Before configuring the OSPF area, you must configure an IP address for the loopback interface of the router

d)

The number range of the area is from 0.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.255

16.

The route entry 10.0.0.24 may be aggregated from which of the following subnet routes?

a)

10.0.0.23

b)

10.0.0.28

c)

10.0.0.26

d)

10.0.0.24

17.

Which of the following statements about single-arm routing are correct?

a)

One physical connection per VLAN

b)

Only one physical link is used between the switch and the router to connect

c)

On the switch, configure the port connected to the router as a Trunk port and allow the relevant VLAN frames to pass

d)

Need to create a subinterface on the router

18.

Which of the following statements about IPv6 anycast addresses are correct?

a)

Anycast address and unicast address use the same address space

b)

Provide additional functions for the service

c)

The packet whose destination address is the anycast address will be sent to the nearest network interface in the sense of routing

d)

Realize service load sharing

19.

Which of the following options describes the concept of the IEV architecture correct?

a)

MANO is composed of NFVO, VNFN and VIM

b)

VFM, Virtual network function management, responsible for the life cycle management of VNF

c)

VIM (Virtualized Infrastructure Manager) virtual resource management, responsible for the virtualization of infrastructure

d)

NFVO (Network Orchestrator), Responsible for business orchestration

20.

Regarding the control plane of the device, which of the following statements is correct?

a)

The control plane is responsible for the interaction of routing protocols between devices

b)

The control plane provides device monitoring capabilities

c)

The control plane is responsible for directing data forwarding

d)

The control plane is responsible for generating IP routing table

21.

Which of the following networks belong to a local area network?

a)

A home network

b)

A company office network

c)

Internet

d)

Broadband Metropolitan Area Network

22.

Which of the following features does the OSPF protocol have?

a)

Support area division

b)

Prone to routing loops

c)

Calculate the shortest path based on the number of hops

d)

Trigger update

23.

Which of the following elements are included in the routing table?

a)

Interface

b)

Destination/mask

c)

Nexthop

d)

Protocol

e)

Cost

24.

Which of the following fields are present in both IPv6 and IPv4 packet headers?

a)

Next Header

b)

Destination Address

c)

Version

d)

Source Address

25.

What are the three sources for routers to obtain routing entries?

a)

Aggregate routing

b)

Static routing

c)

Dynamic routing

d)

Direct route

26.

Is there any correct statement about the TTL field in the IPv4 header?

a)

The range of TTL value is 0-255

b)

Each time a message passes through a three-layer device, TTL value minus 1

c)

TTL value length is 8bit

d)

When routing loops occur, the TTL value can be used to prevent data packets from being forwarded indefinitely

27.

Which of the following MAC addresses cannot be used as the MAC address of the host network card?

a)

03-04-05-06-07-08

b)

00-02-03-04-05-06

c)

02-03-04-05-06-d7

d)

01-02-03-04-05-06

28.

An ACL rule is as follows: Which of the following IP addresses can be matched by permit rules?

rule5per mit ip source10.0.1.00.0.254.255*

a)

10.0.3.4

b)

10.0.1.2

c)

10.0.4.5

d)

10.0.2.3

29.

In the network shown in the figure below, there are the following configurations in Router A. Which of the following statements is correct?

ip route-static 10.0.2.2 255.255.255.255 10.0.12.2

Route-static 10.0.2.2 255.255.255.255 10.0.21.2 preference 40

a)

The Next Hop in the routing table of Router A reaches 10.0.2.2. Hop is 10.0.21.2

b)

The Next Hop in the routing table of Router A reaches 10.0.2.2. Hop is 10.0.12.2

c)

If the G0/0 port is Down, then Router A reaches 10.0.2.2. The route NextHop is changed to 10.0.12.2

d)

If the G0/0 port is Down, the route NextHop from Router A to 10.0.2.2 is changed to 10.0.21.2

30.

Which of the following statements about RA and RS messages in IPv6 are correct?

a)

RA is used to request address prefix information

b)

RS is used to request address prefix information

c)

RA is used to reply address prefix information

d)

RS is used to reply address prefix information

31.

In what ways does VRP support router configuration?

a)

Configure the router via FTP

b)

Configure the router through the mini USB port

c)

Configure the router through the Console port

d)

Configure the router via Telnet

32.

If the IP address of a host in the LAN is 192.168.1.1/30, which of the following IP addresses will be processed by the host as the destination address of the IP packet?

a)

192.168.1.3

b)


192.168.1.1

c)

192.168.1.2

d)

255.255.255.255

33.

After a fault occurs in the network, the administrator finds that the configuration of a certain router has been modified through troubleshooting. What measures should the administrator take to avoid this situation from happening again?

a)

The administrator should configure ACL to control that only the administrator can log in to the device

b)

The administrator should enable port-security on the routed management port

c)

The administrator should configure AAA to authenticate and authorize users who log in to the device

d)

The administrator should configure the permission level of all accounts except the administrator to log in to the device

34.

When the LCP phase of PPP is negotiated, the content of the negotiation includes?

a)

MRU

b)

Authentication protocol

c)

Magic word

d)

IP address

35.

Which NAT can convert multiple private network addresses into one public network address to access the public network at the same time?

a)

Static NAT

b)

Dynamic NAT

c)

NAPT

d)

Easy IP

36.

NAT configuration is as follows, which IP can be converted when accessing the public network?

(RTA) acl2000 (RTA-acl-basic-2000) rule5 permit source 192.168.1.00.0.0.255 RTA-acl-basic-2000) rule 10 permit source 192.168. 2.0 0.0.0.255 RTA-acl-basic-2000)quit RTA)interface serial1/0/0 (RTA-Serial1/0/0 )nat outbound 2000 address-group1 no-pat *

a)

192.168.1.254

b)

192.168.2.222

c)

198.162.1.222

d)

100.1.1.3

37.

What are the ACL classifications?

a)

Basic ACL

b)

Advanced ACL

c)

Layer 2 ACL

d)

User-defined ACL

38.

The NAT configuration is as follows, which IP can be converted when accessing the public network?

(RTA) acl2000 (RTA-acl-basic-2000) rule5 permit source 192.168.1.00.0.0.255 RTA-acl-basic-2000) rule

10 deny source 192.168. 1.30 (RTA-acl-basic-2000) quit RTA) interface serial1/0/0 (RTA-Serial1/0/0) nat outbound 2000*

a)

192.168.1.1

b)

192.168.2.1

c)

192.168.1.2

d)

192.168.1.3

39.

DHCP is called Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol. It mainly assigns IP addresses and DNS information to hosts automatically. The messages used are?

a)

discover

b)

Offer(Provided)

c)

request

d)

ACK (acknowledgement)

40.

The processing behavior of the data frame received by the switch is?

a)

Forward

b)

Flooding

c)

Throw away

d)

Forward from the receiving port

41.

The routing table is generated by?

a)

Direct connection

b)

Static

c)

OSPF

d)

ISIS

42.

The routing table is generated by?

a)

Direct connection

b)

Static

c)

Dynamic routing protocol

d)

ISIS

43.

OSPF protocol needs to elect DR and BDR in which of the following network types?

a)

Point-to-multipoint

b)

NBMA

c)

Point-to-point type

d)

Broadcast type

44.

The administrator cannot log in to the Huawei router through Telnet, but other administrators can log in normally, so which of the following are the possible reasons?

a)

The authority level of the administrator user account has been modified to 0

b)

The administrator user account has been disabled

c)

The Telnet service of the AR2200 router has been disabled

d)

The administrator user account has been deleted

45.

Which of the following features does the OSPF protocol have?

a)

Easy to produce routing loops

b)

Calculate the shortest path by number

c)

Support area division

d)

Trigger update

46.

Which of the following fields does the MPLS header include?

a)

EXP

b)

TTL

c)

Label

d)

Tos

47.

What are the user authentication methods that can be deployed in WLAN?

a)

Portal authentication

b)

MAC Authentication

c)

Radius certification

d)

802.1X authentication

48.

Which of the following IEEE802.11 standards support operation in the 5GHz frequency band?

a)

802.11ac

b)

802.11n

c)

802.11g

d)

802.11a

49.

Which of the following statements about IPv6 address configuration is correct?

a)

IPv6 supports stateless automatic configuration

b)

IPv6 addresses can only be configured manually

c)

IPv6 address supports automatic configuration of multiple clocks

d)

IPv6 supports DHCPv6 for address configuration

50.

How to add AP on AC?

a)

Import AP offline

b)

Automatically discover AP

c)

Add online

d)

Manually confirm APs in the non-certified list

51.

Which of the following refers to network communication?

a)

Use instant messaging software (such as: QQ, WeChat) to chat with friends

b)

Use a computer to access the company's official website

c)

Use computer to watch videos online

d)

Download emails from the company mailbox to your computer

52.

Which of the following fields does the ARP packet format contain?

a)

Hardware Type

b)

Protocol Address of sender

c)

Operation Code

d)

Protocol Type

53.

Which of the following attributes cannot be used as a measure of the parameter of cost?

a)

bandwidth

b)

Sysname

c)

Time delay

d)

Hop count

54.

If the Ethernet data frame Length/Type=0X0806, which statement is correct?

a)

The source MAC of the secondary data frame. The address must not be FFFF-FFFF-FFFF

b)

This data frame is an IEEE802.3 frame

c)

The secondary data frame is Ethernet frame

d)

The destination MAC of this data frame. The address may be FFFF-FFFF-FFFF

55.

What are the advantages of using dynamic host configuration protocol DHCP to assign IP addresses?

a)

Heavy workload and difficult to manage

b)

can be realized IP address reuse

c)

avoid IP address conflict

d)

When the configuration information changes (such as DNS), only the administrator needs to modify it on the DHCP server, which is convenient for unified management

56.

Network administrators use Ping to test the connectivity of the network. Which of the following protocols may be used in this process?

a)

ICMP

b)

UDP

c)

TCP

d)

ARP

57.

Which of the following descriptions about OSPF's DD packets and LSA is correct?

a)

The header of an LSA can uniquely identify an LSA

b)

The LSA header is only a small part of the LSA

c)

The DD packet contains the detailed information of the LSA

d)

DD packets only contain the header information of LSA

58.

The following statement about the main functions of the router is wrong?

a)

Realize the mutual communication between the same network disconnection equipment

b)

According to the source of the received packet IP address for forwarding

c)

Establish routing table through multiple protocols

d)

Guide data forwarding according to the routing table

59.

Which of the following port states does the RSTP protocol include?

a)

Learning

b)

Discarding

c)

Listening

d)

Forwarding

60.

Which of the following types does IPv6 address include?

a)

Unicast address

b)

Broadcast address

c)

Multicast address

d)

Anycast address

61.

Which of the following are related to the purpose of encapsulation and decapsulation?

a)

Encapsulation and decapsulation are important steps to realize the functions of different protocols

b)

Interworking between different networks

c)

Shorten the length of the message

d)

Encapsulation and decapsulation can complete network fault location

62.

The network administrator hopes that the data packets sent from host A to host B pass through the G0/0 interface between routers, and the data packets sent from host B to host A pass through G0/0 interface. Which of the following commands can achieve this requirement?

a)

RTA: ip route-static 10.0.12.5 255.255.255.252 11.0.12.2

RTB: ip route-static 10.0.12.1 255.255.255.252 11.0.12.5

b)

RTA: ip route-static 10.0.12.5 255.255.255.252 11.0.12.6

RTB: ip route-static 10.0.12.1 255.255.255.252 11.0.12.1

c)

RTA: ip route-static 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 11.0.12.2

RTB: ip route-static 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 11.0.12.5

d)

RTA: ip route-static 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 11.0.12.6

RTB: ip route-static 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 11.0.12.1

63.

Compared with STP, which of the following port roles are newly defined in RSTP?

a)

Designated port

b)

Root port

c)

Alternate port

d)

Backup port

64.

Which of the configurations in the following options belong to a Layer 2 ACL?

a)

rule 10 permit 12-protocol arp

b)

rule 25 permit source 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0

c)

rule 20 permit source-mac 0203-0405-0607

d)

rule 15 permit vlan-id 100

65.

Which of the following functions does the LCP protocol in the PPP protocol support?

a)

Negotiate network layer address

b)

Negotiate authentication agreement

c)

Detect link loop

d)

Negotiated maximum receiving unit MRU

66.

Which extension headers are supported by IPv6 packets?

a)

Destination option extension header

b)

Fragment extension header

c)

Hop-by-hop option extension header

d)

VLAN extension header

67.

Which of the following are not open interfaces for Huawei network equipment?

a)

NETCONF

b)

RESTCONF

c)

JSON

d)

XML

68.

Is there any correct statement about the shortcut keys of the VRP operating platform?

a)

TAB. Prompt for the most recently entered command

b)

CTRL+C. Stop the current command

c)

The left cursor key (<) moves the cursor one place to the left.

d)

CTRL+Z back to user view

69.

On the switch, which VLANs can be deleted by using the undo command?

a)

vlan 4094

b)

vlan 2

c)

vlan 1

d)

vlan 1024

70.

The following description of the Forwarding status in the spanning tree protocol is wrong?

a)

Ports in the Forwarding state can forward data packets

b)

The port in the Forwarding state does not learn the source MAC address of the packet.

c)

Ports in the Forwarding state can receive BPDU packets

d)

Ports in the Forwarding state must send BPDU message

71.

Which devices are generally involved in WLAN deployment schemes in enterprise scenarios?

a)

AC (Access Controller)

b)

Poe switch

c)

CPE

d)

AP

72.

Which of the following statements about IPv6 RA and RS messages are correct?

a)

RS is used to reply address prefix information

b)

RS is used to request address prefix information

c)

RA is used to request address prefix information

d)

RA is used to reply address prefix information

73.

Link aggregation is a common technology in enterprise networks. Which of the following descriptions are the advantages of link aggregation technology?

a)

Improve safety

b)

Improve reliability

c)

Achieve load sharing

d)

Increase bandwidth

74.

In the STP protocol, which of the following factors will affect the election of the root switch?

a)

IP address of the switch

b)

Switch interface ID

c)

Switch interface bandwidth port

d)

Switch priority

e)

MAC address of the switch

75.

In order to realize the network layer function on the VLANIF interface, need to be configured on the VLANIF interface?

a)

Subnet mask

b)

MAC Address

c)

IP prefix

d)

IP address

76.

In the STP protocol, which of the following factors will affect the election of the root switch?

a)

MAC address of the switch

b)

IP address of the switch

c)

Switch priority

d)

Switch interface bandwidth

e)

Switch interface ID

77.

The router uses the sub-interface as the gateway of the host, and the P address of the gateway is 10.0.12.2. Which of the following commands can achieve this requirement?

a)

Interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0.20 Dot1q termination vid 10 ip address 10.0.12.2 255.255.255.0 Arp broadcast enable

b)

Interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0.10 Dot1q termination vid 10 ip address 10.0.12.2 255.255.255.0 Arp broadcast enable

c)

Interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0.10 Dot1q termination vid 20 ip address 10.0.12.2 255.255.255.0 Arp broadcast enable

d)

Interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0.20 Dot1q termination vid 20 ip address 10.0.12.2 255.255.255.0 Arp broadcast enable

78.

Router A and Router B are established OSPF neighbor relationship, the OSPF process number of router A is 1, and the area number is 0. Which of the following configurations on router A can enable router B to obtain the route of the network segment where host A is located?

a)

ospf 1 area 0.0.0.0 network 192.168.1.2 0.0.0.0

b)

ospf 1 import-route direct

c)

ospf 1 area 0.0.0.0 network 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255

d)

ospf 1 area 0.0.0.0 network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255

79.

How to enter in the VRP operating system view of SPF area 0?

a)

(Huawei-ospf-1) area 0 enable

b)

(Huawei-ospf-1) area 0

c)

(Huawei) ospf area 0

d)

(Huawei-ospf-1) area 0.0.0.0

80.

After OSPF is configured on the two routers, the administrator configures commands on RTA. Which of the following descriptions is correct?

a)

The neighbor relationship between the two routers will be down

b)

RTA will no longer send OSPF packets

c)

The neighbor relationship between the two routers will not be affected

d)

RTA will continue to receive and analyze and process OSPF packets sent by RIB.

81.

What command line views exist on the VRP operating platform?

a)

User view

b)

Interface view

c)

Agreement view

d)

System view

82.

What are the functions of OSPF protocol DR and BDR?

a)

Reduce the number of adjacencies

b)

Reduce the types of OSPF protocol packets

c)

Reduce the time to establish adjacency

d)

Reduce the number of exchanges of link state information

83.

Which of the following statements about the various versions of the SNMP protocol are correct?

a)

The SNMPv2C message has the functions of identity verification and encryption processing.

b)

SNMPv3 messages have the functions of identity verification and encryption processing.

c)

SNMPv1 uses UDP as the transport layer protocol, while SNMPv2C and SNMPv3 use TCP as the transport layer protocol, so the reliability is higher.

d)

SNMPv2C follows the 5 protocol operations defined in the v1 version and adds two additional operations.

84.

Which of the following statements about IPv6 anycast addresses are correct?

a)

The group anycast address and the single address address use the same address space

b)

Back to provide services with more than functions

c)

The packet whose destination address is the anycast address will be sent to the nearest network interface in the sense of routing

d)

Back to achieve service load sharing

85.

Which of the following options describes the concept of NFV architecture correct?

a)

MANO is composed of NFVO, VNFM and VIM

b)

NFVO (NFV Orchestrator). Responsible for business orchestration.

c)

VIM (Virtualised Infrastructure Manager) virtual resource management is responsible for the virtualization of infrastructure.

d)

VNFM. Virtual network function management, responsible for the life cycle management of VNF.

86.

What is the role of link aggregation?

a)

Improve network reliability

b)

Increase bandwidth

c)

Facilitate analysis of data

d)

Achieve load sharing

87.

The router enables the FTP service, the user name and password are both huawei and the root directory of FTP is set to flash:/dhcp/. Which of the following commands must be configured?

a)

ftp server enable

b)

local-user huawei ftp-directory flash:/dhcp/

c)

local-user huawei password

d)

local-user huawei service-type ftp

88.

Which of the following applications is based on the TCP protocol?

a)

Ping

b)

TFTP

c)

FTP

d)

HTTP

89.

Which of the following statements about the election of DR and BDR are correct?

a)

BDR must exist in broadcast networks

b)

If the priority is the same, compare the Router ID, the larger the value, the more preferred to be elected as the DR

c)

DR must exist in broadcast networks

d)

If the priority of an interface is low, the interface will not participate in the election of DR or BDR

90.

What are the stable states of OSPF neighbor relationship?

a)

2-way

b)

Down

c)

Attempt

d)

Full

91.

When OSPF protocol establishes adjacency, which of the following parameters must be consistent?

a)

Router ID

b)

Area ID

c)

Router Priority

d)

Router Dead Interval

92.

Which of the following parameters need to be considered when electing a root port in STP?

a)

Port priority

b)

Port slot number, such as G0/0

c)

Duplex mode of the port

d)

The cost of the port reaching the root switch

e)

MAC address of the port

93.

The LACP mode of link aggregation uses LACPDU to elect the active end. What information in LACPDU is the basis for electing the active end of LACP?

a)

Interface priority

b)

Device priority

c)

MAC address

d)

Interface number

94.

Which of the following elements are included in the routing table?

a)

Interface

b)

Destination/Mask

c)

Protocol

d)

Next Hop

95.

The output information of a router is shown in the figure. Which of the following statements are correct?

a)

VRP used version document and the VRP file used for the next startup are different

b)

The configuration file currently used is different from the configuration file used for the next startup

c)

The current VRP version file is the same as the VRP file used for the next startup

d)

The current configuration file used is the same as the configuration file used for the next startup

96.

Which authorization modes are supported by AAA on Huawei ARG3 series routers?

a)

Not authorized

b)

HWTACACS authorization

c)

Local authorization

d)

Authorization after successful RADIUS authentication

97.

An AR2200 router needs to restore the initial configuration, which of the following operations are necessary?

a)

Clear current configuration

b)

Re-specify the configuration file to be loaded at the next startup

c)

Reset saved configuration

d)

Restart the AR2200 router

98.

In order to detect the connectivity status of the CAPWAP tunnel, after the CAPWAP tunnel is established, which of the following CAPWAP messages is used by the AC for detection?

a)

Hello

b)

DPD

c)

Keepalive

d)

Echo

99.

When configuring the PPP authentication mode as PAP, which of the following operations are necessary?

a)

Configure the data link layer encapsulation type of the interface connected to the peer device to PPP

b)

Add the user name and password of the authenticated party to the authenticating party's local user list

c)

Set the authentication mode of PPP to CHAP

d)

Configure the user name and password sent to the authenticating party on the authenticated party

100.

Which of the following statements about the default route are correct?

a)

If the destination address of the message cannot match any other routing entries in the routing table, the router will forward the message according to the default route

b)

The default route can only be manually configured by the administrator

c)

There must be a default route in the routing table of any router

d)

In the routing table, the default route appears in the form of a route to the network 0.0.0.0 (the mask is also 0.0.0.0)