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Historia de la Tecnología Sanitaria

Total questions: 138

Worksheet time: 1hrs 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

¿Quién desarrolló el primer dispositivo de resonancia magnética?

a)

Graeme Clark

b)

Raymond Damadian

c)

Miles Edwards

d)

Paul Zoll

2.

¿Qué dispositivo se utilizó por primera vez en 1976 para la reanimación neonatal?

a)

Desfibrilador automático implantable

b)

Incubadora portátil

c)

Sistema de presión positiva continua en las vías respiratorias (CPAP)

d)

Marcapasos externo

3.

¿Quién inventó el CPAP neonatal?

a)

Wilson Greatbatch

b)

Graeme Clark

c)

George Gregory

d)

John Charnley

4.

¿En qué año se implantó el primer corazón artificial total en humanos?

a)

1970

b)

1978

c)

1982

d)

1993

5.

¿Quién realizó el primer implante de corazón artificial total?

a)

Miles Edwards

b)

Graeme Clark

c)

Raymond Damadian

d)

John Gibbon

6.

¿Qué se publicó en 1982 como un avance importante en bioingeniería?

a)

Directrices para la creación de corazones artificiales

b)

Primeras directrices para la biocompatibilidad de biomateriales

c)

Manuales de resonancia magnética

d)

Instrucciones para el uso de válvulas cardíacas

7.

¿En qué año se introdujo el primer sistema robótico para la neurocirugía?

a)

1977

b)

1985

c)

1990

d)

1993

8.

¿Qué hito se alcanzó en 1993 con respecto a los dispositivos médicos?

a)

Primera válvula cardíaca

b)

Publicación de directrices de calidad para hospitales

c)

Publicación de normas ISO 9000 para instituciones médicas

d)

Creación del primer corazón artificial

9.

Según la OMS, ¿qué es la tecnología de la salud?

a)

Solo medicamentos utilizados en hospitales

b)

La aplicación de conocimientos teóricos y prácticos en forma de dispositivos, medicamentos, vacunas, procedimientos y sistemas

c)

Un sistema de financiamiento para hospitales

d)

Exclusivamente biotecnología

10.

¿Qué expresión es equivalente a 'tecnología de la salud'?

a)

Tecnología biomédica

b)

Tecnología para la salud

c)

Biotecnología aplicada

d)

Tecnología médica industrial

11.

¿Cuál es el objetivo principal de la tecnología de la salud?

a)

Aumentar la producción farmacéutica

b)

Mejorar la calidad de vida

c)

Reducir los costos hospitalarios

d)

Reemplazar al personal médico

12.

¿Qué característica distingue a un dispositivo médico?

a)

Siempre actúa por mecanismos farmacológicos

b)

Actúa sobre el organismo sin mecanismos farmacológicos, inmunológicos o metabólicos

c)

Solo se utiliza en rehabilitación

d)

Siempre es desechable

13.

Un dispositivo médico se puede utilizar para:

a)

Prevención, diagnóstico o tratamiento

b)

Exclusivamente diagnóstico

c)

Solo cirugía mayor

d)

Investigación farmacéutica

14.

¿Qué diferencia el equipo médico de otros dispositivos médicos?

a)

No requiere calibración ni mantenimiento

b)

Requiere calibración, mantenimiento, reparación y capacitación del usuario

c)

Siempre es desechable

d)

Se utiliza solo en emergencias

15.

¿Cuál de los siguientes NO se considera equipo médico?

a)

Tomografía computarizada

b)

Marcapasos implantable

c)

Monitor multiparamétrico

d)

Ventilador mecánico

16.

La gestión de calidad de la tecnología de la salud busca:

a)

Reducir el gasto en salud

b)

Asegurar servicios seguros y efectivos

c)

Reemplazar al médico con tecnología

d)

Limitar el uso de equipos avanzados

17.

¿Cuál es el primer paso en la gestión de tecnología de la salud?

a)

Desarrollar protocolos quirúrgicos

b)

Determinar qué elementos necesitan ser gestionados y crear un inventario

c)

Comprar equipos médicos

d)

Desarrollar estándares nacionales

18.

¿Cuál es la principal utilidad de un inventario de tecnología de la salud?

a)

Estimar los costos de hospitalización

b)

Mejorar la gestión de aspectos clave de las tecnologías de la salud

c)

Clasificar a los pacientes en un hospital

d)

Capacitar al personal administrativo

19.

¿Qué regula la NOM-035-SSA3-2012 en su sección 9.4?

a)

Estadísticas de mortalidad

b)

Estadísticas de componentes de infraestructura en salud

c)

Control de medicamentos controlados

d)

Registro de personal médico

20.

¿Qué considera la estadística de infraestructura según la NOM-035?

4 lines
21.

¿Qué consideran las estadísticas de infraestructura según la NOM-035?

a)

Solo hospitales federales

b)

Establecimientos de salud, edificios y unidades móviles en operación

c)

Solo obras de nueva construcción

d)

Solo hospitales privados

22.

¿Qué documento asigna una clave única a cada establecimiento de salud en México?

a)

ISO 9000

b)

CLUES

c)

GMDN

d)

UMDNS

23.

¿Qué significa el acrónimo CLUES?

a)

Catálogo Latinoamericano de Unidades de Estudio en Salud

b)

Catálogo de Establecimientos de Salud

c)

Clasificación Universal de Establecimientos Sanitarios

d)

Código Local de Unidades Sanitarias

24.

¿Qué significa AAMI?

a)

Asociación para el Avance de la Instrumentación Médica

b)

Administración de Dispositivos Médicos Internacionales

c)

Agencia para la Asistencia Médica Internacional

d)

Asociación Americana de Medicina Interna

25.

¿Qué significa CMMS?

a)

Sistema de Gestión de Mantenimiento Computerizado

b)

Servicio de Gestión Médica Central

c)

Sistema de Monitoreo de Mantenimiento Clínico

d)

Control de Material Médico

26.

¿Qué significa GCTTS?

a)

Grupo Asesor Técnico sobre Tecnología de la Salud

b)

Gestión de Centros Técnicos para la Tecnología de la Salud

c)

Control Global de Sistemas de Telemedicina Técnica

d)

Grupo Científico sobre Tecnología y Salud

27.

¿Qué significa GIT?

a)

Iniciativa Global sobre Tecnologías de Salud

b)

Gestión Internacional de Terapias

c)

Grupo Integrado de Tecnologías

d)

Guía Internacional de Telemedicina

28.

¿Qué significa GMDN?

a)

Nomenclatura Global de Dispositivos Médicos

b)

Guía Mundial para el Diagnóstico Neurológico

c)

Gestión de Dispositivos Médicos en Sistemas Nacionales

d)

Grupo Mundial para el Desarrollo de Nomenclatura

29.

¿Qué significa UMDNS?

a)

Sistema de Nomenclatura de Dispositivos Médicos Universal

b)

Unidad de Dispositivos Médicos de Salud Nacional

c)

Sistema de Red de Datos Médicos Unificado

d)

Monitoreo Universal de Dispositivos en Sistemas de Enfermería

30.

¿Cuál de las siguientes opciones NO corresponde a la definición de tecnología de la salud según la OMS?

a)

Dispositivos médicos

b)

Procedimientos quirúrgicos

c)

Métodos farmacológicos

d)

Vacunas

31.

¿Cuál de las siguientes opciones NO es sinónima de 'tecnología de la salud'?

a)

Tecnología para la salud

b)

Tecnología médica industrial

c)

Tecnología de la salud

d)

Tecnología aplicada a la atención médica

32.

Los dispositivos médicos generalmente:

a)

Actúan a través de mecanismos inmunológicos

b)

Actúan a través de mecanismos farmacológicos

c)

Actúan a través de mecanismos metabólicos

d)

No actúan a través de mecanismos farmacológicos, inmunológicos o metabólicos

33.

¿Cuál de las siguientes opciones corresponde exclusivamente a equipos médicos y no a dispositivos médicos de un solo uso?

a)

Calibración

b)

Implante

c)

Desechable

d)

Administración oral

34.

¿Cuál de las siguientes opciones se considera equipo médico?

a)

Catéter desechable

b)

Marcapasos implantable

c)

Ventilador mecánico

d)

Guantes quirúrgicos

35.

¿Qué actividades forman parte de la gestión de equipos médicos?

a)

Calibración, mantenimiento, reparación, capacitación y retiro

b)

Solo calibración y capacitación

c)

Solo mantenimiento

d)

Solo reparación y calibración

36.

El primer paso en la gestión de tecnologías de la salud es:

a)

Comprar dispositivos médicos

b)

Capacitar a los usuarios

c)

Determinar qué elementos necesitan ser gestionados y crear un inventario

d)

Desarrollar estándares NOM

37.

El inventario de tecnologías de salud es un documento que debe:

a)

Mantenerse como un registro histórico sin modificaciones

b)

Revisarse solo al comienzo de cada año

c)

Verificarse y actualizarse periódicamente

d)

Usarse solo en auditorías externas

38.

¿Cuál es la principal utilidad del inventario de tecnologías de salud?

a)

Reducir los costos hospitalarios

b)

Mejorar la gestión de aspectos clave de las tecnologías

c)

Reemplazar funciones administrativas

d)

Controlar solo los medios

39.

¿Cuál es el propósito de la Ontario de tecnologías sanitarias?

a)

Reducir los costos hospitalarios

b)

Mejorar la gestión de aspectos clave de las tecnologías

c)

Reemplazar funciones administrativas

d)

Controlar solo medicamentos

40.

¿Qué permite la tecnología de la salud a los proveedores hacer?

a)

Solo monitorear pacientes

b)

Diagnosticar, atender, monitorear y tratar pacientes

c)

Solo aplicar vacunas

d)

Reducir el tiempo de hospitalización

41.

¿Cuál es el objetivo principal de la gestión de calidad en la tecnología de la salud?

a)

Eliminar el uso de equipos costosos

b)

Asegurar servicios seguros y efectivos

c)

Capacitar al personal de enfermería

d)

Clasificar el equipo como obsoleto o nuevo

42.

¿Qué considera las estadísticas de infraestructura de la NOM-035-SSA3-2012?

a)

Solo hospitales privados

b)

Solo obras terminadas en operación

c)

Establecimientos de salud, edificios y unidades móviles, incluso en construcción o fuera de servicio

d)

Solo edificios federales

43.

¿Qué sistema organiza el inventario funcional de las unidades de SNS en México?

a)

GMDN

b)

CLUES

c)

UMDNS

d)

ISO 9000

44.

¿Qué significa CLUES dentro de la NOM-035-SSA3-2012?

a)

Clasificación Local de Unidades de Emergencia en Salud

b)

Catálogo de Establecimientos en Salud

c)

Código Latinoamericano de Unidades Sanitarias

d)

Control de Ubicación de Unidades en Salud

45.

El sistema CLUES asigna una clave única para cada establecimiento considerando:

a)

La institución y la ubicación geográfica

b)

El número de camas

c)

El costo operativo anual

d)

El nivel académico del personal médico

46.

¿Qué significa el acrónimo AAMI?

a)

Asociación para el Avance de la Instrumentación Médica

b)

Asociación Americana de Medicina Interna

c)

Agencia Internacional de Gestión de Materiales

d)

Administración de la Industria de Dispositivos Médicos

47.

¿Qué significa el acrónimo CMMS?

a)

Sistema de Gestión de Mantenimiento Computerizado

b)

Sistema de Monitoreo Médico Clínico

c)

Software de Gestión Médica Central

d)

Control de Material Médico en Salud

48.

¿Qué significa GCTTS?

a)

Grupo Asesor Técnico sobre Tecnología de la Salud

b)

Guía de Clasificación Técnica para Tecnologías de la Salud

c)

Control Global de Sistemas Técnicos de Telemedicina

d)

Grupo Científico sobre Tecnología y Salud

49.

¿Qué significa GIT en inglés?

a)

Iniciativa Global sobre Tecnologías de Salud

b)

Grupo para Terapias Internacionales

c)

Telemedicina Internacional General

d)

Instituto Global de Tecnologías

50.

¿Qué significa GIT en español?

a)

Grupo Internacional de Tecnología de la Salud

b)

Iniciativa Global sobre Tecnologías de la Salud

c)

Guía para la Innovación Tecnológica

d)

Gestión Internacional de Telemedicina

51.

What does GMDN stand for?

a)

Global Medical Device Nomenclature

b)

World Guide to Neurological Diagnosis

c)

Global Standards Development Group

d)

National Medical Device Management

52.

What does UMDNS stand for?

a)

Universal Medical Device Nomenclature System

b)

National Medical Development Unit in Health

c)

Unified Medical Diagnostic Network System

d)

Universal Monitoring of Devices in Nursing Systems

53.

What is the main difference between GMDN and UMDNS?

a)

The former is a global nomenclature and the latter is a universal nomenclature

b)

GMDN classifies medications, UMDNS classifies devices

c)

GMDN applies in Mexico, UMDNS only in Europe

d)

GMDN is obsolete, UMDNS is current

54.

According to NOM-035-SSA3-2012, which of the following data must be reported about the health unit?

a)

Date of establishment of the unit

b)

Key and name of entity, municipality, and locality

c)

Number of employees per shift

d)

Brand of medical equipment

55.

The minimum information that must include the complete address of the health unit is:

a)

Street, number, neighborhood, and postal code

b)

Street, references, and geographical area

c)

Name of the director and number of beds

d)

Avenue, section, and subdivision

56.

Which of the following elements corresponds to the contact data of a health establishment?

a)

CURP of the responsible person

b)

Name of the responsible person, phone, and email

c)

IP address of the main computer

d)

Electronic signature of the director

57.

According to NOM-035-SSA3-2012, the statistics of medical equipment refer to:

a)

The equipment that has been decommissioned and discarded

b)

The technologies in operation that support diagnosis, treatment, and rehabilitation

c)

The equipment under repair for more than a year

d)

International donations of equipment

58.

The information about medical equipment must be integrated:

a)

At the level of the SNS establishment

b)

Only at the national level

c)

Exclusively in private hospitals

d)

Only by states

59.

What medical equipment is included in the minimum mandatory report?

a)

X-ray equipment

b)

Wheelchairs

c)

Clinical thermometers

d)

Stretchers

60.

Which of the following does NOT appear in the minimum list of medical equipment to report?

a)

Mammography equipment

b)

Hemodialysis machines

c)

Vital signs monitors

d)

Linear accelerators

61.

The registration of medical equipment must distinguish between:

a)

That acquired in Mexico and abroad

b)

That installed in medical service areas and that in storage

c)

That for pediatric use and that for geriatric use

d)

That new and that second-hand

62.

According to NOM-035-SSA3-2012, within the Normative Appendix 'A', areas such as:

a)

Intensive care unit

b)

Administrative offices

c)

Parking lots

d)

Staff cafeteria

63.

One of the units mentioned in the Normative Appendix 'A' is:

a)

Hemodialysis unit

b)

Organ transplant unit

c)

Labor psychology unit

d)

Alternative medicine unit

64.

Which of the following corresponds to a physical resource to report?

a)

Pharmacy

b)

Computer laboratory

c)

Hospital cafeteria

d)

Accounting office

65.

According to the Normative Appendix 'B', beds must be reported:

a)

According to their unit cost

b)

According to their location within an area of the unit

c)

According to the purchasing supplier

d)

According to the construction material

66.

What room is specified in the Normative Appendix 'B'?

a)

Hemodynamics room

b)

Expulsion room

c)

Meeting room

d)

General waiting room

67.

Within the physical resources of the Normative Appendix 'B' is found:

a)

Specialty consultancies

b)

Alternative medicine consultancies

c)

Staff rest rooms

d)

Administrative offices

68.

What is the main objective of maintaining an inventory of workshop tools and measuring equipment in a hospital?

a)

To prevent instruments from being lost

b)

To keep instruments organized, calibrated, and in good condition

c)

To reduce maintenance costs

d)

To facilitate the purchase of new equipment

69.

What type of equipment requires inventory to ensure the operation of hospital systems such as boilers or autoclaves?

a)

Only laboratory tools

b)

Industrial and hospital equipment

c)

Office equipment

d)

Cleaning materials

70.

Why is it important to maintain an inventory of safety equipment such as extinguishers and eyewash stations?

a)

To report them to the manufacturer

b)

To ensure they work when needed

c)

To increase the value of the hospital

d)

To reduce insurance

71.

Maintaining an inventory of radioactive and hazardous materials primarily helps to:

a)

Increase staff efficiency

b)

Properly manage and dispose of materials and avoid contamination

c)

Reduce the amount of waste

d)

Control the budget

72.

What information is linked to the inventory identification number of a medical device?

a)

Only the manufacturer

b)

Maintenance history, repairs, procedures, preventive maintenance schedule, and spare parts stock

c)

Only the purchase date

d)

Only the type of equipment

73.

What is the function of the inventory identification number in a medical device?

a)

Facilitate labeling

b)

Uniquely identify each device among all inventoried

c)

Increase the value of the equipment

d)

Indicate who purchased it

74.

In a sequential numbering system, what information does the assigned number provide?

a)

Type of equipment

b)

Manufacturer

c)

None, it only uniquely identifies

d)

Year of acquisition

75.

What is the main advantage of coded numbering?

a)

It is the simplest method

b)

It allows knowing the type of equipment, manufacturer, and specific unit with just the code

c)

It does not require a master list

d)

It does not need maintenance

76.

An inventory code 01-XXX-02 indicates:

a)

01: type of equipment, XXX: manufacturer, 02: second unit of the manufacturer

b)

01: manufacturer, XXX: type of equipment, 02: year of purchase

c)

01: serial number, XXX: location, 02: priority

d)

01: acquisition date, XXX: type of maintenance, 02: unit

77.

In the barcode, what is needed for it to work correctly?

a)

Adhesive and pencil

b)

Barcode reader and inventory management program

c)

Only the adhesive

d)

Only the computer

78.

To avoid confusion when there is no barcode reader, it is advisable to:

a)

Not use labels

b)

Also include the inventory identification number on the label

c)

Use colored labels

d)

Keep the number on a separate sheet

79.

Which of the following items belongs to the inventory of safety equipment?

a)

Autoclaves

b)

Eyewash stations

c)

Ultrasound machines

d)

Boilers

80.

Which of the following items belongs to the inventory of industrial and hospital equipment?

a)

Fire extinguishers

b)

Fire hoses

c)

Electric generators

d)

Radioactive materials

81.

What should be done when assigning the following number in a sequential numbering system?

a)

Choose any number at random

b)

Assign the next available number according to the master list

c)

Use the manufacturer's serial number

d)

Copy the number from the previous equipment

82.

Why is it useful for coded numbering to have parts that indicate specific characteristics of the equipment?

a)

To decorate the label

b)

So that anyone can obtain information about the equipment immediately

c)

To increase the price of the equipment

d)

To confuse suppliers

83.

What is the main disadvantage of sequential numbering?

a)

It is very complex

b)

The assigned number does not provide information about the equipment

c)

It requires special software

d)

It is expensive

84.

What is needed to effectively implement a barcode system?

a)

Adhesives, barcode reader, and inventory management program

b)

Only a spreadsheet

c)

Only adhesive labels

d)

Only the reader

85.

What advantage does a computerized system linked to barcodes have?

a)

It allows relating the identification number with all detailed information about the equipment

b)

It prevents damage to the equipment

c)

It reduces the need for personnel

d)

It does not require adhesives

86.

Which of the following is an example of a coded inventory number?

a)

0001

b)

01-XYZ-02

c)

Barcode

d)

Master list

87.

What type of inventory requires periodic checks to ensure its good condition?

a)

Workshop tools

b)

Equipment

88.

What type of inventory requires periodic checks to ensure its good condition?

a)

Workshop tools

b)

Safety equipment

c)

Radioactive material

d)

Industrial equipment

89.

When is an inventory considered effective?

a)

When it is visually appealing

b)

When it is comprehensive and accurate

c)

When it is expensive

d)

When it only contains the main equipment

90.

How often should a medical equipment inventory be updated?

a)

Every five years

b)

Only when new equipment is purchased

c)

Whenever there are changes or new information, and during annual audits and examinations

d)

Only when a piece of equipment breaks

91.

What is the first stage of inventory management?

a)

Annual audit

b)

Information update

c)

Initial data collection

d)

Disposal of obsolete equipment

92.

What does the initial data collection include?

a)

List of hospital employees

b)

Inventory of all existing medical equipment

c)

Financial record of the hospital

d)

Purchase of new equipment

93.

What should be done every time new equipment is acquired by purchase or donation?

a)

Use it immediately without registration

b)

Enter it into the inventory before using it

c)

Register only the type of equipment

d)

Store it until the audit

94.

What should be included in the inventory if equipment is leased or borrowed for an extended period?

a)

Only if it exceeds 1 year of use

b)

It must be incorporated into the inventory

c)

It is not necessary to register it

d)

Only the manufacturer is registered

95.

What changes require updates in the inventory?

a)

Change of location

b)

Change of operational status

c)

Software or firmware updates

d)

All of the above

96.

Who conducts the annual audit or review of the inventory?

a)

Financial department

b)

Clinical engineering department or responsible body

c)

Administrative staff

d)

Purchasing committee

97.

What is the goal of the annual inventory review?

a)

Decorate the hospital

b)

Check that all information is correct and update it

c)

Purchase new equipment

d)

Reduce costs

98.

What is done during the annual review, similar to the initial data collection?

a)

Each department is visited and each piece of equipment is checked

b)

Emails are sent to manufacturers

c)

Obsolete equipment is destroyed

d)

The physical space of the hospital is reorganized

99.

What is one of the main functions of inventory as a tool in budget planning?

a)

Decorate the workshop

b)

Forecast fixed assets and calculate replacement needs

c)

Only control personnel

d)

Register office inventories

100.

How does inventory help in the planning and equipping of a technical workshop?

a)

Determining space, tools, and budget for maintenance and calibration

b)

Only registers workshop employees

c)

Purchases office equipment

d)

Increases the complexity of maintenance

101.

What information helps determine the necessary personnel for equipment maintenance?

a)

Number of patients

b)

Type and quantity of equipment and level of technical complexity

c)

Hospital expenses

d)

Service hours

102.

What relationship exists between inventory and the determination of training needs?

a)

None

b)

It allows identifying deficiencies and planning technical and clinical training

c)

It is only used for administrative training

d)

It only serves for new employees

103.

What does inventory allow to identify along with maintenance history and service orders?

a)

Equipment malfunctions and misuse

b)

Electricity expenses

c)

Cleaning schedules

d)

Patient location

104.

The training derived from inventory can be directed to:

a)

Technical and clinical staff

b)

Only administrative staff

c)

Only external suppliers

d)

Only civil engineers

105.

Who can the inventory report be directed to?

a)

Technical and clinical staff

b)

Only administrative staff

c)

Only external suppliers

d)

Only civil engineers

106.

How does the inventory help in managing technical service contracts?

a)

Determining which equipment requires external maintenance and necessary budget

b)

Only for office equipment

c)

Only for financial inventory

d)

Has no relation

107.

What type of equipment usually requires external suppliers for maintenance?

a)

Very specialized or under warranty

b)

Simple manual tools

c)

Consumable materials

d)

Office furniture

108.

What constitutes the basis of an effective medical equipment management program?

a)

User manual

b)

Updated inventory

c)

Only budget

d)

Contracts with suppliers

109.

How are inspection and maintenance intervals determined in a management program?

a)

By purchase date

b)

By initial risk analysis that includes all equipment in the inventory

c)

At random

d)

Only by the opinion of the manager

110.

What can an inventory include beyond equipment subject to periodic maintenance?

a)

Items for tracking, budgeting, and control

b)

Only obsolete equipment

c)

Office supplies

d)

None

111.

Why is it important to update the inventory of existing equipment?

a)

To comply with legal standards and maintain accurate information

b)

To increase operational costs

c)

Only for external audits

d)

To decorate the hospital

112.

What allows planning the inventory in terms of future acquisitions?

a)

Attention schedules

b)

Purchase budget for new equipment based on useful life and depreciation

c)

Only storage of spare parts

d)

Patient location

113.

How does the inventory help in standardizing equipment?

a)

By identifying similar equipment and facilitating substitution and acquisition decisions

b)

Decorating departments

c)

Eliminating training needs

d)

Has no impact

114.

What utility does the inventory have in disaster or emergency situations?

a)

Facilitates planning of necessary resources and equipment

b)

Only serves for annual audits

c)

Only for external hiring

d)

Has no impact

115.

What is needed to determine the needs for spare parts and consumable materials?

a)

Financial record

b)

Updated inventory with maintenance history

c)

Only service contracts

d)

Only previous orders

116.

How does the inventory help in managing external technical service contracts?

a)

Indicates which equipment needs service, frequency, and available budget

b)

Only records suppliers

c)

Only serves for internal equipment

d)

Has no impact

117.

What type of initial analysis is necessary to include equipment in a management program?

a)

Cost evaluation

b)

Risk analysis

c)

Aesthetic evaluation

d)

Staff opinion

118.

What is an advantage of maintaining an updated inventory of equipment?

a)

Improves decoration

b)

Facilitates planning of maintenance, purchases, and training

c)

Reduces costs without planning

d)

Only serves for external audits

119.

What determines the inclusion of equipment in the medical equipment management program?

a)

Resources and specific needs of the center

b)

Only the age of the equipment

c)

Size of the hospital

d)

Patient opinion

120.

What can be anticipated with a well-managed inventory?

a)

Only cleaning schedules

b)

Fixed asset budgets, replacement needs, and expected useful life

c)

Only future purchases of furniture

d)

Only hiring of staff

121.

What provides information for planning technical workshops?

a)

Updated inventory with quantity, type of equipment, and calibration needs

b)

Only financial record

c)

Only spreadsheets

d)

Only contracts

122.

What allows personnel planning based on the inventory?

a)

Determine how many engineers and technicians are needed and their capabilities

b)

Determine number of doctors

c)

Deter

d)

Only for administrative staff

123.

What does personnel planning allow based on inventory?

a)

Determine how many engineers and technicians are needed and their capabilities

b)

Determine the number of doctors

c)

Determine the number of patients

d)

Only serves for administrative planning

124.

What aspect of inventory helps evaluate training deficiencies?

a)

Only number of equipment

b)

Maintenance history and service order records

c)

Only location of equipment

d)

Only age of equipment

125.

What does inventory allow in relation to acquisitions and donations?

a)

Determine acquisition and donation objectives

b)

Determine only external purchases

c)

Determine only required personnel

d)

Only for audits

126.

What utility does inventory have for budget planning?

a)

Only calculates salaries

b)

Helps foresee resources for purchasing equipment and repairs

c)

Only for external maintenance

d)

Only for workshop decoration

127.

What aspect allows identifying necessary training for technical and clinical personnel?

a)

Only number of employees

b)

Misuse of equipment and recurring errors

c)

Work schedules

d)

Location of equipment

128.

What helps decide if equipment should receive internal or external maintenance?

a)

Size of the hospital

b)

Inventory with risk analysis and technical complexity

c)

Patient opinion

d)

Only equipment age

129.

What tool allows evaluating risks and planning mitigation?

a)

Only service contracts

b)

Updated and complete inventory

c)

Only annual budget

d)

Only location of equipment

130.

What aspect of inventory facilitates planning for spare parts and consumables orders?

a)

Number of patients

b)

History of use and maintenance of equipment

c)

Only physical location

d)

Purchase contracts

131.

How is inventory used to determine objectives for replacement and elimination?

a)

Evaluating age, useful life, and condition of equipment

b)

Only with staff opinions

c)

Only with external suppliers

d)

Only through audits

132.

What does the evaluation of equipment in inventory allow regarding clinical training?

a)

Determine which clinical staff needs training in new technologies

b)

Only determine administrative needs

c)

Only organize workshops

d)

Only evaluate budget

133.

Why is it essential for clinical professionals in small centers to receive training on inventories?

a)

To operate equipment without manuals

b)

To maintain and update inventory correctly

c)

To reduce operating costs

d)

Only for audits

134.

What information from inventory allows for preparing external maintenance budgets?

a)

Only number of equipment

b)

Equipment requiring external maintenance, frequency, and estimated costs

c)

Only signed contracts

d)

Only location of equipment

135.

How does inventory contribute to the standardization of equipment?

a)

Identifying similar equipment and facilitating acquisition and replacement decisions

b)

Only improves decoration

c)

Only reduces training time

d)

Only serves for administrative reports

136.

What aspect allows for planning workshops and preventive maintenance?

a)

Updated inventory with equipment, tools, and necessary budget

b)

Only location of equipment

c)

Only external contracts

d)

Only spreadsheets

137.

What utility does inventory have in personnel planning?

a)

Determine number and qualification needed to maintain equipment

b)

Only determine budget

c)

Only calculate depreciation

d)

Only for audits

138.

What aspect of inventory allows managing donations?

a)

Determine acquisition and donation objectives

b)

Only register existing equipment

c)

Only register maintenance