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EMS103 CHAP 32-36

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is not a mechanism of musculoskeletal injury?

a)

Twisting or rotational forces

b)

Extensive force

c)

Indirect force

d)

Direct force

2.

What is a primary problem when treating musculoskeletal injuries?

a)

All musculoskeletal injuries are life threatening due to the bone bleeding leading to hypoperfusion.

b)

Many musculoskeletal injuries have a grotesque appearance, and the EMT cannot be distracted from life-threatening conditions by a deformed limb.

c)

Splints do not adequately fit the patient's extremities and must be modified with padding to ensure immobilization.

d)

Most musculoskeletal injuries are simply splinted and not a life threat to the patient.

3.

When the EMT is assessing compromise to an extremity, perhaps due to an orthopedic injury, the EMT should initially check what "six P's"?

a)

Pain, pallor, paresthesia, pulses, placement, and pressure

b)

Pain, pallor, position, pulses, placement, and pad

c)

Pain, pallor, paresthesia, pulses, paralysis, and pressure

d)

Pain, pallor, position, pulses, placement, and pressure

4.

Where could you find the phalange bones?

a)

Hands and feet

b)

Legs

c)

Skull and neck

d)

Arms

5.

Blood at the meatus of the penis (opening of the urethra) is a sign of:

a)

priapism.

b)

pelvic trauma/fracture.

c)

pelvic dislocation syndrome.

d)

spinal fracture or injury.

6.

Your patient is a 37-year-old man who tripped while walking down a hill and now has a painful, deformed right leg. Your assessment reveals that the foot is cold and mottled in appearance. You cannot detect a pulse in the foot or ankle. Which of the following is the best course of action?

a)

Splint the leg in the position in which it was found and transport without delay.

b)

Transport rapidly to the nearest trauma center.

c)

Explain to the patient that, because you cannot detect circulation in his foot, his leg will most likely have to be amputated above the site of the injury.

d)

Gently attempt to straighten the leg to regain a pulse before splinting.

7.

Which of the following bones is found in the chest?

a)

Metacarpals

b)

Ilium

c)

Sternum

d)

Tarsals

8.

Your patient is a 70-year-old male whose tractor rolled over onto him. Your assessment makes you suspicious that the patient has a fractured pelvis. Which of the following signs and symptoms should you anticipate?

a)

Patient feels the need to empty his bladder.

b)

Patient cannot lift legs when lying supine.

c)

Patient demonstrates signs of shock.

d)

All of the above.

9.

One of the more serious conditions that EMTs are confronted with would occur as follows: A fracture or crush injury causes bleeding and swelling within the extremity. Pressure and swelling caused by the bleeding within the muscle compartment become so great that the body can no longer perfuse the tissues against the pressure. Cellular damage occurs and causes additional swelling. Blood flow to the area is lost. The limb itself may be lost if the pressure is not relieved. What is this condition called?

a)

Crushing syndrome

b)

Perfusing syndrome

c)

Compartment syndrome

d)

Fracture syndrome

10.

Although it can be difficult to definitively determine hip dislocation in the field, certain signs and symptoms are usually there. Which of the following statements is false?

a)

Often there is lack of sensation in the limb.

b)

The posterior hip dislocation is the most common.

c)

A posterior hip dislocation presents with a bent knee and the foot may hang loose.

d)

An anterior hip dislocation would probably present with the entire lower limb rotated inward.

11.

Which of the following statements is not true concerning a pelvic wrap?

a)

It can be used if the pelvis shows instability.

b)

It should not be used unless the patient shows signs of shock.

c)

You can consider its use based on mechanism of injury (MOI).

d)

It can be used if the pelvis shows deformity.

12.

There are general rules that apply to all types of splinting. Which of the following is not a general rule of splinting?

a)

Align long-bone injuries to anatomical position.

b)

Expose the injury.

c)

In order to avoid loss of use of a limb, it is important to splint before moving, even if the patient is unstable.

d)

Assess distal CSM.

13.

Your patient is a 12-year-old female who fell onto her outstretched hands while rollerblading. She has a deformity of her forearm, about 2 inches proximal to her wrist. This injury is a result of which of the following mechanisms?

a)

Direct force

b)

Twisting motion

c)

Indirect force

d)

Sudden acceleration

14.

The strong white fibrous material called the periosteum:

a)

covers the bones.

b)

protects the perineum.

c)

surrounds the abdominal cavity.

d)

surrounds the heart.

15.

Which one of the following statements is not true?

a)

Tendons are bands of connective tissue that bind the ligaments to muscles.

b)

Cartilage is connective tissue that covers the outside of the bone end and acts as a surface for articulation.

c)

Ligaments are connective tissues that connect bone to bone.

d)

Muscles are the tissues or fibers that cause movement of body parts or organs.

16.

Which of the following is a muscle injury caused by overstretching or overexertion of the muscle?

a)

Fracture

b)

Sprain

c)

Strain

d)

Luxation

17.

Which one of the following definitions is not true?

a)

Tendons connect muscles to ligaments.

b)

A sprain is the stretching and tearing of ligaments.

c)

Another name for manual traction is tension.

d)

Joints are places where bones articulate.

18.

Which one of the following statements is not true concerning a knee injury?

a)

Fractures can occur to the patella.

b)

Fractures can occur to the proximal femur.

c)

There could be pain and tenderness.

d)

Fractures can occur to the proximal tibia and fibula.

19.

Which of the following is appropriate in the examination of a painful, swollen extremity of a conscious patient?

a)

Seeing if you can elicit crepitus on palpation

b)

Gently attempting to flex the mid-portion of the bone to check for angulation

c)

Asking the patient to see if he can bear weight on the extremity

d)

Comparing the injured side to the uninjured side

20.

Which of the following hazards may arise from properly splinting an injured extremity?

a)

Compromising circulation to the extremity

b)

Converting a closed fracture to an open one

c)

Ignoring life-threatening problems while focusing on an extremity injury

d)

All of the above

21.

Your patient is a 38-year-old male driver of a vehicle that left the roadway and struck a bus stop shelter and a tree. He is sitting in the driver's seat and conscious and alert, he has some abrasions on his forehead, his skin is warm and dry, and he has a strong radial pulse and no difficulty breathing. After applying a cervical collar, which of the following actions represents the most appropriate way for removing the patient from the vehicle?

a)

Place a long spine board under the patient’s buttocks and then carefully lower the patient to the board in a supine position.

b)

Perform rapid extrication onto a long spine board.

c)

Place the backboard on the stretcher and have the patient stand, turn, and lie down on the backboard while you maintain manual inline stabilization of the cervical spine.

d)

Have the patient stand up and then do a standing takedown onto a long backboard.

22.

The maxillae form which of the following structures?

a)

Forehead

b)

Upper jaw

c)

Lower jaw

d)

Cheek bones

23.

Your patient is a 27-year-old male who has been involved in a motorcycle collision in which he was not wearing a helmet. He does not respond when you speak to him, but he makes incomprehensible sounds when you press your knuckles on his sternum. Which of the following best describes his level of consciousness?

a)

Alert

b)

Painful

c)

Verbal

d)

Unresponsive

24.

What is another name for the zygomatic bone?

a)

Mandible

b)

Malar

c)

Maxillae

d)

Temporal

25.

As pressure within the cranium increases, which of the following is the result?

a)

Decreased blood pressure, increased pulse

b)

Decreased blood pressure, decreased pulse

c)

Increased blood pressure, increased pulse

d)

Increased blood pressure, decreased pulse

26.

Which of the following pieces of equipment is acceptable for use in the prehospital stabilization of suspected cervical spine injuries?

a)

Long spine board

b)

Soft cervical collars

c)

Pair of pillows

d)

Rigid cervical collars

27.

Your patient has been injured by a fall down a flight of steps. He is alert and oriented but complains of back and neck pain. You immobilize him on a long spine board with a cervical collar on his neck as a precaution because you know that the:

a)

Coccyx is easily dislocated.

b)

Lumbar area is rarely injured due to the rib support.

c)

Thoracic spine is especially vulnerable to injury.

d)

Cervical spine is not supported by other bony structures.

28.

In which of the following circumstances should a helmet be removed?

a)

If the helmet fits so snugly that you cannot inspect the ears for the presence of blood or fluid

b)

If the helmet interferes with airway management

c)

If you suspect a skull fracture and need to palpate the head

d)

If you want to place a nasal cannula on the patient but cannot because his ears are covered by the helmet

29.

A 36-year-old male was accidentally shot with a nail gun into the head. You see the nail, which protrudes about 2 to 3 centimeters from the skull, when you visualize the injury site. Under which of the following circumstances should you remove the nail from the injury site?

a)

The patient develops excessive intracranial pressure (ICP).

b)

Bleeding from the patient's wound is minimal.

c)

The patient begins to complain of shortness of breath.

d)

None of the above.

30.

You are treating an unresponsive homeless patient found in an alley. During your assessment you notice the Battle sign, which is bruising:

a)

On the back of the neck.

b)

Behind the ear.

c)

On the back of the head.

d)

Between the eyes.

31.

Which of the following systems includes the pairs of nerves that enter and exit the spinal cord between each pair of vertebrae?

a)

Autonomic nervous system

b)

Peripheral nervous system

c)

Central nervous system

d)

All of the above

32.

Which of the following causes worsening of the damage in a brain injury?

a)

Allowing seepage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the ears or nose

b)

Improper management of airway and ventilation

c)

Failure to keep the patient awake and talking

d)

Administration of 100% oxygen

33.

Which of the following is a function of the autonomic nervous system?

a)

Running or walking

b)

Solving complex math problems

c)

Speaking

d)

Constriction of blood vessels

34.

Which of the following is defined as an area of the body surface that is innervated by a single spinal nerve?

a)

Dermatome

b)

Malar

c)

Maxillae

d)

Spinous process

35.

You are en route to the trauma center with a patient who was injured when he was thrown from a horse. You suspect multiple trauma injuries including a closed head injury. You will monitor his mental status using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) per your protocols. Which of the following will you check?

a)

Verbal responses, motor skills, and mental status

b)

Motor response, verbal response, and attentiveness

c)

Eye opening, motor response, and verbal response

d)

Speech patterns, motor patterns, and mental status

36.

A young female was injured in an automobile wreck, striking her head on the windshield. She is unconscious and her breathing is irregular. She is bleeding from a scalp wound, but your assessment shows that her cranium is intact. Her vital signs are pulse 68 and blood pressure 148/90, and her pupils are unequal. You should suspect a(n):

a)

contusion.

b)

open head injury.

c)

closed head injury.

d)

concussion.

37.

When a patient has a serious open wound to the neck, you are concerned about the possibility of an air embolism. The reason an air embolism can occur is because of:

a)

the negative pressure in the chest.

b)

damage to the trachea.

c)

pressure in the large neck veins that is lower than atmospheric pressure.

d)

the higher pressure in the vessels of the neck.

38.

Which of the following statements concerning a concussion is true?

a)

The patient may not have any symptoms of the injury.

b)

It is a bruising of the brain tissue.

c)

It is accompanied by recurrent episodes of unconsciousness.

d)

All of the above

39.

Your patient is a 16-year-old male who was ejected from an all-terrain vehicle and struck his head on a large rock. He was not wearing a helmet. He is unresponsive with shallow, irregular respirations; a blood pressure of 170/110 mmHg; and a heart rate of 50 beats per minute. Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate?

a)

Insert an oropharyngeal airway (OPA) and ventilate via bag-valve mask (BVM) at 30 breaths per minute.

b)

Insert an oropharyngeal airway and ventilate via bag-valve mask at 10 to 12 breaths per minute.

c)

Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and give oxygen by nonrebreather mask (NRB) at 15 lpm.

d)

Insert an oropharyngeal airway and give oxygen by nonrebreather mask at 10 lpm.

40.

When log-rolling a patient with a suspected spinal injury, which of the following EMTs directs the move?

a)

EMT with the most seniority

b)

EMT with the highest level of training

c)

EMT at the head of the patient

d)

EMT at the heaviest portion of the patient

41.

Which patient requires transport to a trauma center?

a)

Unresponsive patient with hypotension

b)

Responsive patient with tachycardia

c)

Patient who responds to verbal stimuli

d)

Patient responsive with a respiratory rate of 10

42.

Multiple trauma and multisystem trauma patients are situations in which the EMT is expected to perform which of the following?

a)

Practice outside the scope of practice in order to provide the greatest good.

b)

Make decisions beyond what is usually called for.

c)

Provide the best quality care possible, including definitive care on scene.

d)

Respond above and beyond the call of duty.

43.

Which of the following is not a significant mechanism of injury for a driver in a vehicle accident according to CDC guidelines?

a)

Spidering of the windshield

b)

Death of a passenger in the same vehicle

c)

Ejection from the vehicle

d)

Encroachment greater than 12 inches of the driver's compartment

44.

What criterion based on the CDC guidelines allows a discretionary approach to trauma triage?

a)

Partial ejection from automobile

b)

Motorcycle crash greater than 20 mph

c)

Fall greater than 20 feet

d)

EMS provider judgment

45.

Which of the following choices is not a justifiable reason for delaying transport of a critical trauma patient?

a)

Immobilizing the patient to a long spine board

b)

Suctioning the airway

c)

Awaiting arrival of police on scene

d)

Ventilating a patient in respiratory distress

46.

You are dispatched to a motor vehicle crash on a rural mountain highway. You have a patient who was unconscious on arrival, had a seizure, and is currently awake but combative. You suspect he may have a head injury. What is the best approach regarding transport of this patient?

a)

Begin transport to the trauma center on the ground, which is 1.5 hours' driving time.

b)

Transport to a local community hospital approximately 15 minutes away via ground.

c)

Contact the community hospital to ask them if they think they can take this patient.

d)

Dispatch and await the medical helicopter, which is 20 minutes away.

47.

Which of the following trauma triage criteria would justify transportation to a trauma center based on mechanism of injury alone?

a)

Auto versus pedestrian

b)

Vehicle rollover

c)

Vehicle crash-generated telemetry data

d)

Intrusion into the occupant area greater than 8 inches

48.

What are some of the most important critical decisions an EMT can make on the scene of a serious trauma?

a)

Determining the potential liability involved in performing life-saving interventions

b)

Diagnosing the causes for a patient's presentation and identifying a course of definitive care

c)

Determining patient severity, amount of time on scene, and transport destination

d)

Deciding whether to treat life-threatening injuries on scene or to load and go

49.

What are the three elements of the Revised Trauma Score?

a)

Level of consciousness, systolic blood pressure, and pulse rate

b)

GCS, systolic blood pressure, and respiratory rate

c)

GCS, pulse rate, and respiratory rate

d)

GCS, systolic blood pressure, and pulse rate

50.

You encounter an accident on a busy intercity street while on duty. Calling into dispatch, you make note that the occupants of both vehicles are outside, and you request additional units to proceed non-emergently. You approach an elderly male who is rubbing his back and left shoulder. During secondary assessment of past medical history, you make note of several important details: the patient is on high blood pressure medications and has had a heart attack in the past. He is complaining of midline thoracic pain on palpation of his spine and left shoulder pain, which may have been from the seat belt, but is refusing care and transport. The patient did not lose consciousness. Based on this information, which transport decision would be most appropriate for this patient?

a)

Call for ALS intercept.

b)

Take the patient to a trauma center.

c)

Explain to the patient the need for transport to a local community hospital.

d)

Have the patient to sign a refusal form.

51.

What is the definition of multisystem trauma?

a)

Trauma in which the patient has more than one serious injury

b)

A trauma in which there are multiple casualties

c)

A trauma that requires the response of multiple agencies

d)

One or more injuries that affect more than one body system

52.

Which one of the following patients would justify the need to directly transport to a trauma center based on special patient considerations?

a)

An end-stage renal disease (ERSD) patient who tripped and fell and is complaining of shoulder pain on the same side as his shunt

b)

An unlicensed teenage driver who has a pulse rate of 120 after a MVC and a 4 minute EMS response

c)

An elderly patient who slipped out of her wheelchair and is complaining of pelvic pain

d)

A pregnant female in the third trimester who is spotting (showing small amounts of vaginal bleeding) following a low mechanism of injury MVC

53.

An adult fall meets trauma triage criteria set forth by the CDC if it is greater than:

a)

20 feet

b)

15 feet

c)

25 feet

d)

10 feet

54.

You respond to a 32-year-old male who fell 20 feet off a ladder. He is responsive to painful stimuli. He has snoring respirations at 20 a minute with decent chest rise and fall. He has a broken femur, a broken wrist, and a lacerated radial artery that is bleeding profusely. Which of these injuries is the highest priority?

a)

Broken wrist

b)

Femur fracture

c)

Arterial bleed

d)

Snoring respirations

55.

What are three elements of successful trauma care that field practitioners can use that will ultimately translate into greater rates of survival?

a)

Teamwork, timing, and transport

b)

Lights, sirens, and diesel

c)

Physiological determinants, anatomic criteria, and mechanism of injury

d)

Ground ambulances, air helicopters, and trauma centers

56.

A respiratory rate of less than _______ in infants is a significant finding and indicates a critical patient who should be immediately transported to a trauma center if secondary to trauma.

a)

30

b)

25

c)

18

d)

20

57.

You are dispatched to a motorcycle crash with one patient involved. What on-scene intervention is inappropriate for this patient?

a)

Extensively splint the patient's injuries.

b)

Suction vomit and secretions from the airway.

c)

Manually stabilizing the cervical spine.

d)

Begin chest compressions.

58.

A respiratory rate of less than _______ or greater than _______ in cases of trauma is a criterion for immediate transportation to a trauma center according to the CDC physiologic guidelines.

a)

10; 29

b)

12; 20

c)

5; 45

d)

8; 32

59.

What type of trauma triage criteria regarding transport would a finger amputation receive?

a)

Trauma center

b)

Any hospital with surgical facilities

c)

Patient's choice of destination

d)

Any hospital, as long as on-line medical direction approves the facility's capabilities

60.

What is the highest Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) measurement indicating altered mental status according to CDC guidelines?

a)

12

b)

8

c)

14

d)

13

61.

Reducing the pain of a marine animal sting can be accomplished by rinsing the affected area with which of the following?

a)

Vinegar

b)

Gasoline or kerosene

c)

Cold water

d)

Sterile saline solution

62.

Rough handling of a patient with severe hypothermia may result in which of the following?

a)

Rewarming shock

b)

Heart attack

c)

Ventricular fibrillation

d)

Seizures

63.

Of the following venomous snakes, which one usually has the highest incidence of a "dry bite"?

a)

Coral snake

b)

Copperhead

c)

Water moccasin

d)

Rattlesnake

64.

The term gangrene means localized tissue:

a)

death.

b)

swelling.

c)

discoloration.

d)

infection.

65.

Most radiant heat is lost through which part(s) of the body?

a)

Hands and feet

b)

Head and neck

c)

Torso

d)

Buttocks

66.

The term blanching, used to describe localized cold injury, means the tissue has turned to which of the following colors?

a)

Red

b)

Blue or purple

c)

White

d)

Black

67.

Which of the following best describes a localized cold injury with a clear line of demarcation of its limits?

a)

Early frostnip

b)

Deep frostnip

c)

Late frostbite

d)

Hypothermia

68.

Which of the following is not a classification of localized cold injury?

a)

Frostbite

b)

Frostnip

c)

Hypothermia

d)

All of the above

69.

Applying an external source of heat to the patient's body to rewarm him is called _______ rewarming.

a)

central

b)

active

c)

peripheral

d)

passive

70.

Which of the following should the EMT do during the treatment of localized cold injury?

a)

Gradually warm the affected area.

b)

Encourage the patient to use the affected part.

c)

Massage the affected area.

d)

Rub the affected area with snow.

71.

Your patient is a 24-year-old man who smoked a cigarette dipped in formaldehyde and then went outside with no shoes on and walked in the snow for about an hour. He has deep local cold injuries to both feet. Which of the following should be included in your management of this patient?

a)

Massage the feet briskly.

b)

Break blisters before wrapping both feet in sterile dressings.

c)

Keep the patient cool to avoid rewarming the feet too quickly.

d)

Gradually rewarm both feet.

72.

For which of the following reasons are newborns, infants, and the elderly more readily affected by the heat than other age groups?

a)

Faster metabolism

b)

Inadequate salt intake

c)

Increased body mass

d)

Poor ability to regulate body temperature

73.

A patient who is lying on cold ground is losing the most amount of heat by what mechanism?

a)

Radiation

b)

Shivering

c)

Conduction

d)

Convection

74.

When submerged in water, biological death may be delayed if the water temperature is below ______ °F.

a)

98.6

b)

32

c)

50

d)

70

75.

Which of the following is caused by trapped nitrogen gas in the tissues due to a rapid ascent from a scuba dive?

a)

Pulmonary embolism

b)

Myocardial infarction

c)

Decompression sickness

d)

Arterial gas embolism

76.

Where should constricting bands be placed to reduce lymphatic flow after a venomous snake bite?

a)

4 inches above and below the bite

b)

2 inches above and below the bite

c)

Directly over the bite

d)

None of the above

77.

Which of the following is acceptable in the management of a patient stung by a honey bee?

a)

Take care not to pull the stinger out using tweezers.

b)

Treat for shock if you see signs it is developing.

c)

Remove jewelry from any affected limbs.

d)

Encourage the patient to move around.

78.

You respond to a construction site on a very hot summer day for a person "not acting right." You find a 44-year-old male patient seated in a work vehicle with the air conditioner on maximum. Coworkers state the patient was working for the last 2 hours pouring concrete when he started "speaking gibberish" and nearly collapsed. The patient is responsive to verbal stimuli. Your initial vital signs are blood pressure 90/60, pulse 136, and respiratory rate 24. The patient's skin is cool to the touch and moist, and his shirt is wet with visible salt rings. You suspect:

a)

heat cramps.

b)

myocardial infarction.

c)

heat exhaustion.

d)

heat stroke.

79.

The technique for central rewarming requires the application of heat to which of the following areas of the patient's body?

a)

Head, neck, chest, and back

b)

Lateral chest, neck, armpits, and groin

c)

Head, neck, chest, and groin

d)

Chest, back, neck, and armpits

80.

Why is it important to keep patients at rest when they are hypothermic?

a)

Because the blood is coldest in the extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the cold blood and lower the core body temperature.

b)

Because the blood is warmest in the extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the warm blood and raise the core body temperature.

c)

Because the blood is coldest in the extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the cold blood and drop the blood pressure.

d)

None of the above.

81.

You have assisted in the delivery of a full-term infant by suctioning the mouth and nose as the head was delivered and again following complete delivery. The infant is not yet breathing. Which of the following is the correct sequence of interventions?

a)

Perform a series of back blows and chest thrusts interposed with mouth-to-mouth ventilation.

b)

Rub the infant's back, tap the bottom of his foot, begin bag-valve-mask ventilations, and check the pulse.

c)

Transport without further intervention.

d)

Begin bag-valve-mask ventilations, suction the airway with a rigid tonsil tip, and begin CPR.

82.

Which of the following is indicated in the prehospital management of a prolapsed umbilical cord?

a)

Use your gloved hand to push the umbilical cord back up through the cervix.

b)

Immediately clamp the cord in two places and cut it between the clamps.

c)

Place the mother in a head-down position with pillows under her hips.

d)

Encourage the mother to push forcefully in order to speed delivery.

83.

You have been called for a young female in labor. She is lying on the floor in obvious distress from labor pains. While you are assessing her for crowning, your partner is getting a set of vital signs. She tells you that she is getting dizzy and nauseated. Vital signs are pulse rate 120, respiratory rate 22, and blood pressure 98/62. You should be concerned that she has:

a)

contracted food poisoning.

b)

placenta previa.

c)

supine hypotensive syndrome.

d)

Braxton-Hicks contractions.

84.

You have responded to a woman who has possible premature labor. She is 8 months pregnant and is experiencing labor pains. During your assessment, you note that the baby is not yet crowning. You need to determine whether delivery is imminent or not. You should next:

a)

check for cervical dilation.

b)

check the level of the fundus.

c)

time her contractions.

d)

complete a set of vital signs.

85.

If assisting in a prehospital delivery while off-duty, which of the following would be the best choice for tying or clamping the umbilical cord?

a)

Pair of shoelaces

b)

Section of wire coat hanger

c)

Clothespin

d)

White cotton thread

86.

Which of the following is the correct way to time the frequency of contractions in the pregnant woman?

a)

From the beginning of a contraction to the end of the same contraction

b)

After counting the number of contractions in a 15-minute period, multiply by 4

c)

From the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next

d)

From the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next

87.

If the baby's umbilical cord is noted to be wrapped around his neck after the head is delivered, which of the following should be done?

a)

Immediately cut the cord before delivering the baby.

b)

Transport emergently without further intervention.

c)

Clamp the cord in two places, but do not cut it until the baby is delivered.

d)

Try to slip the cord over the baby's head and shoulder.

88.

You are assessing a patient in labor. Her contractions are 2 minutes apart, lasting 30 seconds with increasing pain. She states that she does not yet feel the urge to push. These signs indicate she has reached which stage of delivery?

a)

Third stage

b)

First stage

c)

Fourth stage

d)

Second stage

89.

Which of the following is a common sign of a pre-delivery emergency?

a)

A sensation of lightening as the baby drops into the birth canal.

b)

Contractions become more intense and closer together.

c)

There is profuse vaginal bleeding.

d)

The amniotic sac ruptures.

90.

Which of the following conditions should be present before the umbilical cord is cut?

a)

The cord is clamped in two places.

b)

The infant is breathing on his or her own.

c)

The cord is no longer pulsating.

d)

All of the above

91.

What is the temporary organ of pregnancy, which functions to supply the developing fetus with oxygen and nutrients?

a)

Amnion

b)

Placenta

c)

Cervix

d)

Uterus

92.

You are assessing a 27-year-old female who is 9 months pregnant with her first child. She has been having contractions for the past 6 hours. As you are about to assist her to your cot, she asks you to wait because she feels the need to use the bathroom. Which of the following is the best course of action?

a)

Advise the patient that this could be a sign of a serious complication, have her lie on her left side, apply high-concentration oxygen, and transport immediately.

b)

Tell the patient she needs to be transported immediately and using the bathroom will have to wait until she arrives at the hospital.

c)

Advise the patient that this could be an indication that the baby is ready to be born and you need to check to see if the baby's head is visible.

d)

Allow the patient to use the bathroom because it will make transport and delivery more comfortable.

93.

You are called for a possible imminent delivery. Your patient is a 15-year-old girl who is, by your estimation, about 8 months pregnant. She tells you that she has been hiding her pregnancy. You are especially concerned about problems she might have during the delivery. Which of the following are findings indicate that there may be a need for neonatal resuscitation?

a)

The mother has not had prenatal care.

b)

The mother's water has already broken.

c)

The mother does not intend to breastfeed.

d)

The mother has a blood pressure of 130/82.

94.

Traditionally an APGAR score is taken at what time intervals after birth?

a)

1 and 6 minutes

b)

2 and 7 minutes

c)

1 and 5 minutes

d)

5 and 10 minutes

95.

Which of the following should the EMT do to control maternal bleeding after delivery of the baby?

a)

Massage the uterus until it is firm.

b)

Allow the infant to nurse, if possible.

c)

Apply direct pressure with a sanitary napkin over the vaginal opening.

d)

All of the above

96.

You have just delivered a full-term baby girl and she is doing well. You have dried her off and wrapped her in a warm blanket. You are preparing to cut the umbilical cord. Which of the following is normally true regarding cutting the umbilical cord?

a)

The cord should be cut immediately following delivery.

b)

You must try to cut the cord before it stops pulsating.

c)

The infant must be breathing on his or her own before you cut the cord.

d)

You should hold the baby above the level of the mother when cutting the cord.

97.

You respond to a call for a patient in active labor with her second child. Your interview with the patient shows that she is 40 weeks pregnant and has been in active labor for several hours. You determine that her vital signs are all within normal limits. After your physical exam, you determine the baby is crowning. You should next:

a)

begin transport and plan to deliver in the ambulance.

b)

contact medical direction for orders.

c)

prepare to deliver the baby on-scene.

d)

delay delivery until arrival at the hospital.

98.

What term is used to describe delivery of the fetus and placenta before the 20th week of pregnancy?

a)

Stillbirth

b)

Spontaneous abortion

c)

Induced abortion

d)

Eclampsia

99.

Which of the following is the correct technique to check for crowning in the assessment of a woman in labor?

a)

Cover her with a sheet, have her remove her underwear, wait for a contraction, and then visualize the vaginal opening.

b)

Place your hand on the woman's abdomen, just above the umbilicus, and check for the firmness of the uterus during contractions.

c)

Ask the woman to 'push' or 'bear down' as you inspect the vaginal opening.

d)

None of the above

100.

Which of the following is true regarding ectopic pregnancies?

a)

The fertilized egg usually implants in the wall of the uterus.

b)

The fallopian tubes cannot stretch to accommodate a fetus.

c)

It usually occurs during the second trimester.

d)

It may cause painless bright red bleeding.