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Financial Markets Quiz FINAL

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Aftermarket is another name of

a)

The securities market

b)

The debt market

c)

The secondary market

d)

The primary market

2.

Which of the following is NOT a possible disadvantage of direct financing?

a)

Cost of preparing legal contracts, taxation, and accounting advice

b)

Cost of the financial intermediary involved

c)

Matching amounts of funds to be borrowed with those to be lent

d)

Assessment of the risk of the borrower

3.

…has more cash income flow than expenditure on consumption in a period of time?

a)

Commercial bank

b)

Saver

c)

Investor

d)

Borrower

4.

Which channel is considered as the flow of fund without intermediaries?

a)

Direct financing

b)

Indirect financing

c)

Centralized financing

d)

Commercial bank

5.

In financial markets, financial instruments with maturity less than one year is classified as

a)

Long-term instruments

b)

Intermediate term instruments

c)

Capital term instruments

d)

Short-term instruments

6.

Which of the following role is NOT belonged to financial market?

a)

Risk sharing and dispersion

b)

Improve the efficiency of using financial resources

c)

Distribute at a large scale to the growth of national GDP

d)

Tool for macroeconomic stabilization and risk reduction

7.

Type of financial securities that mature in less than a year are classified as

a)

Discounted securities

b)

Money market securities

c)

Medium-term securities

d)

Capital market securities

8.

Which asset below are financial assets?

a)

Physical assets

b)

Real assets

c)

Tangible assets

d)

Securities

9.

Type of financial securities in which loans are secured by borrower’s property is classified as

a)

Mortgages

b)

Corporate bonds

c)

U.S treasury bonds

d)

Municipal bonds

10.

New York Stock Exchange is an example of

a)

Liquid markets

b)

Short-term markets

c)

Money markets

d)

Capital markets

11.

Liquidity in financial term is

a)

A feature of money only

b)

The best measure of risk of a financial asset

c)

The ease with which an asset can be sold at a published market price

d)

To lower the rate of return for an asset

12.

In the indirect financial channel

a)

Owners of surplus capital either directly or indirectly lend to entities that lack capital (consumers, investors)

b)

Owners of surplus capital directly lend to entities that lack capital (consumers, investors) by buying financial assets directly issued by lacking capital entities through financial markets

c)

All of the above

d)

Owners of surplus capital do not directly lend to people who lack capital but through financial intermediaries such as banks, other financial

13.

Which of the following is NOT a possible disadvantage of direct financing?

a)

The amount of funds does not limit by the ability of funding by financial intermediary

b)

The time of holding the funds is shorter

c)

The companies don’t have to be under the surveillance of the lenders

d)

Reduce to cost of the financial intermediary involved

14.

The main distinction between securities sold in the primary market and that in the secondary market is the

a)

Profitability of the issuing corporation

b)

Price of the securities

c)

Previous issuance of the securities

d)

Riskiness of the securities

15.

The major difference between debt market instruments and equity market instrument is

a)

The maturities

b)

The issuers

c)

The market price

d)

The price of issuance

16.

Money market is … market while capital market is … market

a)

Investment; liquidity

b)

Liquidity; financial institution

c)

Long-term; short-term

d)

Short-term; long-term

17.

A primary financial market is one that:

a)

Offers financial assets with the highest expected return

b)

Involves the sale of financial assets for the first time

c)

Offers financial assets with the highest historical return

d)

Offers the greatest number of financial assets

18.

Which of the following financial instruments has the lowest risk?

a)

Treasury bill (T-bill)

b)

Certificate of Deposit (C.D)

c)

Commercial Paper (C.P)

d)

Repurchase Agreement (Repo)

19.

Risk-free rate (RFR) often is rate of:

a)

Treasury bill (T-bill)

b)

Certificate of Deposit (C.D)

c)

Commercial Paper (C.P)

d)

Repurchase Agreement (Repo)

20.

Which of the financial instruments below is regularly used in international trade?

a)

Treasury bill (T-bill)

b)

Certificate of Deposit (C.D)

c)

Bankers’ Acceptances (B.A)

d)

Repurchase Agreement (Repo)

21.

The common point of money market instruments is:

a)

Long-term

b)

High liquidity

c)

High rate of return

d)

All of the above

22.

Which instrument can be traded on O.M.O?

a)

Municipal bond

b)

Treasury bond (T-bond)

c)

Certificate of Deposit (C.D)

d)

All of the above

23.

The holder of T-bill will not suffer from:

a)

Default risk

b)

Reinvestment risk

c)

Inflation risk

d)

Interest risk

24.

Expansionary monetary policy can be implemented by:

a)

Selling Treasuries to member bank

b)

Buying Treasuries from member bank

c)

Selling corporate bonds

d)

Buying corporate bonds

25.

Contractionary monetary policy can be implemented by:

a)

Selling Treasurys to member bank

b)

Buying Treasurys from members bank

c)

Selling corporate bonds

d)

Buying corporate bonds

26.

Discount instrument are issued at

a)

Face value

b)

Face value plus interest

c)

A price lower than face value

d)

A price higher than face value

27.

Which of the following works as Yield Instrument?

a)

Treasury bill

b)

Commercial Paper

c)

Euro commercial paper

d)

Repurchase agreement (REPO)

28.

The main feature that distinguishes certificate of deposit (C.D) from term deposit is

a)

Negotiability

b)

Short-term

c)

Risk

d)

Issuing bank

29.

Interbank market is the financial system among

a)

Individual investors and banks

b)

Treasury and commercial banks

c)

Banks and financial institutions

d)

Investors

30.

The aim of open market operations is to undertake

a)

Fiscal policy

b)

Monetary policy

c)

Both of the above

d)

None of the above

31.

On which of the following instruments is the rate of return calculated on a “discount basis”?

a)

Certificates of deposit

b)

Interbank deposits

c)

Commercial paper

d)

Repurchase agreements

e)

Commercial bills

32.

Commercial paper issued with low interest rate thus commercial papers are categorized as:

a)

Payables rating

b)

Commercial rating

c)

Poor credit rating

d)

Better credit rating

33.

When central bank buys securities on Open Market, reserves of commercial banks will ...

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Remain unchanged

d)

Fluctuate

34.

What is the main reason of high inflation?

a)

The neglect government who lets their money supply drop too fast

b)

The neglect government who lets their money supply grow too fast

c)

The neglect government who lets their money demand drop too fast

d)

The neglect government who lets their money demand grow too fast

35.

Which sentence below is true for the common point of money market instruments?

a)

Short-term

b)

High liquidity

c)

Low risk

d)

All of the above

36.

The main feature that distinguishes certificate of deposit (C.D) from term deposit is:

a)

Liquidity

b)

Short-term

c)

Risk

d)

Issuing Bank

37.

Money market instruments include:

a)

Treasury Bills, Central Bank Bills, Stock

b)

Treasury Bills, Central Bank Bills, Certificate of Deposit, Stock

c)

Treasury Bills, Central Bank Bills, Certificate of Deposit, Stock, Repurchase Agreement

d)

Treasury Bills, Central Bank Bills, Certificate of Deposit, Repurchase Agreement

38.

Who are the last line of all those who receive the remaining funds in the case of bankruptcy?

a)

Common stockholders

b)

Bondholders

c)

Creditors

d)

Preferred stock holders

39.

… is an investor who is willing to take on additional risk for an investment that has a relatively low additional expected return in exchange for that risk.

a)

Risk-averse investor

b)

Risk lover

c)

Risk neutral

d)

Institutional investor

40.

The maximum number of shares that a corporation is legally permitted to issue is:

a)

Issued shares

b)

Authorized shares

c)

Treasury shares

d)

Registered shares

41.

This sentence is true for which type of shares? “If a company is unable to pay dividend in one period, the amount due is carried forward to the next period”.

a)

Cumulative preference share

b)

Non-cumulative preference share

c)

Convertible preference share

d)

Participating preference share

42.

When the company issues this type of shares, it is required to pay any unpaid preference share dividends from past years before it can make any distribution to ordinary shareholders.

a)

Cumulative preference share

b)

Non-cumulative preference share

c)

Convertible preference share

d)

Participating preference share

43.

Which type of shares is referred below? “If the company is unable to make the fixed dividend payment, the obligation is not carried forward.”

a)

Cumulative preference share

b)

Non-cumulative preference share

c)

Convertible preference share

d)

Participating preference share

44.

Which type of shares is given the opportunity to share in excess profit generated by the company?

a)

Cumulative preference share

b)

Non-cumulative preference share

c)

Convertible preference share

d)

Participating preference share

45.

… entitles the company to buy back the preference shares on a predetermined date and the holder to receive the specified value of the preference share in a cash payment.

a)

Cumulative preference share

b)

Redeemable preference share

c)

Convertible preference share

d)

Participating preference share

46.

… may be turned into ordinary shares in the issuer company at a future date.

a)

Cumulative preference share

b)

Non-cumulative preference share

c)

Convertible preference share

d)

Participating preference share

47.

This type of shares has no benefit from excess profit generated by the company.

a)

Non-participating preference shares

b)

Participating preference share

c)

Participating and non-cumulative preference share

d)

b&c

48.

In case a company issues stock for cash, which items will rise?

a)

Shareholders’ equity

b)

Cash

c)

Outstanding shares

d)

a, b & c

49.

In case of stock dividend, which items will rise?

a)

Shareholders’ equity

b)

Cash

c)

Number of outstanding shares

d)

Proportion of shareholder

50.

Registered share is

a)

The maximum number of shares that a corporation is legally permitted to issue

b)

A type of shares that the name and address of an owner is engraved on a certificate and dividend can only be made out to the named shares owner.

c)

An equity security wholly owned by whoever holds the physical stock certificate.

d)

The number of shares sold to and help by the shareholders of a company.

51.

Which of the following statements is true in case of stock dividend?

a)

Owners’ equity increases

b)

Total assets increases

c)

Number of outstanding shares increases

d)

Proportion of shareholders in the company increases

52.

An equity market is defined as a market which issues and trades:

a)

Debt securities

b)

Financial instruments

c)

Shares

d)

Loans

53.

Equity market is characterized as:

a)

Indirect financing

b)

Direct financing

c)

Both of the above

d)

None of the above

54.

Which of the following is a characteristic of equity market?

a)

Equity market is characterized by direct financing

b)

Equity market is near to perfectly competitive market

c)

Equity market is basically a continuous market

d)

All of the above

55.

Which type of company can issue share?

a)

Limited Liability Company

b)

Partnership

c)

Private Company

d)

Join Stock Company

56.

Which characteristic does not belong to stock?

a)

Entitle the holder to ownership of the company

b)

Have certain maturity

c)

No limit on the amount of dividends that can be paid

d)

Residual claim and limited liability

57.

Which of the following is highest among the rest?

a)

Number of authorized shares

b)

Number of issued shares

c)

Number of outstanding shares

d)

Number of treasury shares

58.

Number of outstanding shares plus treasury shares equal to

a)

Authorized shares

b)

Ordinary shares

c)

Preference shares

d)

Issued shares

59.

… are the shares which are bought back by the issuing company

a)

Authorized shares

b)

Issued shares

c)

Outstanding shares

d)

Treasury shares

60.

Based on the claim of the shareholder, equity can be categorized into

a)

Registered share and bearer share

b)

Ordinary share and preference share

c)

Outstanding share and treasury share

d)

Authorized share and issued share

61.

What is preemptive right?

a)

The right to be informed by the company regarding any information or development that might influence its share price and dividend payout

b)

The right to receive dividend

c)

The right to remaining assets

d)

Allow current shareholders to purchase proportionate number of share in any new offering in order to maintain their ownership in the company

62.

… is the value at which an asset is carried on a balance sheet or the total value of the company’s assets that shareholders would theoretically receive if a company were liquidated

a)

Face value

b)

Book value

c)

Market value

d)

Intrinsic value

63.

What is not the reason for the fact that book value almost never equals market value?

a)

Assets are listed on the balance sheet at cost, meaning their balance sheet value is not updated as prices change

b)

A company that holds a lot of real estate on its balance sheet will likely have a net book value far below its market value

c)

Companies have discretion over how quickly or how slowly they record depreciation

d)

Assets are listed on the balance sheet at market price

64.

Why do we describe preference shares as a hybrid security?

a)

Because preference shares are more preferred by investors

b)

Because preference shares have priority on the remain assets of company

c)

Because preference shares have features of two different financial instruments: bond and stock

d)

Because preference shares are issued in a short period of time

65.

What is not the advantage of preference shares?

a)

Priority over ordinary shares in term of voting right

b)

Priority over ordinary shares in term of dividend payment

c)

Priority over ordinary shares in term of payment upon liquidation

d)

Priority over ordinary shares in term of claim to a company’s assets and earnings

66.

… is a type of preferred stock with a provision that stipulates that if any dividend payments have been missed in the past, the dividends owed must be paid out to cumulative preferred shareholders first.

a)

Cumulative preference shares

b)

Non-cumulative preference shares

c)

Redeemable preference shares

d)

Non-redeemable preference shares

67.

… are shares where the right of certain preference shareholders to participate in profits after a specified fixed dividend contracted for is paid is given.

a)

Cumulative preference shares

b)

Non-cumulative preference shares

c)

Participating preference shares

d)

Non-participating preference shares

68.

When do companies issue shares for non-cash through stock consolidation?

a)

The company’s availability of liquid cash is in short supply

b)

The company wants to capitalize a portion of retained earnings

c)

The company wants to increase the share price to strengthen company’s reputation

d)

The company wants to decrease the share price to increase the liquidity of stock

69.

When do companies issue shares for non-cash through stock split?

a)

The company’s availability of liquid cash is in short supply

b)

The company wants to capitalize a portion of retained earnings

c)

The company wants to increase the share price to strengthen company’s reputation

d)

The company wants to decrease the share price to increase the liquidity of stock

70.

What is the effect of transferring from development investment fund, capital surplus and other reserve fund to contributed capital?

a)

Increase total assets

b)

Increase total capital

c)

Increase charter capital

d)

Increase number of share outstanding

71.

What is NOT the effect of stock dividend?

a)

Increase the number of share outstanding

b)

Decrease share price

c)

Increase the percentage ownership of shareholder

d)

Keep the total assets remain unchanged

72.

What are the effects of stock split?

a)

Increase total assets

b)

Decrease the stock price

c)

Increase the stock price

d)

Decrease the number of stock outstanding

73.

Risk neutral investor is:

a)

An investor who is insensitive to risk

b)

An investor who seeks out extremely risky investments that are prone to a return distribution with excess kurtosis

c)

An investor who avoids all risks

d)

An investor who only invests in government bonds

74.

Authorized share is:

a)

The maximum number of shares that a corporation is legally permitted to issue, as specified in its articles of incorporation

b)

The number of shares are sold to the public

c)

A type of shares which had been issued but have been repurchased by the corporation

d)

The number of shares hold by the public

75.

Issued share is:

a)

The maximum number of shares that a corporation is legally permitted to issue, as specified in its articles of incorporation

b)

The number of shares are sold to the public

c)

A type of shares which had been issued but have been repurchased by the corporation

d)

The number of shares hold by the public

76.

Treasury share is:

a)

The maximum number of shares that a corporation is legally permitted to issue, as specified in its articles of incorporation

b)

The number of shares are sold to the public

c)

A type of shares which had been issued but have been repurchased by the corporation

d)

A type of shares which is issued by the Government other than the corporation

77.

Outstanding share is:

a)

The maximum number of shares that a corporation is legally permitted to issue, as specified in its articles of incorporation

b)

The number of shares are sold to the public

c)

A type of shares which had been issued but have been repurchased by the corporation

d)

The number of shares hold by the public

78.

Registered share is:

a)

A type of shares that the name and address of an owner of a registered security is engraved on a certificate, and dividend can only be made out to the named shares owner

b)

An equity security wholly owned by whoever holds the physical stock certificate

c)

The maximum number of shares that a corporation is legally permitted to issue, as specified in its articles of incorporation

d)

The number of shares sold to the public

79.

Characteristics of Common Stock are EXCEPT:

a)

Perpetual security

b)

Voting rights

c)

Limited liability

d)

Fixed dividend

80.

Which sentence below is true about preference share?

a)

Preferred stocks are senior to common stocks, but are subordinate to bonds

b)

Preferred stock usually carries no voting rights

c)

Preferred stocks carry fixed dividends and may have priority over common stock in the payment of dividends and upon liquidation

d)

All of the above

81.

Which kind of bonds allows for exchange to shares of a corporation other than the issuer?

a)

Convertible bond

b)

Exchangeable bond

c)

Callable bond

d)

Government bond

82.

… is a kind of bond that its principal amount and the interest payments are indexed to the price index such as inflation.

a)

Junk bond

b)

Linker

c)

Perpetuity

d)

Municipal bond

83.

Which sentence is not true for the unsecured bonds?

a)

Unsecured bonds are issued without any pledged assets

b)

Unsecured bonds are secured by the prestige of the issuing organizations

c)

Unsecured bonds are secured by the common assets of the issuers in the event of bankruptcy

d)

Unsecured bonds will receive nothing from issuers in the case of bankruptcy

84.

Which type of bond is issued by local authorities?

a)

Government bond

b)

Municipal bond

c)

Callable bond

d)

Convertible bond

85.

Which type of bonds has a coupon that remains constant throughout the life of the bond?

a)

Coupon bond

b)

Floating rate note

c)

Zero-coupon bond

d)

Deep discount bond

86.

Debt instruments represent a contractual claim against an issuer to make specific payments, including …, over a defined period.

a)

Periodic interest payments

b)

Principal repayments

c)

Both of the above

d)

None of the above

87.

Which type of instruments is not defined as debt instruments?

a)

Bond

b)

Unsecured notes

c)

Term loans

d)

Stock

88.

Which of the following sentences is true for Treasury Inflation protected securities (TIPS)?

a)

Coupon rate is set at a fixed rate, and the principal is fixed

b)

Coupon rate is adjusted for inflation, and the principal is fixed

c)

Coupon rate is set at a fixed rate, and the principal is adjusted semiannually for inflation

d)

Coupon rate is adjusted for inflation, and the principal is adjusted for inflation

89.

Treasury bills are issued on:

a)

Treasury basis

b)

Corporate basis

c)

Premium basis

d)

Discount basis

90.

Junk bonds which are rated lower than triple B are also classified as:

a)

High yield bonds

b)

Low yield bond

c)

Zero floating bonds

d)

Floating rate bonds