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Pulmonary

Total questions: 176

Worksheet time: 29hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What precautions should be taken for contact isolation?

a)

Gown and gloves; no treatment outside the room

b)

Mask required; no treatment outside the room

c)

N95 required; no treatment outside the room

d)

Protect immunocompromised patient; gown and gloves

2.

What is required for droplet isolation?

a)

Gown and gloves; no treatment outside the room

b)

Mask required; no treatment outside the room

c)

N95 required; no treatment outside the room

d)

Protect immunocompromised patient; gown and gloves

3.

What is the requirement for airborne isolation?

a)

Protect immunocompromised patient; gown and gloves

b)

Gown and gloves; no treatment outside the room

c)

Mask required; no treatment outside the room

d)

N95 required; no treatment outside the room

4.

What is the purpose of neutropenic isolation?

a)

Protect immunocompromised patients; gown and gloves, limited treatment in room

b)

Gown and gloves; no treatment outside the room

c)

N95 required; no treatment outside the room

d)

Mask required; no treatment outside the room

5.

MRSA requires which type of precautions?

a)

Contact precautions

b)

Droplet precautions

c)

Airborne precautions

d)

Neutropenic precautions

6.

VRE requires which type of precautions?

a)

Droplet precautions

b)

Contact precautions

c)

Airborne precautions

d)

Neutropenic precautions

7.

C. diff requires which type of precautions?

a)

Airborne precautions

b)

Neutropenic precautions

c)

Contact/Enteric precautions

d)

Droplet precautions

8.

Scabies requires which type of precautions?

a)

Neutropenic precautions

b)

Airborne precautions

c)

Droplet precautions

d)

Contact precautions

9.

Norovirus requires which type of precautions?

a)

Contact/Enteric precautions

b)

Droplet precautions

c)

Airborne precautions

d)

Neutropenic precautions

10.

Rotavirus requires which type of precautions?

a)

Droplet precautions

b)

Airborne precautions

c)

Contact/Enteric precautions

d)

Neutropenic precautions

11.

Influenza requires which type of precautions?

a)

Contact precautions

b)

Neutropenic precautions

c)

Droplet precautions

d)

Airborne precautions

12.

COVID-19 most commonly requires which type of precautions?

a)

Droplet precautions

b)

Airborne precautions

c)

Neutropenic precautions

d)

Contact precautions

13.

Mumps requires which type of precautions?

a)

Droplet precautions

b)

Airborne precautions

c)

Contact precautions

d)

Neutropenic precautions

14.

Rubella requires which type of precautions?

a)

Airborne precautions

b)

Droplet precautions

c)

Neutropenic precautions

d)

Contact precautions

15.

Meningitis requires which type of precautions?

a)

Contact precautions

b)

Neutropenic precautions

c)

Airborne precautions

d)

Droplet precautions

16.

Tuberculosis requires which type of precautions?

a)

Droplet precautions

b)

Airborne precautions

c)

Contact precautions

d)

Neutropenic precautions

17.

Measles requires which type of precautions?

a)

Neutropenic precautions

b)

Contact precautions

c)

Airborne precautions

d)

Droplet precautions

18.

Chickenpox (Varicella) requires which type of precautions?

a)

Airborne precautions

b)

Droplet precautions

c)

Contact precautions

d)

Neutropenic precautions

19.

SARS/MERS require which type of precautions?

a)

Contact precautions

b)

Droplet precautions

c)

Neutropenic precautions

d)

Airborne precautions

20.

A chemotherapy patient would most likely be placed under which precautions?

a)

Droplet precautions

b)

Neutropenic precautions

c)

Contact precautions

d)

Airborne precautions

21.

A bone marrow transplant patient would most likely be placed under which precautions?

a)

Contact precautions

b)

Droplet precautions

c)

Neutropenic precautions

d)

Airborne precautions

22.

A patient with severe burns may require which precautions?

a)

Airborne precautions

b)

Contact precautions

c)

Neutropenic precautions

d)

Droplet precautions

23.

A patient with aplastic anemia may require which precautions?

a)

Contact precautions

b)

Neutropenic precautions

c)

Droplet precautions

d)

Airborne precautions

24.

Leukemia patients often require which precautions?

a)

Droplet precautions

b)

Contact precautions

c)

Airborne precautions

d)

Neutropenic precautions

25.

What is external respiration?

a)

Gas exchange at the alveolar-capillary membrane and pulmonary capillaries

b)

Gas exchange at tissue capillaries

c)

The movement of air through conducting airways

d)

Temporary cessation of breathing during sleep

26.

What occurs during internal respiration?

a)

Movement of air through the conducting airways

b)

Gas exchange at the tissue capillary level

c)

Relaxed, passive expiration

d)

Accessory muscle recruitment during breathing

27.

What is ventilation?

a)

Gas exchange at alveolar-capillary level

b)

Gas exchange at tissue capillary level

c)

Movement of air through conducting airways

d)

Passive expiration

28.

What is sleep apnea?

a)

A passive process of expiration

b)

A condition where breathing stops or becomes shallow during sleep

c)

Gas exchange at alveolar level

d)

Forceful exhalation during coughing

29.

What nerve supplies the diaphragm?

a)

Vagus nerve

b)

Phrenic nerve (C3–C5)

c)

Accessory nerve

d)

Intercostal nerves

30.

What are the primary muscles of inspiration?

a)

Sternocleidomastoid, scalenes, pecs, upper trapezius, levator scapulae, rhomboids

b)

Diaphragm and external intercostals

c)

Abdominals, internal intercostals, quadratus lumborum

d)

Internal intercostals and quadratus lumborum

31.

Which muscles are primary for expiration?

a)

Sternocleidomastoid, scalenes, pecs, upper trapezius, levator scapulae, rhomboids

b)

Diaphragm and external intercostals

c)

Abdominals, internal intercostals, quadratus lumborum

d)

Internal intercostals and quadratus lumborum

32.

Which muscles are accessory muscles of inspiration?

a)

Sternocleidomastoid, scalenes, pecs, upper trapezius, levator scapulae, rhomboids

b)

Diaphragm and external intercostals

c)

Rectus abdominis and transverse abdominis

d)

Abdominals, internal intercostals, quadratus lumborum

33.

What is quiet inspiration?

a)

Breathing at rest with minimal effort

b)

Gas exchange at tissue level

c)

Forceful inhalation requiring accessory muscles

d)

Passive expiration

34.

What occurs during forced inspiration?

a)

Relaxed passive expiration

b)

Engages accessory muscles during heavy oxygen debt

c)

Movement of air through conducting airways

d)

Gas exchange at the alveoli

35.

What is the primary process of expiration at rest?

a)

Forceful exhalation

b)

Relaxed, passive process

c)

Movement of air through airways

d)

Use of accessory muscles

36.

What is quiet expiration?

a)

Active process with muscle use

b)

Passive process of exhalation

c)

Gas exchange at alveoli

d)

Use of sternocleidomastoid

37.

What is forced expiration?

a)

Passive process at rest

b)

Gas exchange at tissues

c)

Active exhalation during coughing or exertion

d)

Air exchange at alveoli

38.

How many lobes does the right lung have?

a)

Three lobes: upper, middle, and lower

b)

Two lobes: upper and lower, with the lingula

c)

One lobe

d)

Four lobes

39.

How many lobes does the left lung have?

a)

Three lobes: upper, middle, and lower

b)

Two lobes: upper and lower, with the lingula

c)

One lobe

d)

Four lobes

40.

What covers each lung?

a)

Visceral pleura

b)

Parietal pleura

c)

Pleural fluid

d)

Intercostal fascia

41.

What lines the thoracic wall?

a)

Visceral pleura

b)

Parietal pleura

c)

Pleural fluid

d)

Intercostal fascia

42.

How are the lungs inflated?

a)

By positive pressure

b)

By negative pressure

c)

By muscle contraction alone

d)

By pleural fluid volume

43.

What is the function of pleural fluid?

a)

Provides oxygen for gas exchange

b)

Lubricates pleurae during ventilation

c)

Maintains negative pressure

d)

Protects lungs from infection

44.

What are the components of the upper respiratory tract?

a)

Nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx

b)

Trachea, bronchi, alveoli

c)

Bronchioles, alveoli, lungs

d)

Pharynx, trachea, bronchi

45.

What are the functions of the nasal cavity?

a)

To control airflow and prevent aspiration

b)

To warm air and filter/remove particles

c)

To lubricate pleura during breathing

d)

To exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide

46.

What is the function of the larynx?

a)

Gas exchange at alveoli

b)

To warm air before lungs

c)

To control airflow and prevent aspiration

d)

To lubricate the pleurae

47.

Tumor is classified as which type of lung disorder?

a)

Restrictive disorder

b)

Obstructive disorder

48.

Interstitial pulmonary fibrosis is classified as which type of lung disorder?

a)

Restrictive disorder

b)

Obstructive disorder

49.

Pulmonary edema is classified as which type of lung disorder?

a)

Restrictive disorder

b)

Obstructive disorder

50.

Pulmonary embolism is classified as which type of lung disorder?

a)

Restrictive disorder

b)

Obstructive disorder

51.

Atelectasis is classified as which type of lung disorder?

a)

Restrictive disorder

b)

Obstructive disorder

52.

Inadequate pulmonary development is classified as which type of lung disorder?

a)

Restrictive disorder

b)

Obstructive disorder

53.

Postural deformities are classified as which type of lung disorder?

a)

Restrictive disorder

b)

Obstructive disorder

54.

Scleroderma is classified as which type of lung disorder?

a)

Restrictive disorder

b)

Obstructive disorder

55.

Ankylosing spondylitis is classified as which type of lung disorder?

a)

Restrictive disorder

b)

Obstructive disorder

56.

Neurologic disorders can cause which type of lung disorder?

a)

Restrictive disorder

b)

Obstructive disorder

57.

Chest wall trauma is classified as which type of lung disorder?

a)

Restrictive disorder

b)

Obstructive disorder

58.

What are the classic symptoms of restrictive pulmonary disorders?

a)

Wheezing and chest tightness

b)

Dyspnea with activity and a persistent non-productive cough

c)

Productive cough and prolonged expiration

d)

Hemoptysis and pleural pain

59.

What are some other signs of restrictive pulmonary disorders?

a)

Rapid shallow breathing, limited chest expansion, inspiratory crackles, clubbing, cyanosis

b)

Wheezing, prolonged expiration, pursed-lip breathing

c)

Cough with sputum, barrel chest, orthopnea

d)

Chest pain, hemoptysis, productive cough

60.

What do pulmonary function tests (PFTs) show in restrictive pulmonary disorders?

a)

Increased vital capacity and increased residual volume

b)

Increased vital capacity and decreased total lung capacity

c)

Decreased inspiratory reserve volume and decreased vital capacity

d)

Decreased total lung capacity and increased functional residual capacity

61.

What is a common arterial blood gas (ABG) finding in restrictive pulmonary disorders?

a)

Hypercapnia

b)

Hypoxemia

c)

Normal oxygen saturation

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

62.

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) is best described as:

a)

A restrictive lung disease with limited chest expansion

b)

A condition causing lung hyperinflation and airflow limitation that is not fully reversible

c)

A neuromuscular disorder leading to reduced tidal volume

d)

A surgical removal of diseased lung tissue

63.

What is the function of the alveoli?

a)

Tiny air sacs in the lungs where oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged

b)

Structures that prevent food from entering the trachea

c)

Muscles that drive breathing

d)

Tubes that transport air to the lungs

64.

What is tidal volume (resting tidal volume)?

a)

Maximum amount of air inhaled after quiet inspiration

b)

Amount of air exchanged during quiet inspiration and expiration (~500 mL)

c)

Amount of air remaining after maximum expiration

d)

Total volume of air after maximum inspiration

65.

What is inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)?

a)

Amount of air left after max exhalation

b)

Maximum amount of air a person can breathe in after quiet inspiration

c)

Volume exchanged during quiet breathing

d)

Total lung capacity after maximum inspiration

66.

What is expiratory reserve volume (ERV)?

a)

Max amount of air exhaled after quiet expiration

b)

Max amount of air inhaled after quiet inspiration

c)

Amount of air left after max exhalation

d)

Total amount of air in lungs after max inspiration

67.

What is residual volume (RV)?

a)

Amount of air exchanged during quiet breathing

b)

Amount of air left in lungs after maximum expiration

c)

Maximum inhalation after quiet breathing

d)

Total amount of air in lungs after max inspiration

68.

What is total lung capacity (TLC)?

a)

Amount left after quiet expiration (RV+ERV)

b)

Total amount of air after maximum inspiration (TV+IRV+ERV+RV)

c)

Maximum inspiration after quiet expiration (TV+IRV)

d)

Maximum inspiration + expiration (IRV+TV+ERV)

69.

What is inspiratory capacity (IC)?

a)

TV + IRV, maximum inhalation after quiet expiration

b)

RV + ERV, maximum inhalation after forced expiration

c)

RV + ERV, maximum inhalation after quiet expiration

d)

TV + IRV, maximum inhalation after forced expiration

70.

What is functional residual capacity (FRC)?

a)

TV + IRV, amount left in lungs after resting expiration

b)

RV + ERV, amount left in lungs after forced expiration

c)

RV + ERV, amount left in lungs after resting expiration

d)

IRV + TV + ERV, max inspiration followed by max expiration

71.

What is vital capacity (VC)?

a)

TV + IRV, amount left in lungs after resting expiration

b)

RV + ERV, amount left in lungs after forced expiration

c)

RV + ERV, amount left in lungs after resting expiration

d)

TV + IRV, amount left in lungs after forced expiration

72.

What effect do obstructive lung diseases have on lung volumes?

a)

Increased TLC, TV, RV, FRC; decreased VC, IRV, IC, ERV

b)

Decreased TLC, TV, RV, FRC; increased VC

c)

Increased VC and IRV

d)

Decreased inspiratory reserve volume and decreased vital capacity

73.

What effect does aging have on lung volumes?

a)

Max O₂ uptake decreases, VC decreases, RV increases

b)

TLC increases, VC increases

c)

IRV increases, FRC decreases

d)

Lung volumes remain constant

74.

What does FEV1 measure?

a)

Volume of air forcefully exhaled in 1 second, reflects airway status

b)

Maximal volume inhaled after quiet expiration

c)

Greatest flow during forced expiration; drop shows airway narrowing

d)

Residual air left after maximal expiration

75.

What does peak expiratory flow rate (PEF) indicate?

a)

Volume of air forcefully exhaled in 1 second, reflects airway status

b)

Maximal volume inhaled after quiet expiration

c)

Greatest flow during forced expiration; drop shows airway narrowing

d)

Residual air left after maximal expiration

76.

What defines restrictive pulmonary disorders?

a)

Any condition reducing lung volume and compliance, making deep breathing difficult

b)

Air trapping with increased lung volumes

c)

Acute infections of the pleura

d)

Airway dilation due to chronic infections

77.

A group of lung diseases that cause airflow blockage and breathing problems.

a)

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

b)

Chronic bronchitis

c)

Emphysema

d)

Asthma

78.

A condition of productive cough lasting more than 3 months per year for 2 years.

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Chronic bronchitis

c)

Sleep apnea

d)

Pulmonary abscess

79.

Abnormal enlargement of the distal respiratory unit (alveoli) with destructive changes of the alveolar walls without obvious fibrosis.

a)

Pleurisy

b)

Bronchiectasis

c)

Emphysema

d)

Pulmonary embolism

80.

Inflammation of the pleura caused by viral or bacterial infection, injury, or tumor. Presents with sharp chest pain that increases with inspiration and coughing.

a)

Pneumothorax

b)

Hemothorax

c)

Asthma

d)

Pleurisy (pleuritis)

81.

Accumulation of air or gas in the pleural space caused by a defect in the visceral pleura or chest wall.

a)

Pneumothorax

b)

Atelectasis

c)

Bronchiolitis

d)

Pulmonary tuberculosis

82.

Accumulation of air and blood in the pleural space, often after chest trauma.

a)

Pulmonary edema

b)

Hemothorax

c)

Cystic fibrosis

d)

Lung cancer

83.

Accumulation of fluid in the pleural space.

a)

Pulmonary effusion (hydrothorax)

b)

Influenza

c)

Pulmonary abscess

d)

Bronchitis

84.

A chronic respiratory condition that affects the airways, causing inflammation and making it difficult to breathe.

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Pneumonia

c)

Pulmonary edema

d)

Asthma

85.

Collapse of normally expanded and aerated lung tissue, often due to obstruction of a bronchus. Can be caused by immobility, over-sedation, or paralysis.

a)

Atelectasis

b)

Bronchiolitis

c)

COPD

d)

Influenza

86.

A sleep-disordered breathing condition with intermittent disruption of gas exchange and sleep interruption.

a)

Pulmonary embolism

b)

Sleep apnea

c)

Pleural effusion

d)

Bronchiectasis

87.

A progressive obstructive lung disease with irreversible destruction and dilation of airways due to chronic bacterial infections.

a)

Bronchiectasis

b)

Pulmonary abscess

c)

Cystic fibrosis

d)

Emphysema

88.

Severe inflammation of the bronchioles (lower airways).

a)

Bronchitis

b)

Bronchiolitis

c)

Pleurisy

d)

Pneumonia

89.

Inflammation of the bronchial lining, usually short-term (1–3 weeks) and self-limiting.

a)

Pulmonary abscess

b)

Chronic bronchitis

c)

Acute bronchitis

d)

Pleurisy

90.

A disease with exocrine gland dysfunction causing abnormally viscous secretions that narrow or obstruct airways, leading to hyperinflation, infection, and tissue destruction.

a)

Cystic fibrosis

b)

Pulmonary embolism

c)

COPD

d)

Tuberculosis

91.

A highly contagious viral respiratory infection with many strains, spread by respiratory droplets.

a)

Influenza (flu)

b)

Pulmonary edema

c)

Sleep apnea

d)

Pleurisy

92.

A malignancy of the respiratory tract epithelium, often asymptomatic until metastasis. Most often caused by cigarette smoking.

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Pulmonary embolism

c)

Pulmonary abscess

d)

Lung cancer

93.

What are the most common sites of metastases?

a)

Lungs, liver, bone, brain

b)

Heart, kidneys, pancreas, stomach

c)

Skin, spleen, bladder, spine

d)

Esophagus, stomach, intestines, thyroid

94.

An infectious systemic disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, primarily affecting the lungs.

a)

Pulmonary tuberculosis

b)

Pneumonia

c)

Pulmonary edema

d)

Asthma

95.

Inflammation of the lungs.

a)

Pneumothorax

b)

Pneumonia

c)

Pulmonary embolism

d)

Bronchiectasis

96.

An infection a patient contracts while receiving care in a healthcare setting (e.g., pneumonia, UTI).

a)

Nosocomial infection

b)

Influenza

c)

Pulmonary abscess

d)

Emphysema

97.

Localized collection of infectious material within the lung that may rupture and cause empyema or septicemia.

a)

Pulmonary abscess

b)

Pulmonary edema

c)

Hemothorax

d)

Bronchiolitis

98.

Tissues and air spaces of the lungs fill with fluid that leaks from the vascular system, often due to cardiovascular disease, CHF, hypertension, PE, or renal failure.

a)

Pulmonary edema

b)

Pneumothorax

c)

Pleural effusion

d)

Lung cancer

99.

Sudden blockage of a pulmonary artery by an embolism (clot), potentially life-threatening and may cause cardiac arrest.

a)

Pulmonary embolism (PE)

b)

Pneumonia

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Atelectasis

100.

Severe and highly contagious viral lung infection with high fever caused by coronavirus. Spread by respiratory droplets.

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)

c)

Influenza

d)

Atelectasis

101.

Surgical removal of a whole lung.

a)

Thoracotomy

b)

Tracheotomy

c)

Pneumonectomy

d)

Lobectomy

102.

Surgical removal of a lobe of the lung.

a)

Lobectomy

b)

Pneumonectomy

c)

Thoracotomy

d)

Tracheostomy

103.

Surgical incision into the chest wall.

a)

Lobectomy

b)

Pneumonectomy

c)

Thoracotomy

d)

Tracheostomy

104.

Placement of a tracheal tube directly into the trachea to form an airway.

a)

Lobectomy

b)

Pneumonectomy

c)

Thoracotomy

d)

Tracheostomy

105.

Drug used to suppress coughing, helpful for dry cough but not justified for productive cough.

a)

Antitussive drug

b)

Antihistamine

c)

Bronchodilator

d)

Mucolytic/Expectorants

106.

Drug used to dry up excess mucus produced in the upper respiratory tract.

a)

Bronchodilator

b)

Decongestant

c)

Antitussive

d)

Glucocorticoid

107.

Drug used to treat the respiratory allergic response to seasonal allergies and asthma.

a)

Antihistamines

b)

Mucolytic/Expectorants

c)

Decongestants

d)

Steroids

108.

Drug used to decrease the viscosity of respiratory secretions (e.g., in Chronic Bronchitis or Cystic Fibrosis).

a)

Pulmonary embolism

b)

Antihistamines

c)

Antitussives

d)

Mucolytics/Expectorants

109.

Drug used to control inflammation-mediated bronchospasm; can be given orally, inhaled, or IV (asthma).

a)

Bronchodilator

b)

Glucocorticoids (steroids)

c)

Decongestant

d)

Antihistamine

110.

Drug that dilates the bronchi in the lungs, decreasing resistance and inducing smooth muscle relaxation (asthma, emphysema).

a)

Antihistamines

b)

Glucocorticoids

c)

Bronchodilators

d)

Antitussives

111.

Normal hemoglobin (Hgb) values for men.

a)

7–10 mg/dL

b)

10–12 mg/dL

c)

13–18 mg/dL

d)

20–24 mg/dL

112.

Normal hemoglobin (Hgb) values for women.

a)

8–11 mg/dL

b)

12–16 mg/dL

c)

17–20 mg/dL

d)

22–25 mg/dL

113.

Normal value for PaCO2 (partial pressure of carbon dioxide).

a)

35–45 mmHg

b)

75–100 mmHg

c)

60–70 mmHg

d)

45–55 mmHg

114.

Normal value for PaO2 (arterial oxygen pressure).

a)

45–55 mmHg

b)

60–70 mmHg

c)

75–100 mmHg

d)

100–120 mmHg

115.

Normal blood pH range.

a)

7.10–7.20

b)

7.25–7.30

c)

7.36–7.44

d)

7.50–7.60

116.

Normal white blood cell (WBC) count.

a)

1,000–3,000 cells/mm³

b)

4,500–11,000 cells/mm³

c)

15,000–20,000 cells/mm³

d)

25,000–30,000 cells/mm³

117.

Normal fasting blood glucose value.

a)

40–60 mg/dL

b)

70–100 mg/dL

c)

120–150 mg/dL

d)

160–200 mg/dL

118.

Normal adult respiration rate (RR).

a)

6–10 bpm

b)

12–24 bpm

c)

25–30 bpm

d)

35–40 bpm

119.

High PaCO2 is called what?

a)

Hypocapnia

b)

Hypercapnia

c)

Hypoxemia

d)

Hypoxia

120.

Low PaCO2 is called what?

a)

Hypoxemia

b)

Alkalemia

c)

Hypocapnia

d)

Leukopenia

121.

PaO2 less than 40 mmHg is called what?

a)

Hypoxemia

b)

Hypoxia

c)

Anemia

d)

Hypocapnia

122.

High blood pH is called what?

a)

Acidemia

b)

Alkalemia

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Hypoxemia

123.

Low blood pH is called what?

a)

Hypoxemia

b)

Acidemia

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Leukopenia

124.

High hemoglobin is called what?

a)

Leukocytosis

b)

Anemia

c)

Polycythemia

d)

Hypoxemia

125.

Low hemoglobin is called what?

a)

Anemia

b)

Hypoxemia

c)

Leukopenia

d)

Hypocapnia

126.

High white blood cell count is called what?

a)

Hyperglycemia

b)

Leukocytosis

c)

Leukopenia

d)

Anemia

127.

Low white blood cell count is called what?

a)

Leukopenia

b)

Polycythemia

c)

Acidemia

d)

Hypoxemia

128.

High blood glucose is called what?

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Hyperglycemia

c)

Anemia

d)

Hypoxia

129.

Low blood glucose is called what?

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Leukopenia

c)

Hypoxemia

d)

Acidemia

130.

Which of the following is considered a normal breathing sound heard over most of the lung fields?

a)

Crackles

b)

Vesicular

c)

Wheezes

d)

Rhonchi

131.

Which breathing sound is normally heard over the trachea?

a)

Vesicular

b)

Bronchial

c)

Crackles

d)

Wheezes

132.

Which breathing sound is normally heard between the scapulae or near the sternum?

a)

Bronchovesicular

b)

Vesicular

c)

Stridor

d)

Crackles

133.

Which normal breathing sound is soft and low-pitched, heard during inspiration and fading quickly during expiration, and is heard over most of the peripheral lung fields?

a)

Bronchial

b)

Vesicular

c)

Crackles

d)

Wheezes

134.

Which normal breathing sound is high-pitched, loud, and hollow, with a longer expiratory phase than inspiratory, and is normally heard over the trachea?

a)

Vesicular

b)

Bronchial

c)

Bronchovesicular

d)

Crackles

135.

Which normal breathing sound has equal inspiratory and expiratory phases with a medium pitch and intensity, and is best heard near the sternum or between the scapulae?

a)

Crackles

b)

Wheezes

c)

Bronchovesicular

d)

Vesicular

136.

Which adventitious breathing sound is described as discontinuous, brief, popping sounds that may be fine or coarse, and are commonly associated with pneumonia, heart failure, or pulmonary fibrosis?

a)

Wheezes

b)

Crackles

c)

Vesicular

d)

Bronchial

137.

Which adventitious breathing sound is described as continuous, high-pitched, musical or squeaky sounds, more prominent during expiration, and commonly associated with asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

a)

Crackles

b)

Wheezes

c)

Bronchovesicular

d)

Vesicular

138.

Which adventitious breathing sound is a low-pitched, snoring or gurgling noise often caused by secretions in larger airways, and may clear with coughing?

a)

Rhonchi

b)

Crackles

c)

Wheezes

d)

Vesicular

139.

Which adventitious breathing sound is a harsh, high-pitched, crowing sound heard primarily during inspiration, and usually indicates upper airway obstruction such as croup or a foreign body?

a)

Crackles

b)

Stridor

c)

Bronchial

d)

Wheezes

140.

The positioning of the patient in the photograph is MOST likely to be recommended for postural drainage of which of the following areas of the lungs?

a)

Upper Lobes Apical segments

b)

Upper Lobes Posterior segments

c)

Upper Lobes Anterior segments

d)

Upper Lobes Lateral segments

141.

The positioning of the patient in the photograph is MOST likely to be recommended for postural drainage of which of the following areas of the lungs?

a)

Upper Lobes Apical segments

b)

Upper Lobes Posterior segments

c)

Upper Lobes Anterior segments

d)

Upper Lobes Lateral segments

142.

The positioning of the patient in the photograph is MOST likely to be recommended for postural drainage of which of the following areas of the lungs?

a)

Upper Lobes Apical segments

b)

Upper Lobes Posterior segments

c)

Upper Lobes Anterior segments

d)

Upper Lobes Lateral segments

143.

The positioning of the patient in the photograph is MOST likely to be recommended for postural drainage of which of the following areas of the lungs?

a)

Right Upper Lobe

b)

Right Middle Lobe

c)

Right Lower Lobe

d)

Upper Lobes Lateral segments

144.

The positioning of the patient in the photograph is MOST likely to be recommended for postural drainage of which of the following areas of the lungs?

a)

Left Upper Lobe

b)

Left Middle Lobe

c)

Left Lower Lobe Anterior Basal Segments

d)

Left Lower Lobe Apical Basal Segments

145.

The positioning of the patient in the photograph is MOST likely to be recommended for postural drainage of which of the following areas of the lungs?

a)

Left Upper Lobe

b)

Left Middle Lobe

c)

Lower Lobe Anterior Basal Segments

d)

Lower Lobe Lateral Basal Segments

146.

The positioning of the patient in the photograph is MOST likely to be recommended for postural drainage of which of the following areas of the lungs?

a)

Left Upper Lobe

b)

Left Middle Lobe

c)

Lower Lobe Anterior Basal Segments

d)

Lower Lobe Lateral Basal Segments

147.

The positioning of the patient in the photograph is MOST likely to be recommended for postural drainage of which of the following areas of the lungs?

a)

Lower Lobe Superior Segments

b)

Lower Lobe Posterior Basal Segments

c)

Lower Lobe Anterior Basal Segments

d)

Lower Lobe Lateral Basal Segments

148.

The positioning of the patient in the photograph is MOST likely to be recommended for postural drainage of which of the following areas of the lungs?

a)

Lower Lobe Superior Segments

b)

Lower Lobe Posterior Basal Segments

c)

Lower Lobe Anterior Basal Segments

d)

Lower Lobe Lateral Basal Segments

149.

Which of the following is NOT the most common post-op complications?

a)

Atelectasis

b)

Pneumonia

c)

PE/DVT

d)

Asthma

150.

On the Borg Scale, which rating corresponds to "no exertion"?

a)

6

b)

7

c)

8

d)

9

151.

On the Borg Scale, which rating corresponds to "extremely light"?

a)

7

b)

9

c)

11

d)

13

152.

On the Borg Scale, which rating corresponds to "very light"?

a)

9

b)

11

c)

13

d)

15

153.

On the Borg Scale, which rating corresponds to "light"?

a)

11

b)

13

c)

15

d)

17

154.

On the Borg Scale, which rating corresponds to "somewhat hard"?

a)

11

b)

13

c)

15

d)

17

155.

On the Borg Scale, which rating corresponds to "hard"?

a)

13

b)

15

c)

17

d)

19

156.

On the Borg Scale, which rating corresponds to "very hard"?

a)

15

b)

17

c)

19

d)

20

157.

On the Borg Scale, which rating corresponds to "extremely hard"?

a)

17

b)

18

c)

19

d)

20

158.

On the Borg Scale, which rating corresponds to "maximal exertion"?

a)

15

b)

17

c)

19

d)

20

159.

During exercise training in patients with mild to moderate pulmonary disease, what percentage of maximum heart rate is typically recommended for intensity?

a)

50%-60% of maximum heart rate

b)

70%-85% of maximum heart rate

c)

30%-40% of maximum heart rate

d)

90%-100% of maximum heart rate

160.

What is the recommended rating of perceived exertion (RPE) for moderate intensity exercise in pulmonary rehabilitation, corresponding to 40%-60% of VO₂ max?

a)

RPE 6-9

b)

RPE 12-13

c)

RPE 15-17

d)

RPE 19-20

161.

What is the recommended rating of perceived exertion (RPE) for vigorous intensity exercise in pulmonary rehabilitation, corresponding to 60%-90% of VO₂ max?

a)

RPE 12-13

b)

RPE 14-17

c)

RPE 6-9

d)

RPE 19-20

162.

What is the typical prescribed duration of exercise sessions in pulmonary rehabilitation programs?

a)

10-15 minutes

b)

20-30 minutes

c)

45-60 minutes

d)

90 minutes

163.

How often should patients in pulmonary rehabilitation perform moderate intensity exercise to achieve benefits?

a)

1-2 times per week

b)

3-5 times per week

c)

6-7 times per week

d)

Only once weekly

164.

A patient presents with dyspnea with activity, persistent non-productive cough, rapid shallow breathing, limited chest expansion, inspiratory crackles, clubbing/cyanosis, and ABGs showing hypoxemia. What is the most likely condition?

a)

Emphysema

b)

Asthma

c)

Restrictive pulmonary disorder

d)

Sleep apnea

165.

A patient with a history of smoking presents with dyspnea, chronic cough, chronic sputum production, recurrent lower respiratory tract infections, and FEV1 < 70%. What condition is most likely?

a)

Asthma

b)

COPD

c)

Cystic fibrosis

d)

Acute bronchitis

166.

A patient presents with dyspnea, recurrent infections, decreased chest expansion, wheezing, cyanosis, hypoxemia, and decreased exercise tolerance. What is the most likely condition?

a)

Chronic bronchitis

b)

COVID-19

c)

Restrictive pulmonary disorder

d)

Bronchiectasis

167.

A thin-built patient presents with dyspnea, tachypnea with prolonged expiration, accessory muscle use, and a barrel chest. What condition is most likely?

a)

Acute bronchitis

b)

Emphysema

c)

Sleep apnea

d)

Influenza

168.

A patient presents with wheezing, dyspnea, chest tightness, and cough. Which condition does this presentation most likely indicate?

a)

Asthma

b)

COPD

c)

Acute respiratory distress syndrome

d)

Pulmonary embolism

169.

A patient reports interruptions of deep restorative sleep, sluggishness, headaches, daytime fatigue, cognitive impairment, weight gain, and sexual impotence. What condition is most likely?

a)

Influenza

b)

Sleep apnea

c)

COVID-19

d)

Acute bronchitis

170.

A patient presents with a persistent cough producing large amounts of purulent sputum, dyspnea, and fatigue. What is the most likely condition?

a)

Cystic fibrosis

b)

Bronchiectasis

c)

COPD

d)

Asthma

171.

A patient reports a recent upper respiratory infection, fever, tight feeling behind the sternum, and a dry cough that later became productive. What is the most likely condition?

a)

Influenza

b)

Acute bronchitis

c)

COVID-19

d)

Restrictive pulmonary disorder

172.

A patient presents with frequent pulmonary infections and chronic cough due to pulmonary dysfunction, failure to thrive due to GI dysfunction, and diabetes mellitus due to pancreatic dysfunction. Which condition does this describe?

a)

Emphysema

b)

Sleep apnea

c)

Cystic fibrosis

d)

Bronchiectasis

173.

A patient presents with sudden onset fever, chills, headache, back and muscle pain, cough, runny nose, sore throat, sneezing, hoarseness, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Which condition is most likely?

a)

Influenza (Flu)

b)

COVID-19

c)

Acute bronchitis

d)

ARDS

174.

A patient presents with dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, apprehension, cough, and tachypnea. Risk factors include blood stasis, local trauma, hypercoagulable states, immobility, recent abdominal or pelvic surgery, THR/TKR, late pregnancy, lower limb fracture, or previous PE. What condition is most likely?

a)

Pulmonary embolism

b)

COPD

c)

Restrictive pulmonary disorder

d)

ARDS

175.

A patient develops acute respiratory failure following severe trauma, sepsis, or major surgery. What is the most likely condition?

a)

ARDS (Acute respiratory distress syndrome)

b)

COPD

c)

COVID-19

d)

Sleep apnea

176.

A patient presents with dry cough, fever, fatigue, and shortness of breath. What condition is most likely?

a)

Influenza

b)

COVID-19

c)

Acute bronchitis

d)

Restrictive pulmonary disorder

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