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Reproductive and Genital System Quiz

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following clinical manifestations are NOT seen in the lesions of condyloma acuminatum?

a)

Hyperkeratosis

b)

Acanthosis

c)

Changed order of maturation of cells

d)

Perinuclear halos

2.

Select the false statement:

a)

In the staging of testicular germ cell tumours; persistent elevation of hCG or AFP concentrations indicates metastatic spread

b)

Glands in prostate affected by BPH are lined by two layers of cells

c)

All granulosa cell tumours are potentially malignant

d)

Inflammatory carcinoma of the breast has a typical inflamed appearance caused by extensive plugging of lymphovascular spaces of dermis with carcinoma cells

3.

An 85-year-old man has experienced urinary hesitancy and nocturia for the past year. He has had increasing back pain for the past 6 months. On digital rectal examination, there is a hard, irregular prostate gland. A bone scan shows increased areas of uptake in the thoracic and lumbar vertebrae. Laboratory studies show a serum alkaline phosphatase level of 300 U/L, and serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level of 72 ng/mL. The blood urea nitrogen concentration is 44 mg/dL, and the serum creatinine level is 3.8 mg/dL. Transrectal biopsy specimens of all lobes of the prostate are obtained. Microscopic examination shows that more than 90% of the tissue has a pattern of cords and sheets of cells with hyper-chromatic pleomorphic nuclei, prominent nuclei, and scant cytoplasm. Which of the following is the best classification for this patient's disease?**

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

4.

An 18-year-old sexually active woman has had dyspareunia followed by vaginal bleeding for the past month. On pelvic examination, a red, friable, 2.5-cm nodular mass is seen on the anterior wall of the upper third of the vagina. The microscopic appearance of a biopsy specimen is shown in the figure. Which of the following conditions is likely to have contributed most to the origin of this neoplasm?**

a)

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

b)

Diethylstilbestrol (DES) exposure

c)

Human papillomavirus infection

d)

Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)

5.

The superficial inguinal ring transmits:

a)

Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve

b)

Ilioinguinal nerve

c)

Inferior epigastric artery

d)

Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

6.

Prostatic carcinoma spreads to the lumbar vertebrae most commonly through:

a)

Lymphatic channels to para-aortic nodes

b)

Direct invasion through pelvic wall

c)

Hematogenous spread via venous plexus

d)

Arterial spread via internal iliac artery

7.

A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a malignancy involving the lower part of her vagina. In the image above, which of the following nodes would first receive drainage from this area?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

8.

A 23-year-old woman in her seventh month of pregnancy visits her gynecologist for a routine checkup. The patient is informed that a hormone called 'relaxin' is responsible for the relaxation of the sacroiliac joint and pubic symphysis. Which of the following pelvic distances will most likely remain unaffected?

a)

Transverse diameter

b)

Interspinous distance

c)

True conjugate diameter

d)

Diagonal conjugate

e)

Oblique diameter

9.

A 1-year-old male infant is admitted to the pediatric clinic because he is passing urine on the underside of the penis as shown. Which embryologic structure failed to fuse?**

a)

Spongy urethra

b)

Labioscrotal folds

c)

Urethral folds

d)

Urogenital folds

10.

The most commonly used method for isolation of Chlamydia:

a)

Culture on artificial media

b)

Culture on Vero cell line

c)

Inoculation into Guinea pig

d)

Culture on McCoy cell line

11.

Wrong about bacterial vaginosis is:

a)

Discharge has offensive smell

b)

pH > 4.5

c)

Causative agent is Chlamydia trachomatis

d)

Clue cell is diagnostic

12.

A 46-year-old man from Africa came to the OPD with abdominal pain, hematuria and dysuria. Urine culture was found as sterile. Urine wet mount examination revealed non operculated elongated eggs with terminal spine. What is the etiological agent?**

a)

S. japonicum

b)

S. haematobium

c)

S. mansoni

d)

S. mekongi

13.

In neonatal conjunctivitis and pneumonia following birth, Chlamydia trachomatis serovars responsible are:

a)

D-K

b)

L1-L3

c)

A-C

d)

Ocular strains distinct

14.

Which virulence factor is most relevant to Proteus mirabilis causing struvite (magnesium ammonium phosphate) stones in urinary tract infections?

a)

Urease enzyme

b)

Hemolysin

c)

Capsule

d)

Type III secretion system

15.

In a patient with recurrent urinary tract infections, which bacterial species is most often implicated in biofilm formation that makes eradication difficult?

a)

Escherichia coli (uropathogenic type)

b)

Proteus mirabilis

c)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

d)

Enterococcus faecalis

16.

A woman presents with foul-smelling, grayish vaginal discharge and clue cells on microscopy. Which organism is the prime suspect?

a)

Candida albicans

b)

Trichomonas vaginalis

c)

Gardnerella vaginalis

d)

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

17.

Which is the correct pairing of causative agent and the disease in the female genital tract?

a)

Candida glabrata → granuloma inguinale

b)

Treponema pallidum → bacterial vaginosis

c)

Human papillomavirus → cervical carcinoma

d)

Ureaplasma urealyticum → pelvic inflammatory disease

18.

Fill in the blank: The most common cause of community-acquired urinary tract infection is Escherichia coli whose ability to attach to uroepithelial cells is mediated by (a)   .

19.

Which of the following statements regarding placental aging is false?

a)

Appearance of syncytial knots

b)

Increased number of Hofbauer cells

c)

Presence of a Nitabuch's layer

d)

Presence of Rohr's stria at the bottom of the intervillous space.

20.
  1. Match the following signs with the corresponding images

  1. A)Jacqueimer 

  2. B)Montgomery

  3. C)Hegar

  4. D)Chloasma

a)

A-4 B-1 C-3 D-2

b)

A-3 B-2 C-4 D-2

c)

A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1

d)

A-1 B-4 C-2 D-3

21.

In which condition is the parameter measured below falsely decreased?

a)

Oligohydraminos

b)

IUGR

c)

Concealed abruption

d)

Transverse lie

22.

Identify the marking in the image

(a)  

23.

Fill in the blank: Presence of phosphatidylglycerol and lecithin: sphingomyelin ratio > (a)   indicate fetal lung maturity in antenatal care investigations.**

24.

A woman delivers a baby with spina bifida. She had not taken folic acid supplements during pregnancy. Which biochemical pathway is most directly impaired and the RDA of folic acid during pregnancy?

a)

Homocysteine methylation 200microgram/day

b)

Homocysteine methylation 600 microgram/day

c)

Homocysteine methylation 350micrograms/day

d)

none of the above

25.

Find the correct statements regarding OGTT done during pregnancy

a)

dose is 75g anhydrous glucose in 250-300 ml of water to drink slowing in 5minutes

b)

During pregnancy, renal threshold is diminished due to the combined effect of increased glomerular filtration and impaired tubular reabsorption of glucose.

c)

in hyperthyroidism there will be a steep rise in the curve

d)

all the above

26.

Decrease in levels of which mineral in seminal plasma is seen in prostatic neoplasms?

a)

calcium

b)

selenium

c)

zinc

d)

copper

27.

A young lady who is on oral contraceptive pills refrains from taking any drug. even for minor ailments due to the fear of contraceptive failure. Which of the following drugs can be taken safely?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Tetracycline

c)

Phenytoin

d)

Rifampicin

28.

Leuprolide (a GnRH analogue) when given continuously (not pulsatile) will cause:

a)

Increased LH and FSH release

b)

Initial surge of LH/FSH then suppression

c)

No effect on LH/FSH

d)

Permanent infertility

29.

Causing Miscarriage Without Consent comes under (a)   BNS

30.

Characteristics of an ideal IUD Candidate does not include


a)

 has no history of pelvic disease

b)

is willing to check the IUD tail

c)

is in a polygamous relationship

d)

who has borne at least one child