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Worksheets

Advanced NCLEX-Style Set (Quizizz Format)

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A patient with HIV has a CD4 count of 180/μL and reports a white coating in the mouth with painful swallowing. Which action is PRIORITY?

a)

Administer nystatin oral suspension

b)

Increase oral fluids

c)

Notify infection control

d)

Encourage vitamin supplements

2.

A patient develops hypotension, wheezing, and hives 10 minutes after starting IV antibiotics. Which intervention should the nurse perform FIRST?

a)

Stop the infusion

b)

Administer diphenhydramine

c)

Call the provider

d)

Apply oxygen

3.

A patient with COPD is on 4 L/min nasal cannula oxygen. The nurse notes RR 8, O2 sat 95%, patient drowsy. Which is the most appropriate action?

a)

Increase oxygen to 6 L/min

b)

Decrease oxygen to 2 L/min

c)

Encourage pursed-lip breathing

d)

Prepare for intubation

4.

A client with active TB asks, “When will I no longer be contagious?” Best response:

4 lines
5.

A patient receiving prednisone for lupus reports fever and productive cough. Which nursing action is most appropriate?

a)

Administer albuterol inhaler

b)

Notify the provider immediately

c)

Encourage increased activity

d)

Withhold fluids

6.

A nurse receives report: COPD patient, pneumonia, O₂ sat 85% on 2 L NC, crackles, temp 101.8°F. Which order should the nurse implement FIRST?

a)

Obtain sputum culture

b)

Administer acetaminophen

c)

Ambulate the patient

d)

Start incentive spirometry

7.

A nurse teaches a patient prescribed rifampin for TB. Which statement indicates correct understanding?

a)

I should stop the medication if my urine turns orange.

b)

I will use a barrier method of birth control.

c)

I can drink alcohol occasionally.

d)

I only need to take the drug for 2 weeks.

8.

The nurse is caring for four patients. Which patient should be seen FIRST?

a)

Asthma patient with wheezing after albuterol

b)

COPD patient with SpO₂ 89% on 2 L NC

c)

Pneumonia patient with pleuritic chest pain

d)

Anaphylaxis patient with stridor after epinephrine

9.

A nurse cares for a patient with suspected Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which finding is most concerning?

a)

Ascending weakness

b)

Decreased deep tendon reflexes

10.

Which finding indicates latent TB rather than active TB?

a)

Weight loss, fever, night sweats

b)

Positive Mantoux test, negative sputum

c)

Hemoptysis and productive cough

d)

CXR showing cavitation

11.

A patient with myasthenia gravis reports increasing difficulty swallowing. Which nursing action is PRIORITY?

a)

Provide small frequent meals

b)

Offer liquids with meals

c)

Encourage ambulation

d)

Withhold medications

12.

A nurse is preparing discharge teaching for a lupus patient prescribed hydroxychloroquine. Which statement by the patient requires further teaching?

a)

I should schedule regular eye exams.

b)

I can stop taking this medication if I feel better.

c)

This drug may take months to work.

d)

I should take the drug with food.

13.

Which patient is at highest risk for hypoxemia?

a)

23-year-old with mild asthma

b)

58-year-old with COPD and pneumonia

c)

40-year-old with hypertension

d)

76-year-old with controlled diabetes

14.

A nurse receives morning report. Which patient should be assessed FIRST?

a)

Asthma patient with SpO2: 90% after albuterol

b)

TB patient with fever and night sweats

c)

COPD patient with clubbing and pursed-lip breathing

d)

Pneumothorax patient with tracheal deviation

15.

A patient with pneumonia is ordered antibiotics, oxygen, and fluids. Which should be done FIRST?

a)

Start IV antibiotics

b)

Administer oxygen

c)

Encourage ambulation

d)

Obtain sputum culture

16.

The nurse is teaching a patient about ART therapy for HIV. Which patient statement indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

If I miss a dose, I’ll take it as soon as I remember.

b)

I can skip doses if my viral load is low.

c)

I must take these drugs every day.

d)

Missing doses could lead to resistance.

17.

A nurse is assessing a patient with asthma. Which finding indicates impending respiratory failure?

a)

Audible wheezing

b)

Silent chest

c)

Cough with sputum

d)

Tachypnea

18.

A nurse is caring for a lupus patient receiving IVIG. Ten minutes into infusion, the patient develops dizziness and abdominal cramps. Which medication should the nurse anticipate giving?

a)

Diphenhydramine

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Prednisone

d)

Albuterol

19.

A nurse cares for a patient with COPD. Which nursing intervention BEST promotes effective gas exchange?

a)

Provide small frequent high-calorie meals

b)

Encourage fluid restriction

c)

Teach patient to avoid pursed-lip breathing

d)

Position patient supine

20.

Case: A 70-year-old COPD patient admitted with pneumonia. Vitals: RR 32, O₂ sat 84% on 2 L, HR 118, BP 98/64. Which order should the nurse question?

a)

Titrate O₂ to 4 L NC

b)

Start IV fluids

c)

Encourage ambulation

d)

Obtain ABG

21.

A patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome is receiving IVIG. Which finding requires IMMEDIATE intervention?

a)

Muscle weakness

b)

Dyspnea and low SpO₂

c)

Fatigue

d)

Paresthesias

22.

A patient with TB asks about precautions at home. Which teaching is correct?

a)

Use separate dishes and utensils.

b)

Cover your mouth when coughing.

c)

Avoid touching children.

d)

Wear gloves when cooking.

23.

A nurse is caring for a patient with asthma. Which diagnostic test best evaluates reversibility of airway obstruction?

a)

Chest X-ray

b)

Spirometry before and after bronchodilator

c)

ABG

d)

Sputum culture

24.

A patient presents with sharp pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea, and absent breath sounds on the right. Which is PRIORITY?

a)

Apply oxygen

b)

Obtain sputum culture

c)

Start incentive spirometry

d)

Give antibiotics

25.

A patient with pneumonia has ABGs: pH 7.31, PaCO₂: 49, HCO₃: 24. Which interpretation is correct?

a)

Respiratory acidosis (based on the ABG values)

b)

Metabolic alkalosis (based on the ABG values)

c)

Respiratory alkalosis (based on the ABG values)

d)

Metabolic acidosis (based on the ABG values)

26.

A patient with lupus is prescribed prednisone. Which findings require IMMEDIATE follow-up?

a)

Temperature 101.5°F

b)

Weight gain 4 lbs in 2 weeks

c)

Blood glucose 250 mg/dL

d)

Report of blurred vision

e)

Mild ankle edema

27.

A patient with HIV is prescribed Biktarvy (bictegravir/emtricitabine/tenofovir). Which teaching is PRIORITY?

a)

Avoid herbal supplements without approval.

b)

Stop the drug if you feel tired.

c)

You can miss a dose once in a while.

d)

Take with grapefruit juice daily.

28.

The nurse prepares to give vancomycin IV. Which finding requires holding the dose?

a)

WBC 12,000/μL

b)

Creatinine 2.1 mg/dL

c)

Temp 101.3°F

d)

Platelets 250,000/μL

29.

A patient receiving isoniazid (INH) for TB should be taught to report:

a)

Fatigue and loss of appetite

b)

Constipation

c)

Runny nose

d)

Insomnia

30.

Which patient statement shows understanding of epinephrine auto-injector use?

a)

I’ll inject it into my arm.

b)

I’ll inject into the thigh muscle.

c)

I can reuse it if I don’t push all the way.

d)

I’ll take an oral pill instead if available.

31.

A 38-year-old with lupus on prednisone reports facial swelling, acne, and weight gain. Which condition is most likely?

a)

Addison’s disease

b)

Cushingoid side effects

c)

Myasthenia gravis

d)

Opportunistic infection

32.

Case continuation: Which nursing intervention is MOST appropriate?

a)

Stop the drug

b)

Reassure patient this is expected with long-term steroids

c)

Reduce the dose independently

d)

Encourage high-sodium diet

33.

Which assessment finding indicates epinephrine was effective in anaphylaxis?

a)

O2 sat increases to 95%

b)

HR decreases to 40 bpm

c)

Patient becomes drowsy

d)

Wheezing increases

34.

Which staff member should NOT be delegated to suction a tracheostomy?

a)

Respiratory therapist

b)

RN

c)

LPN

d)

UAP

35.

Which is a PRIORITY nursing intervention for Guillain-Barré?

a)

Provide passive ROM

b)

Assess respiratory effort frequently

c)

Give pain meds

d)

Encourage ambulation

36.

Which teaching is most important for a patient with MG?

a)

Take meds at bedtime

b)

Schedule rest periods to conserve energy

c)

Avoid all exercise

d)

Double dose if missed

37.

A patient with MG is at highest risk for which complication?

a)

Seizures

b)

Aspiration

c)

DVT

d)

Hypertension

38.

A patient with pneumonia reports pleuritic chest pain and fever. Which intervention should the nurse implement FIRST?

a)

Administer antibiotics

b)

Give oxygen

c)

Start IV fluids

d)

Obtain sputum culture

39.

Which finding suggests impaired diffusion?

a)

Crackles in lung bases

b)

Low PaO₂ despite normal ventilation

c)

Tracheal deviation

d)

Wheezing

40.

Which ABG result indicates metabolic acidosis?

a)

pH 7.28, HCO₃ 18

b)

pH 7.46, PaCO₂ 30

c)

pH 7.50, HCO₃ 33

d)

pH 7.32, PaCO₂ 50

41.

Which is the earliest indicator of worsening hypoxemia?

a)

Cyanosis

b)

Restlessness

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Decreased LOC

42.

A 74-year-old with COPD admitted for pneumonia. ABG: pH 7.30, PaCO2: 60, HCO3 26. Interpretation?

a)

Metabolic alkalosis

b)

Respiratory acidosis

c)

Respiratory alkalosis

d)

Normal

43.

Case continuation: Which order should the nurse question?

a)

Albuterol nebulizer PRN

b)

Oxygen 5 L NC continuous

c)

Incentive spirometer use

d)

Broad-spectrum antibiotics

44.

Which finding indicates impending respiratory failure in asthma?

a)

Wheezing with cough

b)

Silent chest

c)

Tachypnea

d)

Sputum production

45.

A child with asthma has PEF 45% of baseline. Which zone of the Asthma Action Plan is this?

a)

Green

b)

Yellow

c)

Red

d)

Normal

46.

Which statement shows correct inhaler technique teaching?

a)

I will exhale after using the inhaler.

b)

I will hold my breath for 10 seconds after inhaling.

c)

I don’t need to rinse my mouth after steroids.

d)

I can use my LABA for sudden shortness of breath.

47.

Which precaution is required for active TB?

a)

Droplet

b)

Airborne

c)

Contact

d)

Reverse isolation

48.

A patient with TB is prescribed isoniazid. Which vitamin supplement prevents peripheral neuropathy?

a)

Vitamin D

b)

Pyridoxine (B6)

c)

Vitamin C

d)

Folic acid

49.

Which finding is most concerning in tension pneumothorax?

a)

Absent breath sounds on one side

b)

Tracheal deviation with hypotension

c)

Chest pain on inspiration

d)

Coarse crackles

50.

Which intervention is PRIORITY after thoracentesis?

a)

Encourage ambulation

b)

Monitor for pneumothorax

c)

Give antibiotics

d)

Start incentive spirometry

51.

Case: A 25-year-old develops itching, dizziness, and difficulty breathing after a bee sting. Which action is PRIORITY?

a)

Apply oxygen

b)

Start IV fluids

c)

Give diphenhydramine

d)

Notify provider

52.

Case continuation: The patient receives epinephrine IM. Which finding BEST shows improvement?

a)

BP 82/50

b)

SpO2: rises from 85% to 96%

c)

HR drops to 40

d)

Patient becomes lethargic

53.

The nurse is caring for four patients. Which should be assessed FIRST?

a)

COPD with O2 sat 90% on 2 L NC

b)

Asthma with wheezing and accessory muscle use

c)

Pneumonia with fever 101°F

d)

TB patient requesting pain meds

54.

Which task can the RN delegate to a UAP?

a)

Suctioning tracheostomy

b)

Educating COPD patient

c)

Obtaining vital signs

d)

Titrating oxygen

55.

The nurse cares for four patients. Which order is MOST urgent?

a)

Obtain ABG for COPD patient with confusion

b)

Administer acetaminophen for fever

c)

Teach asthma inhaler technique

d)

Collect sputum for culture

56.

Which symptoms are expected in active TB? (SATA)

a)

Hemoptysis

b)

Night sweats

c)

Weight gain

d)

Fatigue

e)

Sudden stridor

57.

Which are common side effects of corticosteroids?

a)

Hyperglycemia

b)

Osteoporosis

c)

Immunosuppression

d)

Hypotension

e)

Cushingoid appearance

58.

Which findings indicate anaphylaxis? (SATA)

a)

Hypotension

b)

Wheezing

c)

Urticaria

d)

Bradycardia

e)

Anxiety

59.

Case: A 62-year-old with COPD reports weight loss, fatigue, and clubbing. Which intervention is MOST important?

a)

Offer high-calorie meals

b)

Encourage fluid restriction

c)

Encourage lying flat

d)

Discontinue O₂ therapy

60.

A 45-year-old with pneumonia has WBC 16,000, fever 102°F, SpO₂ 87%. Which order should the nurse implement FIRST?

a)

Administer antibiotics

b)

Apply oxygen

61.

Case: A lupus patient on prednisone develops 3+ pitting edema, hematuria, and creatinine 2.0 mg/dL. Which complication is most likely?

a)

Cushing’s syndrome

b)

Lupus nephritis

c)

TB

d)

Anemia

62.

A 71-year-old with COPD on home O₂ arrives confused and very drowsy. Vitals: RR 8, SpO₂ 95% on 6 L NC, ABG: pH 7.25, PaCO₂ 72, HCO₃ 28. Priority action?

a)

Increase O₂ to 8 L

b)

Decrease O₂ and stimulate breathing

c)

Give IV bicarbonate

d)

Place patient flat in bed

63.

Which assessment best differentiates pleural effusion from pneumonia?

a)

Fever

b)

Dullness to percussion with ↓ breath sounds over fluid

c)

Productive cough with crackles

d)

Egophony (“E → A”)

64.

64. A patient started on isoniazid reports dark urine and right upper quadrant pain. What is the first action?

a)

Discontinue isoniazid immediately

b)

Increase the dose of isoniazid

c)

Reassure the patient and continue therapy

d)

Start corticosteroids

65.

Which medication is FIRST-line controller therapy to reduce airway inflammation in persistent asthma?

a)

SABA

b)

LAMA

c)

ICS

d)

Theophyllline

66.

Case: A 56-year-old on high-dose prednisone for SLE is being discharged. Which instruction is MOST important?

a)

Avoid crowds and sick contacts.

b)

Stop the drug if you feel better.

c)

Double doses on stressful days.

d)

Limit calcium intake.

67.

For a COPD patient with cachexia and early satiety, which nursing plan is BEST?

a)

3 large meals/day, low fat

b)

Small, frequent, high-calorie/protein meals

c)

Fluid restriction to 1 L/day

d)

Fasting before bedtime

68.

Which patient requires airborne isolation?

a)

Suspected TB

b)

Influenza

c)

MRSA wound

d)

RSV

69.

A nurse precepts a new grad caring for a patient with anaphylaxis. Which statement needs correction?

a)

I’ll inject epinephrine IM into the thigh.

b)

I’ll place the patient supine with legs elevated.

70.

The nurse evaluates teaching for a patient using an ICS inhaler. Which action indicates correct technique?

a)

Exhales immediately after inhalation

b)

Rinses mouth after each use

c)

Uses ICS only for rescue

d)

Shares inhaler spacer with family

71.

71. Case: A 43-year-old with asthma: PEF 48% of personal best, speaking in words, RR 34, SpO2 88% on room air. First action?

a)

Teach pursed-lip breathing

b)

Administer SABA via nebulizer

c)

Obtain sputum culture

d)

Start incentive spirometry

72.

In which situation is a sputum culture MOST essential before first antibiotic dose?

a)

Community viral bronchitis

b)

Suspected bacterial pneumonia

c)

Mild COPD exacerbation

d)

Allergic rhinitis

73.

Which finding after thoracentesis requires immediate provider notification?

a)

Mild soreness at the site

b)

New unilateral absent breath sounds

c)

Small serosanguinous drainage

d)

Temporary cough

74.

A patient with HIV asks why multiple ART drugs are necessary. Best response:

a)

To reduce cost and pill number.

b)

To prevent resistance and suppress replication.

c)

To boost your antibody production.

d)

To cure HIV faster.

75.

Which are clinical manifestations of pneumonia?

a)

Pleuritic chest pain

b)

Egophony (“E → A”)

c)

Hyperresonance to percussion

d)

↑ tactile fremitus

e)

Tracheal deviation

76.

Case (delegation): Which task is appropriate for the UAP caring for a stable COPD patient?

a)

Educate on pursed-lip breathing

b)

Adjust O₂ from 2 L to 4 L

c)

Obtain post-ambulation pulse oximetry

d)

Teach use of incentive spirometer

77.

A newly admitted patient with suspected TB needs which initial action?

a)

Start empiric antibiotics

b)

Place in negative-pressure room

c)

Start droplet precautions

d)

Begin INH immediately without testing

78.

Case: A 50-year-old with PJP presents with RR 30, SpO₂ 84% on room air. ABG: pH 7.33, PaCO₂ 37, PaO₂ 52, HCO₃ 21. Which interpretation?

a)

Hypoxemic respiratory failure

b)

Hypercapnic respiratory failure

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Normal ventilation and oxygenation

79.

Teach a patient on rifampin to:

a)

Expect orange body fluids

b)

Use nonhormonal contraception

c)

Avoid alcohol

d)

Stop drug if urine changes color

e)

Report easy bruising

80.

Which breathing strategy improves ventilation in COPD with air trapping?

4 lines
81.

A patient with MG is scheduled for meals. What is the BEST timing for anticholinesterase meds?

a)

At bedtime

b)

Immediately after meals

c)

30–60 minutes before meals

d)

Every 4 hours PRN

82.

Case: Post-thoracentesis, the patient suddenly becomes tachycardic and hypotensive with tracheal deviation. Priority intervention?

a)

Apply non-rebreather

b)

Notify provider and prepare for needle decompression

c)

Start incentive spirometry

d)

Place patient prone

83.

Which COPD patient finding requires urgent assessment?

a)

Clubbing

b)

New onset confusion

c)

Chronic cough

d)

Barrel chest

84.

Which are secondary prevention strategies for TB?

a)

Routine chest X-ray for everyone

b)

Mantoux testing for high-risk groups

c)

IGRA testing for healthcare workers

d)

BCG vaccination

e)

Sputum culture for symptomatic patients

85.

Case: Elderly resident with dull chest pain, dyspnea, ↓ breath sounds at bases, ultrasound shows effusion. Best initial management?

a)

High-dose steroids

b)

Treat underlying cause and consider therapeutic thoracentesis

86.

Which lab most directly reflects oxygen-carrying capacity?

a)

Hematocrit

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

WBC

d)

Platelets

87.

A patient with suspected PE likely exhibits which V/Q pattern?

a)

Low V/Q

b)

High V/Q

c)

Normal

d)

Shunt equals dead space

88.

Case: A 29-year-old with severe asthma attack; after repeated SABA, wheeze decreases and breath sounds become very quiet; patient fatigued. Next action?

a)

Reassure improvement

b)

Prepare for possible intubation

c)

Start incentive spirometry

d)

Obtain sputum

89.

Long-term prednisone teaching should include:

a)

Do not stop abruptly

b)

Monitor glucose

c)

Increase infection precautions

d)

Restrict calcium

e)

Expect weight loss

90.

Which assessment is MOST specific for lung consolidation?

a)

Hypoxia

b)

Egophony

c)

Wheezing

d)

Hyperresonance

91.

Case: HIV patient on ART misses doses frequently. Viral load is rising; CD4 dropping. Nursing priority?

a)

Switch to herbal therapy

b)

Assess barriers and reinforce adherence strategies

c)

Stop ART for a month

d)

Double doses when remembered

92.

Which vaccination is primary prevention for impaired gas exchange in older adults?

a)

Tdap

b)

Pneumococcal

c)

BCG

d)

MMR

93.

A patient on vancomycin IV develops flushing of neck/face and pruritus during infusion. BP stable, airway patent. First action?

a)

Stop drug permanently

b)

Slow infusion rate and give antihistamine

c)

Give epinephrine IM

d)

Switch to oral vancomycin

94.

SATA: Which findings suggest tension pneumothorax?

a)

Hypotension

b)

Distended neck veins

c)

Tracheal deviation

d)

Bilateral crackles

e)

Bradycardia

95.

Which test confirms reversible airway obstruction?

a)

Peak flow alone

b)

Spirometry improvement after bronchodilator

c)

ABG

d)

CXR

96.

77-year-old with suspected pneumonia. Which diagnostic should be obtained first?

(a)  

97.

Which statement by a patient on oseltamivir indicates correct understanding?

a)

This will kill the flu virus instantly.

b)

It works best if started within 48 hours of symptoms.

c)

I can stop once the fever ends.

d)

It prevents all complications.

98.

Delegation: Which task can the RN safely assign to an experienced LPN?

a)

Initial teaching about TB medications

b)

Titration of oxygen for unstable COPD

c)

Administer scheduled nebulized bronchodilator to stable patient

d)

Admission assessment for acute asthma

99.

Case (prioritization): Four patients call out simultaneously. Who is seen FIRST?

a)

COPD patient requesting pain meds

b)

Asthma patient with new onset stridor

c)

TB patient asking for water

d)

Pneumonia patient with temp 100.8°F

100.

Core nursing outcomes for COPD discharge teaching include:

a)

Demonstrates pursed-lip breathing

b)

Maintains SpO₂ 88–92% at rest

c)

Avoids vaccinations

d)

Identifies early signs of exacerbation

e)

Eats two large meals/day