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NCLEX-Style Pharmacology Questions

Total questions: 41

Worksheet time: 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A client with asthma presents to the ED with audible wheezing and dyspnea. Which medication should the nurse anticipate giving first?

a)

Fluticasone (Flovent)

b)

Albuterol (Ventolin)

c)

Salmeterol (Serevent)

d)

Prednisone

2.

The nurse is teaching a client prescribed fluticasone (Flovent) for asthma. Which statement indicates further teaching is needed?

a)

I will rinse my mouth after each use to prevent thrush.

b)

This medication will help prevent asthma attacks.

c)

I should not stop this medication suddenly.

d)

I can use this medication to stop an asthma attack.

3.

A client with COPD is prescribed tiotropium (Spiriva). Which instruction should the nurse include?

a)

This medication is for immediate relief during shortness of breath.

b)

You should not take this medication if you have glaucoma.

c)

You should use this medication only if your rescue inhaler does not work.

d)

You can stop taking this medication when you feel better.

4.

A client with tuberculosis is prescribed rifampin. Which teaching point is correct?

a)

I will report any vision changes immediately.

b)

I should expect my urine and tears to turn orange.

c)

This medication will cure my TB in 2 weeks.

d)

I can drink alcohol while on this medication.

5.

A client with systemic anaphylaxis is receiving epinephrine. The nurse recognizes the desired effect of this drug as:

a)

Lowering blood pressure

b)

Reducing airway inflammation

c)

Bronchodilation and improved oxygenation

d)

Increased immune response

6.

The nurse reviews labs for a client receiving isoniazid (INH) for TB. Which finding is most concerning?

a)

Hemoglobin 13 g/dL

b)

AST/ALT elevated 3× normal

c)

WBC 7,000 /μL

d)

Sodium 138 mEq/L

7.

A client taking prednisone for COPD exacerbation is at risk for which complication?

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Infection

c)

Hypotension

d)

Bradycardia

8.

A patient receiving IV immunoglobulin (IVIG) infusion reports chest pain and shortness of breath. Which complication is the priority concern?

a)

Allergic rhinitis

b)

Thrombosis or renal failure

c)

Headache

d)

Mild nausea

9.

The nurse is preparing to administer oseltamivir (Tamiflu) to a client with influenza. Which teaching is most appropriate?

a)

This medication kills the flu virus.

b)

You should start this medication within 48 hours of symptom onset.

c)

You will only need one dose to be cured.

10.

A client is prescribed amoxicillin for pneumonia. Which nursing action is priority before administration?

a)

Monitor bowel sounds

b)

Check for history of penicillin allergy

c)

Assess skin turgor

d)

Evaluate hemoglobin level

11.

The nurse is providing oxygen therapy to a client with COPD. What is the target SpO₂?

a)

95–100%

b)

90–94%

c)

88–92%

d)

80–85%

12.

Which finding suggests oxygen toxicity?

a)

Decreased heart rate

b)

Productive cough with yellow sputum

c)

Chest pain and dyspnea

d)

Clubbing of nails

13.

A client on long-term prednisone is at greatest risk for which complication?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Infection

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Weight loss

14.

The nurse is teaching a client about fluticasone (Flovent). Which statement indicates correct understanding?

a)

I will use this to stop an asthma attack.

b)

I should rinse my mouth after each use.

c)

I can stop it once I feel better.

d)

It works right away for wheezing.

15.

A patient receiving IV methylprednisolone should be monitored closely for:

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Hyperglycemia

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Dehydration

16.

Which medication is first-line for an acute asthma attack?

a)

Salmeterol

b)

Albuterol

c)

Tiotropium

d)

Fluticasone

17.

The nurse should question a prescription for albuterol in which client?

a)

Asthma

b)

COPD

c)

Cardiac arrhythmias

d)

Pneumonia

18.

A COPD client on salmeterol states: “This will help me during sudden shortness of breath.” Which response is best?

a)

Yes, it works quickly.

b)

No, this is for long-term control, not attacks.

c)

Yes, take it with albuterol.

d)

No, it only treats infections.

19.

Which is an example of a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA)?

a)

Salmeterol

b)

Tiotropium

c)

Ipratropium

d)

Albuterol

20.

A client prescribed tiotropium (Spiriva) should avoid use if they have:

a)

Glaucoma

b)

Asthma

c)

Hypertension

21.

Which combination drug contains both an ICS and a LABA?

a)

Spiriva

b)

Advair (Fluticasone + Salmeterol)

c)

Ventolin

d)

Atrovent

22.

What teaching is most important for a client using Symbicort (Budesonide + Formoterol)?

a)

Use it only during attacks

b)

Rinse your mouth after each use

c)

Stop it if you have a sore throat

d)

Take with food

23.

Which nursing action is priority before giving amoxicillin?

a)

Obtain sputum culture

b)

Check potassium

c)

Administer with grapefruit juice

d)

Assess bowel sounds

24.

A client with pneumonia develops diarrhea after antibiotics. What complication should the nurse suspect?

a)

Candida infection

b)

C. difficile infection

c)

Viral pneumonia

d)

Iron deficiency

25.

A client taking isoniazid (INH) should avoid:

(a)  

26.

Which TB drug causes orange urine and body fluids?

a)

Isoniazid

b)

Rifampin

c)

Pyrazinamide

d)

Ethambutol

27.

Which TB medication can cause optic neuritis?

a)

Ethambutol

b)

Rifampin

c)

INH

d)

Pyrazinamide

28.

A nurse caring for a client on TB treatment recognizes which adverse effect of pyrazinamide?

a)

Hepatotoxicity

b)

Orange urine

c)

Optic neuritis

d)

Seizures

29.

The nurse is teaching about oseltamivir (Tamiflu). Which statement is correct?

a)

It kills the flu virus.

b)

It must be started within 48 hours of symptoms.

c)

It cures the flu in one dose.

d)

It prevents all future flu infections.

30.

Which drug is part of antiretroviral therapy (ART) for HIV?

a)

Fluconazole

b)

Truvada

c)

Tamiflu

d)

Cephalexin

31.

Desired outcomes of ART include:

a)

Decreased viral load, increased CD4 count

b)

Cure of HIV

c)

Increased viral load, decreased CD4 count

32.

Which statement by a client taking fluconazole (Diflucan) requires follow-up?

a)

I take this medication for a yeast infection.

b)

I will monitor my liver function.

c)

I will stop using condoms because I’m on treatment.

d)

I may feel nauseated.

33.

The nurse should monitor which lab most closely for a client on ketoconazole?

a)

Liver function tests

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Calcium

d)

Thyroid levels

34.

A patient receiving IVIG suddenly develops flank pain and decreased urine output. What is the priority action?

a)

Stop the infusion

b)

Increase infusion rate

c)

Give diphenhydramine

d)

Reassure the patient

35.

The black box warning for IVIG includes risk for:

a)

Anemia

b)

Thrombosis and renal failure

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Hypertension

36.

The nurse is caring for a client in anaphylaxis. The first-line drug is:

a)

Diphenhydramine

b)

Epinephrine

37.

The expected action of epinephrine includes:

a)

Bronchodilation and vasoconstriction

b)

Lowering heart rate

c)

Reducing immune response

d)

Increasing urination

38.

The nurse should question an order for ibuprofen in which client?

a)

Asthma

b)

Hypertension

c)

Kidney disease

d)

Diabetes

39.

A client taking NSAIDs long-term is most at risk for which complication?

a)

GI bleeding

b)

Constipation

c)

Pulmonary embolism

d)

Hypoglycemia

40.

A client with a history of Guillain-Barré syndrome should not receive which vaccine?

a)

Influenza

b)

Pneumococcal

c)

Tdap

d)

Hepatitis B

41.

The nurse is teaching about live vaccines. Which client should NOT receive one?

a)

A 10-year-old with asthma

b)

A healthy 18-year-old

c)

A client who is immunocompromised

d)

A client with seasonal allergies