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Injury and Illness Exam 2

Total questions: 214

Worksheet time: 2hrs 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How many bones make up the skull?

a)

280

b)

28

c)

260

d)

15

2.

Areas of the skull where 2 bones come together

a)

Fissure Lines

b)

Fracture Lines

c)

Suture Lines

3.

Only moveable bone (lower part of jaw)

a)
Maxilla
b)
Zygomatic
c)
Mandible
d)
Temporal
4.

Connects mandible to temporal bone

a)

Temporomandibular joint (TMJ)

b)

Mandibular fossa (MF)

c)

Cervical vertebrae (CV)

d)

Maxillofacial joint (MJ)

5.

The brain consumes ___ blood flow and ___ total body oxygen

a)

15%, 20%

b)

5%, 100%

c)

10%, 40%

d)

15%, 30%

6.

Brain lobe that monitors hearing and speech

a)

Spinal

b)

Temporal

c)

Occipital

d)

Parietal

7.

Brain lobe that monitors vision

a)

Temporal

b)

Occipital

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Frontal

8.

Brain lobe that monitors equilibrium, muscle actions, and some reflexes

a)

Temporal

b)

Occipital

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Frontal

9.

Brain lobe that monitors voluntary muscle movements, emotions, and eye movement

a)

Temporal

b)

Parietal

c)

Spinal

d)

Frontal

10.

Brain lobe that monitors sensation

a)

Temporal

b)

Parietal

c)

Spinal

d)

Frontal

11.

Select the facts about the brain

a)

4-6 minutes without oxygen leads to brain death

b)

Brain cells grow until around 18 years old

c)

Brains weight about 3lbs

d)

Brains are bathed in cerebral spinal fluid

e)

Brains can go hours without oxygen

12.

Provides chemicals for proper functioning, maintain regular pressure, protects brain

a)

Cerebral Spinal Fluid

b)

Severe Head Injury

c)

Temporal Spinal Fluid

13.

True or False; The spinal chord crosses, meaning the right side of the brain controls the left side of the body

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Cerebral Spinal Fluid may drain from ears, nose, or skull in the event this occurs

a)

Severe Head Injury

b)

I'm the right answer

c)

Temporal Injury

d)

Cerebellar Head Injury

15.

Injury to this lobe of the brain can lead to these symptoms; memory problems, receptive aphasia (cannot understand words spoken), agitation, irritability

a)

Temporal

b)

Cerebellar

c)

Brain Stem

d)

Frontal

16.

Injury to this lobe of the brain can lead to these symptoms; Tremor, Coordination problems, Ataxia (jittery), Slurred speech, Hypotonia, Nystagmus (eyes make rapid movements)

a)

Temporal

b)

Cerebellar

c)

Brain Stem

d)

Frontal

17.

Injury to this lobe of the brain can lead to these symptoms; Abnormal breathing, Cranial nerve defects, Loss of consciousness, Pupil changes

a)

Brain Stem

b)

Frontal

c)

Parietal

d)

Occipital

18.

Injury to this lobe of the brain can lead to these symptoms; Personality change, Problem solving difficulties, Decreased impulse control, Confusion

a)

Brain Stem

b)

Frontal

c)

Parietal

d)

Occipital

19.

Injury to this lobe of the brain can lead to these symptoms; R: Neglect, Visual inattention | L: Difficulty naming objects

a)

Brain Stem

b)

Frontal

c)

Parietal

d)

Occipital

20.

Injury to this lobe of the brain can lead to these symptoms; Visual defects (EX: Cortical blindness)

a)

Brain Stem

b)

Frontal

c)

Parietal

d)

Occipital

21.

Seizure like response (outward response) due to traumatic brain injury

a)

Posturing

b)

Symptomatic

c)

Epileptic

d)
Neurological disorders
22.

Overtop of the skull; prevents infection, is deeply vascularized (large # of blood vessels)

a)

Scalp

b)
cerebrospinal fluid
c)
pia mater
d)

I'm the right answer!

23.

Bleeding under the skin creates a lump

a)
Hematoma
b)
Swelling
c)
Bruise
d)
Lump under the skin
24.

True or False; The skin and hair protect the skull from impact and sun exposure (Can handle 425 lbs of pressure)

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Select some ways to prevent head injuries

a)

Helmets- fit properly with fastened chin strap

b)

Mouth guards

c)

Stricter rules and regulations regarding contact (EX: no tackling until certain age)

d)

No hitting in head with stick sports

26.

Head makes contact with another player; can cause neck and head injuries

a)

Spearing

b)

Contact

c)

Falling

27.

Head moving while hit, bounces off other side

a)

Contrecoup

b)

Spearing

c)

Collision

d)

Compound

28.

What region of the brain is the most vulnerable to direct impact and why

a)

Temporal, thinnest region on side of head near the ear

b)

Temporal, on the top of the head

c)

Cerebellar, on the back of the head

29.

Select the types of skull fractures (break/crack in skull)

a)

Depressed

b)

Linear

c)

Compound

d)

Penetrating

e)

Complex

30.

Fracture where portion of skull is pushed inwards (visible dent)

a)

Depressed

b)

Linear

c)

Penetrating

d)

Compound

31.

Fracture where thin straight lines are present, bone fragments stay in place

a)

Depressed

b)

Linear

c)

Penetrating

d)

Compound

32.

Fracture where bone fragments penetrate out skin, bones are in tiny pieces

a)

Depressed

b)

Linear

c)

Penetrating

d)

Compound

33.

Fracture where skull is broken, object accesses brain

a)

Depressed

b)

Linear

c)

Penetrating

d)

Compound

34.

Discoloration behind the ear

a)

Dry skin

b)

The subject is dying

c)

The answer is not present

d)

Battle sign

35.

Select the signs and symptoms of a head injury

a)

Battle sign is present

b)

Altered consciousness/unconsciousness

c)

  • Increased appetite

d)

  • Improved balance and coordination

36.

Can occur with fracture/blows to the head; bleeding putting pressure on brain (often seen on temporal and parietal)

a)
Epidural hematoma
b)
Intracerebral hemorrhage
c)

Intercranial Hematoma

d)
Contusion
37.

Select all the potential symptoms of a Intercranial Hematoma

a)

Headache

b)

Nausea

c)

Vomiting

d)

Battle Sign

e)

Drowsiness

38.

What is tested using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

a)

Eye movement, verbal skills, motor skills (each measurement assigned score)

b)

Level of consciousness

c)

How well you know your ABCs

d)

Blood pressure levels

39.

True or False; The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), scores people with 3 being the minimum (completely unconscious), 8 or less being comatose, and 15 being the max (fully alert)

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Occur from force directly/indirectly applied to skull; rapid acceleration/deceleration of the brain

a)

Concussion

b)

Comatose

c)

Temporal Joint

41.

True or False; another name for a Concussion is Mild Traumatic Brain Injury

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Select the symptoms of a concussion

a)

Difficulty remembering and multitasking

b)

Headaches, Dizziness, Nausea, Vomiting

c)

Sensitive to light and sound, Burred vision

d)

Decreased reaction time and athletic ability

e)

Increase reaction time, Decrease athletic ability

43.

Select the levels of Eye Opening Response on the Glasgow Scale

a)

1- no response

b)

1- alert and awake

c)

2- to pain

d)

3- to speech

e)

4- spontaneously

44.

Select the levels of best Verbal Response on the Glasgow Scale

a)

1- none

b)

2- incomprehensible words

c)

5- oriented

d)

3- inappropriate words

e)

4- confused

45.

Select the levels of best Motor Response on the Glasgow Scale

a)

1- none, 2-abnormal extension

b)

6- obeys commands

c)

5- localizes pain

d)

3- abnormal flexion

e)

4- withdraws pain

46.

Select everything done during Concussion testing

a)

Self reported symptoms checklist, Head injury scale

b)

Sport Concussion Assessment Tool 3 (SCAT-3)

c)

Motor Control

d)

Concussion system inventory

e)

Graded symptoms checklist

47.

5 minute test, evaluates domains of orientation, immediate memory, concentration, and delayed recall (Neurocognitive testing)

a)

Mental Status Testing (SAC)

b)

Vision Acuity Testing (VAT)

c)

Cognitive and Motor Function Testing (CMT)

48.

When should an athlete be transported to a medical facility

a)

Unconscious for > 1 minute

b)

Mental status is decreasing after injury evaluation/ signs and symptoms of more severe injury present

c)

Mental status is increasing after injury evaluation/ athlete is perfectly fine but wants to go on a fun ambulance ride

49.

Select all Post Injury Management stages

a)

Remove athlete from playing

b)

Have athlete avoid physical activity

c)

Decrease cognitive activity (Ex: Postpone school work)

d)

Avoid Aspirin/Anti-inflammatories (Increase blood flow)

e)

Allow athlete to continue sport while symptoms are present and monitor

50.

Select when athletes can return to play

a)

No concussion symptoms are present

b)

Normal exams

c)

Preforms at/above preinjury levels on neurocognitive and motor functions

d)

Collaboration on return to play depends on Athlete, doctor, and ATC

e)

Athlete decided when to return to play based on being symptom free

51.

Risk factors for athletes regarding concussions

a)

History of concussions and their severity, Loss of consciousness during previous

b)

Adolescent/Child

c)

History of migraines, depression, mental illness

d)

Using anticoagulant meds/psychedelics

e)

Playing collision sports

52.

Return to Play Progression (each stage separated by 24 hours)

a)

  1. 1) No activity

  2. 2) Light exercise- 70% age-predicted ma HR

b)

3) Sport specific activities without contact

c)

4) Noncontact training with others, resistance training

d)

5) Unrestricted training

e)

3) Sport specific activities with light contact

53.

Persistence of concussion symptoms impacting activities of daily living and school; length varies and vulnerable to concussion during period

a)

Post Concussion Syndrome

b)

2nd Impact Syndrome

c)

Chronic Traumatic Encephalopathy

54.

Cumulative damage from multiple concussions (can be life threatening)

a)

Post Concussion Syndrome

b)

2nd Impact Syndrome

c)

Chronic Traumatic Encephalopathy

55.

Repeated trauma to head and causes degeneration in brain unable to diagnosis until autopsy after death (Causes suicidal thoughts, balance issues, speech difficulty, aggressiveness, memory loss)

a)

Post Concussion Syndrome

b)

2nd Impact Syndrome

c)

Chronic Traumatic Encephalopathy

56.

Concussion/Head Injury Red Flags

a)

Decrease consciousness, Increase confusion

b)

Increase irritability, loss/fluctuating consciousness

c)

Numbness in arms and legs, unequal pupils, vomiting constantly

d)

seizures, slurred speech/ inability to speak

e)

Inability to recognize objects/places, worsening headaches

57.

Bones in the face

a)

Maxilla and Mandible

b)

Nasal bone

c)

Frontal bone

d)

Zygomatic/Zygoma

e)

Sphenoid

58.

House and protect the sense organs of smell, sight, and taste; Provide a frame on which the soft tissue of the face (Eating, Facial expression, Breathing, and Speech)

a)

Facial bones

b)

Zygomatic Arches

c)

Mandible

d)

Frontal Lobe

59.

Part of the sphenoid, above and below eyes, facial fractures can cause blood to fill in this area

a)

Sinuses

b)

Eye

c)

Mouth

d)

Brain

60.

Protected by Orbital foramen protects on 3 sides, attachment for eye muscles

a)

Eye

b)

Pupil

c)

Lid

d)

Iris

61.

Sits in the orbital foramen

a)

Eye socket

b)

Iris

c)

Mouth

d)

Pupil

62.

Select the two chambers of the eye

a)

Frontal

b)

Saggital

c)

Anterior

d)

Posterior

63.

Fill with fluid to give eye shape; If injury occurs that drains fluid, permanent eye damage/blindness occurs

a)

Anterior/Posterior Chambers

b)

Frontal/Sagittal Chambers

c)

Sclera Chamber

64.

True or False; no eye movement is an indicator of head/eye injury

a)

True

b)

False

65.

white covering of eye

a)

Sclera

b)

Pupil

c)

Lid

d)

Eye socket

66.

Clear, center portion, protects the eye (covers pupil) made of lots of cells and can be injured if something scratches eye

a)

Cornea

b)

Pupil

c)

Lid

d)

Sclera

67.

True or False; the eye being yellow can indicate liver disease

a)

True

b)

False

68.

The black center of the eye

a)

Pupil

b)

Lens

c)

Lid

d)

Cornea

69.

Colored and contractible part of eye (bright it gets smaller, dark it gets bigger)

a)

Pupil

b)

Lens

c)

Iris

d)

Cornea

70.

Clear : Focuses light rays onto retina

a)

Pupil

b)

Lens

c)

Iris

d)

Cornea

71.

Back of eye for vision; contains rods and cones; receives the image we see and coverts it to a nerve single that travels the optic nerve to the brain

a)

Pupil

b)

Lens

c)

Iris

d)

Retina

72.

True or False; rods have black and white vision

a)

True

b)

False

73.

True or False; cones have colored vision

a)

True

b)

False

74.

Surface of eyelid

a)

Conjunctiva

b)

Constrict

c)

Cornea

d)

Retina

75.

Gets smaller, happens in bright light to decrease amount of light coming into eye.

a)

Constrict

b)

Dilate

c)

Cornea

d)

Conjuctiva

76.

Gets larger, happens in low light or when it is dark

a)

Dilate

b)

Constrict

c)

Glow

d)

Cornea

77.

Can see near objects better than objects farther away

a)

Near sighted

b)

Far sighted

78.

Can see objects that are farther away better than objects close

a)

Near sighted

b)

Far sighted

79.

Select the three parts of the ear

a)

External

b)

Middle

c)

Inner

d)

Medial

e)

Lateral

80.

Part of the ear that catches sound

a)

Pinna

b)

Ear Canal

c)

Ear drum

d)

Cochlea

81.

Part of the ear that carries the sound

a)

Pinna

b)

Ear Canal

c)

Ear drum

d)

Auditory Canal

82.

True or False; the Tympanic Membrane and Eardrum are the same thing

a)

True

b)

False

83.

Select what the nasal bones do

a)

Attach to the frontal bone

b)

Create bridge of nose (Cartilage makes up rest)

c)

Septum separates left and right side

d)

Hairs filter air as it enters

e)

Septum connect the nasal passage to the esophagus

84.

Separates mouth from the bottom of the nose

a)

Palate

b)

Lower Jaw

c)

Mandible

d)

Maxille

85.

Upper part of jaw

a)

Maxilla

b)

Mandible

c)

Palate

d)

Zygomatic

86.

Select all the parts of the mouth

a)

Mandible

b)

Maxilla

c)

Temporomandibular joint

d)

Tongue

e)

Palate

87.

Give the face shape

a)

Teeth

b)

Temporomandibular joint

c)

Crown

d)

Root

88.

Amount of teeth adults have

a)

100

b)

32

c)

23

d)

27

89.

Two parts of the mouth the teeth are attached to

a)

Mandible and Maxilla

b)

Crown and Root

c)

Maxilla and Maxillae

90.

Visible part of the tooth

a)

Crown

b)

Root

c)

Cornea

d)

Muscles

91.

portion of tooth below gum line, cannot see, contains the nerves

a)

Crown

b)

Root

c)

Cornea

d)

Muscles

92.

White tooth = ____, Gray tooth= ____

a)

Alive, Dead

b)

Dead, Alive

c)

Alive, Alive

d)

Dead, Dead

93.

Select all the muscles used while chewing

a)

Masseter

b)

Temporal

c)

Pterygoid

d)

Conjuctiva

94.

Also known as pink eye, very contagious and causes eyes to become red and irritated

a)

Conjunctivitis

b)

Conjunctiva

c)

Foreign body syndrome

95.

Causes tears, needs to be rinsed with water from nose outwards to remove

a)

Foreign body in eye

b)

Embedded objects

c)

Corneal abrasion/laceration

d)

Black eye

96.

Object stuck in eye and cannot be removed on own, immediately send to doctor

a)

Foreign body in eye

b)

Embedded objects

c)

Corneal abrasion/laceration

d)

Black eye

97.

Sensitive to light, excessive tearing, pain, feels like something is in the eye

a)

Foreign body in eye

b)

Embedded objects

c)

Corneal abrasion/laceration

d)

Black eye

98.

Hard blow to the eye; bleeding, discoloration, swelling (No need to worry unless there is visual impairment)

a)

Black eye

b)

Detached retina

c)

Subconjunctival hermmorage

d)

Orbital roof fracture

99.

Blow to the eye; Sees sparks, flashes, and light no one else seeing, things are fuzzy (Immediate referral)

a)

Black eye

b)

Detached retina

c)

Subconjunctival hermmorage

d)

Orbital roof fracture

100.

Small vessels in the eye rupture often from a constant cough; conjunctiva turns red

a)

Black eye

b)

Detached retina

c)

Subconjunctival hermmorage

d)

Orbital roof fracture

101.

Blow to the eye; pain, headache, sign/symptoms of concussion, hematoma, nose may bleed, csf may leak from the nose

a)

Orbital roof fracture

b)

Sinus fracture

c)

Blowout fracture

d)

Swimmer's ear

102.

Blow to face; Headache, Dizziness, Unsteadiness, Nose bleed from same side

a)

Orbital roof fracture

b)

Sinus fracture

c)

Blowout fracture

d)

Swimmer's ear

103.

Eyeball forced backward in socket; Double vision, decreased feeling, numbness in lip/upper jaw, injured eye looks different direction, bloody nose (Call 911, possible permanent vision problems)

a)

Orbital roof fracture

b)

Sinus fracture

c)

Blowout fracture

d)

Swimmer's ear

104.

Swimmer's ear; Pain, Itching, Hearing loss (treated with ear drops)

a)

Otitis externa

b)

Hematoma auris

c)

Deviated ear canal

d)

Deviated ear drum

105.

Cauliflower ear; Pinna bleeds internally causing swelling, redness, pain

a)

Otitis externa

b)

Hematoma auris

c)

Deviated ear canal

d)

Deviated ear drum

106.

Tear of tympanic membrane; Loss of hearing, buzzing, draining from the ear (Can heal on its own)

a)

Ruptured Eardrum

b)

Deviated Septum

c)

Nasal Facture

d)

Tooth Fracture

107.

Decreased airflow to one side of nose (will cause nosebleed)

a)

Ruptured Eardrum

b)

Deviated Septum

c)

Nasal Facture

d)

Tooth Fracture

108.

Direct blow to nose; Nosebleed, Hear a snap, Pain, Difficulty breathing, Crunchiness during Palpation

a)

Ruptured Eardrum

b)

Deviated Septum

c)

Nasal Facture

d)

Tooth Fracture

109.

Anatomy of Throat

a)

Carotid artery

b)

Jugular veins

c)

Larynx

d)

Trachea

e)

Esophagus

110.

Sits beside trachea, carries oxygenated blood away from brain

a)

Carotid artery

b)

Jugular vein

c)

Larynx

d)

Trachea

111.

Sits beside trachea, carries oxygenated blood towards brain

a)

Carotid artery

b)

Jugular vein

c)

Larynx

d)

Trachea

112.

Contains vocal chords- upper part of Trachea

a)

Larynx

b)

Trachea

c)

Esophagus

d)

Thorax

113.

Cartilage tube; airway to lungs

a)

Larynx

b)

Trachea

c)

Esophagus

d)

Thorax

114.

Food passes through this from mouth to stomach

a)

Larynx

b)

Trachea

c)

Esophagus

d)

Thorax

115.

Part of body between neck and abdonmen

a)

Larynx

b)

Trachea

c)

Esophagus

d)

Thorax

116.

Bony structure of the thorax
12 ribs on each side (10 attached, 2 floating - bottom unattached from sternum)
sternum anteriorly (partially T shaped vertical bone)

a)

Thoracic Vertebrae Posteriorly

b)

Parts of Abdomen

c)

Thoracic Vertebrae Anteriorly

d)

Abdominal Vertebrae

117.

Select parts of Abdomen

a)

Lumbar spine- Posteriorly

b)

Diaphragm- Superiority

c)

Abdomen Muscles- Anteriorly

d)

Pelvis- Inferiorly

e)

Pelvis- Superiority

118.

True or False; the Abdomen can be divided into 4 parts?

a)

True

b)

False

119.

Organs in URQ

a)

Liver, Pancreas, Right Kidney, Gallbladder, Large and Small Intestines

b)

Stomach, Spleen, Liver, Pancreas, Left Kidney, Large and Small Intestines

c)

Large and Small Intestines, Appendix, Bladder, Uterus, Right Ovary/Prostate

d)

Large and Small Intestines, Bladder, Uterus, Left Ovary/Prostate

120.

Organs in ULQ

a)

Liver, Pancreas, Right Kidney, Gallbladder, Large and Small Intestines

b)

Stomach, Spleen, Liver, Pancreas, Left Kidney, Large and Small Intestines

c)

Large and Small Intestines, Appendix, Bladder, Uterus, Right Ovary/Prostate

d)

Large and Small Intestines, Bladder, Uterus, Left Ovary/Prostate

121.

Organs in LRQ

a)

Liver, Pancreas, Right Kidney, Gallbladder, Large and Small Intestines

b)

Stomach, Spleen, Liver, Pancreas, Left Kidney, Large and Small Intestines

c)

Large and Small Intestines, Appendix, Bladder, Uterus, Right Ovary/Prostate

d)

Large and Small Intestines, Bladder, Uterus, Left Ovary/Prostate

122.

Organs in LLQ

a)

Liver, Pancreas, Right Kidney, Gallbladder, Large and Small Intestines

b)

Stomach, Spleen, Liver, Pancreas, Left Kidney, Large and Small Intestines

c)

Large and Small Intestines, Appendix, Bladder, Uterus, Right Ovary/Prostate

d)

Large and Small Intestines, Bladder, Uterus, Left Ovary/Prostate

123.

Select all solid organs

a)

Liver

b)

Spleen

c)

Pancreas

d)

Kidney

e)

Bladder (when full)

124.

Aid in body Chemistry (injury can cause sudden death due to large blood supply)

a)

Solid organs

b)

Hollow organs

c)

Heart

d)

Brain

125.

Injury to these seldom causes death; tubes that assist in transporting (tend to move and bend hen hit)

a)

Solid organs

b)

Hollow organs

c)

Heart

d)

Brain

126.

Select all Hollow Organs

a)

Gallbladder

b)

Stomach

c)

Small and Large Intestine

d)

Bladder (when empty)

e)

Pancreas

127.

Organ that can be both hollow and solid

a)

Intestines

b)

Kidney

c)

Liver

d)

Bladder

128.

Right shoulder area and back

a)

Referral point for Liver

b)

Referral point for Kidney

c)

Referral point for Appendix

d)

Referral point for Gallbladder

e)

Referral point for Pancreas

129.

Below ribcage, wrapping from back to front

a)

Referral point for Liver

b)

Referral point for Kidney

c)

Referral point for Appendix

d)

Referral point for Gallbladder

e)

Referral point for Pancreas

130.

Lower right Abdomen between naval and hip

a)

Referral point for Liver

b)

Referral point for Kidney

c)

Referral point for Appendix

d)

Referral point for Gallbladder

e)

Referral point for Pancreas

131.

Just below right ribcage and possible right shoulder

a)

Referral point for Stomach

b)

Referral point for Small Intestine

c)

Referral point for Large Intestine

d)

Referral point for Gallbladder

e)

Referral point for Pancreas

132.

Left shoulder and mid-abdominal region

a)

Referral point for Stomach

b)

Referral point for Small Intestine

c)

Referral point for Large Intestine

d)

Referral point for Gallbladder

e)

Referral point for Pancreas

133.

Over the bladder

a)

Referral point for Stomach

b)

Referral point for Small Intestine

c)

Referral point for Large Intestine

d)

Referral point for Spleen

e)

Referral point for Pancreas

134.

Naval

a)

Referral point for Stomach

b)

Referral point for Small Intestine

c)

Referral point for Large Intestine

d)

Referral point for Spleen

e)

Referral point for Pancreas

135.

Sacrum

a)

Referral point for Stomach

b)

Referral point for Small Intestine

c)

Referral point for Large Intestine

d)

Referral point for Spleen

e)

Referral point for Pancreas

136.

Left shoulder and over spleen

a)

Referral point for Stomach

b)

Referral point for Small Intestine

c)

Referral point for Large Intestine

d)

Referral point for Spleen

e)

Referral point for Pancreas

137.

Stomach, Small and Large Intestines, Liver, Gallbladder, Pancreas, Spleen

a)

Digestive System Organs

b)

Urinary System Organs

c)

Reproductive System Organs

d)

Stomach System Organs

138.

Kidneys, Ureters, Bladder

a)

Digestive System Organs

b)

Urinary System Organs

c)

Reproductive System Organs

d)

Stomach System Organs

139.

F: Ovaries, Uterus

M: Prostate, Seminal Vesicles

a)

Digestive System Organs

b)

Urinary System Organs

c)

Reproductive System Organs

d)

Stomach System Organs

140.

Secretes gastric juices (acid) to break down food

a)

Stomach

b)

Liver

c)

Gallbladder

d)

Pancreas

e)

Small Intestine

141.

Detoxification of chemicals; Stores vitamins, produces bile for food metabolism

a)

Large Intestine

b)

Liver

c)

Gallbladder

d)

Pancreas

e)

Small Intestine

142.

Stores bile, Bile travels to small intestine for digestion of fats

a)

Large Intestine

b)

Appendix

c)

Gallbladder

d)

Pancreas

e)

Small Intestine

143.

Insulin production; Sits behind stomach near liver and spinal column

a)

Large Intestine

b)

Appendix

c)

Spleen

d)

Pancreas

e)

Small Intestine

144.

Breaks down food; Peristalsis- contraction relaxation of intestinal muscles

a)

Large Intestine

b)

Appendix

c)

Spleen

d)

Kidneys

e)

Small Intestine

145.

Processes waste for excretion

a)

Large Intestine

b)

Appendix

c)

Spleen

d)

Kidneys

e)

Bladder

146.

Protects/Produces beneficial bacteria

a)

Ovaries

b)

Appendix

c)

Spleen

d)

Kidneys

e)

Bladder

147.

Produces and stores RBC (red blood cells) and stores blood

a)

Ovaries

b)

Uterus

c)

Spleen

d)

Kidneys

e)

Bladder

148.

Maintain acid-base balance (can lead to death if not working); Filter blood and remove waste

a)

Ovaries

b)

Uterus

c)

Seminal Vesicles and Prostate Gland

d)

Kidneys

e)

Bladder

149.

Holding tank of liquid waste (urine)

a)

Ovaries

b)

Uterus

c)

Seminal Vesicles and Prostate Gland

d)

Pelvis

e)

Bladder

150.

Produce eggs and estrogen

a)

Ovaries

b)

Uterus

c)

Seminal Vesicles and Prostate Gland

d)

Pelvis

e)

Bladder

151.

Egg develops here if fertilized, lining sloughs off during menstruation if not fertilized

a)

Ovaries

b)

Uterus

c)

Seminal Vesicles and Prostate Gland

d)

Pelvis

e)

Bladder

152.

Add fluid and nutrients to seminal fluid (need protective cup and athletic support to protect)

a)

Ovaries

b)

Uterus

c)

Seminal Vesicles and Prostate Gland

d)

Pelvis

e)

Bladder

153.

Bones to protect organs, Female have larger opening and wide than males; Iliac crest

a)

Ovaries

b)

Uterus

c)

Seminal Vesicles and Prostate Gland

d)

Pelvis

e)

Bladder

154.

Select the Abdominal muscles

a)

Rectus abdominus

b)

Obliques

c)

Obtics

d)

Atticus Abdonimus

155.

Abdominal muscle- sits vertically (up and down); Forward flexion of the trunk

a)

Rectus abdominus

b)

Obliques

156.

Abdominal muscle- sits diagonally; Compresses abdomen

a)

Rectus abdominus

b)

Obliques

157.

Preventing Abdominal Injuries

a)

Abdominal trauma can quickly become emergent, Protective equipment important

b)

Sports creating rules: Boxing- no hitting below the belt

c)

Empty bladder before practice and games (full bladders like balloons- can rupture)

d)

Abdominal trauma never happens due to skeleton protecting the organs

158.

Blood in Urine

a)

Side stitch

b)

Hernia

c)

Appendicitis

d)

Hematuria

159.

Pain below ribs in upper abdomen; Causes- Lack of O2 to Abdominal muscles, Improper breathing, eating food before exercise, air trapped in abdominal organs

a)

Side stitch

b)

Hernia

c)

Appendicitis

d)

Hematuria

160.

Lump where intestine bulges through weak area in abdominal wall; Inguinal hernia- groin area

a)

Side stitch

b)

Hernia

c)

Appendicitis

d)

Hematuria

161.

Inflammation of appendix; pain at McBurney's point (between naval and hip); Nausea, Fever, Pain- Immediate referral and possible surgery

a)

Side stitch

b)

Hernia

c)

Appendicitis

d)

Hematuria

162.

True or False; Blunt trauma to the abdomen is a immediate referral to a doctor

a)

True

b)

False

163.

Deceleration causes tearing; Pain in middle of Abdomen, Nausea, Vomiting, Signs of shock

a)

Blunt trauma to Pancreas

b)

Blunt trauma to Liver

c)

Blunt trauma to Kidney

d)

Blunt trauma to Bladder

164.

Direct blow to upright abdomen, referred to right shoulder; Blood loss causes shock, Rapid weak pulse, Decrease BP

a)

Blunt trauma to Pancreas

b)

Blunt trauma to Liver

c)

Blunt trauma to Kidney

d)

Blunt trauma to Bladder

165.

Direct blow causes contusion laceration/rupture; Pain in flank, Nausea/Vomiting, Blood in Urine, May go into shock from severe blood loss

a)

Blunt trauma to Pancreas

b)

Blunt trauma to Liver

c)

Blunt trauma to Kidney

d)

Blunt trauma to Bladder

166.

Rupture; Pain in lower, middle Abdomen, Blood in Urine

a)

Blunt trauma to Pancreas

b)

Blunt trauma to Liver

c)

Blunt trauma to Kidney

d)

Blunt trauma to Bladder

167.

If not working properly, can potentially remove healthy blood cells; Blow to abdomen, Vulnerable if swollen from mono, Pain referred to left shoulder

a)

Spleen Injury/Rupture

b)

Bladder Injury/Rupture

c)

Appendix Injury/Rupture

d)

Kidney Injury/Rupture

168.

Nose bleed; Treated by leaning forward, pinching nose and using ice/nose plug if not fractured

a)

Hernia

b)

Hematoma

c)

Otitis

d)

Epistaxis

169.

Select all chambers of the heart

a)

Left Atria

b)

Right Atria

c)

Left Ventricle

d)

Right Ventricle

e)

Lateral Atria

170.

Upper chambers of the heart

a)

Light and Right Atria

b)

Left and Right Ventricle

171.

Lower chambers of the heart

a)

Light and Right Atria

b)

Left and Right Ventricle

172.

The left lung has ___ lobes and the right lung has ___ lobes

a)

2,3

b)

3,2

c)

4,5

d)

11,12

173.

Heart Circulation Cycle

a)

1) R atrium fills w/ carbon dioxide filled blood

b)

2) Pumps it in to the R ventricle & sends it to the lungs to pick up oxygen

c)

3) L atrium fills w/ oxygen rich blood from lungs

d)

4) Send it to the L ventricle to pump it throughout the body

174.

Breathing >24 breaths/minute; Leads to abnormal loss of CO2 in blood- Lightheadedness, Numbness in hands, Loss of consciousness

a)

Hyperventilation

b)

Asthma

c)

Exercise Induced Asthma

d)

Cardiac Cause

175.

Chronic condition, narrowing of airways making breathing difficult

a)

Hyperventilation

b)

Asthma

c)

Exercise Induced Asthma

d)

Cardiac Cause

176.

Difficulty breathing stimulated by exercise

a)

Hyperventilation

b)

Asthma

c)

Exercise Induced Asthma

d)

Cardiac Cause

177.

Blow to the Chest

a)

Cardiac tamponade cause

b)

Kehr's sign

c)

McBurney's point

178.

Select the functions of the heart

a)

Pumps blood to all parts of body

b)

Regulates CO2 and O2 levels in blood supply

c)

Carries O2 to cells and carries away CO2

d)

Controls waste management

179.

Segments of Spine and how many bones are in each

a)

Cervical: 7

b)

Thoracic: 12

c)

Lumbar: 5

d)

Sacral: 5 fused vertebrae

e)

Coaxes end of sacrum

180.

Bone-Disk-Bone; Shock absorbers, Resist compression and create space for nerves to exit

a)

Intervertebral disks

b)

Muscles and Tendons

c)

Carotid Artery

d)

Thoracic Vertebrae

181.

2 Major parts of disk

a)

Nucleus pulposus (soft middle part)

b)

Nucleus pulposus (harder part)

c)

Annulus fibrosus (harder part)

d)

Annulus fibrosus (soft middle part)

182.

Plumb line evaluation, Alignment of body segments (watch for excessive curves)

a)

Posture

b)

Kyphosis

c)

Lordosis

d)

Scoliosis

183.

Posture creates hunchback when standing

a)

Posture

b)

Kyphosis

c)

Lordosis

d)

Scoliosis

184.

Posture creates large curve in lower back

a)

Posture

b)

Kyphosis

c)

Lordosis

d)

Scoliosis

185.

Spine forms an "S" shape, easy to see when touching toes

a)

Posture

b)

Kyphosis

c)

Lordosis

d)

Scoliosis

186.

Stress fracture from hyperextension of spine, Pars interarticular is involved

a)

Spondylosis

b)

Spondylolisthesis

c)

Scotty Dog

d)

Torticollis

187.

Slippage of vertebrae due to complete fracture of pars, results in nerve compression and pain

a)

Spondylosis

b)

Spondylolisthesis

c)

Disk Injury

d)

Torticollis

188.

Bulges outward when nucleus pulposus pushes through annulus fibrosus, lateral of posterior protrusions

a)

Spondylosis

b)

Spondylolisthesis

c)

Disk Injury

d)

Torticollis

189.

Head and neck tilted to one side with chin turned away from injured side; Associated with sprain/strain

a)

Spondylosis

b)

Spondylolisthesis

c)

Disk Injury

d)

Torticollis

190.

Cervical spine fractures and dislocations

a)

Can be devastating: Paralysis, Death

b)

Usually caused from axial load (Spearing)

c)

May result in Cardiac and Respiratory problem

d)

Immediate immobilization, Contact EMS

191.

Loss of use and loss of sensation of arms and legs

a)

Quadriplegia

b)

Paraplegia

c)

Whiplash

d)

Brachial Plexus Injury

192.

Loss of function and sensation in the legs

a)

Quadriplegia

b)

Paraplegia

c)

Whiplash

d)

Brachial Plexus Injury

193.

Cervical strain or sprain caused by hyperflexion followed by hyperextension of the spine; Cause radiating pain into arms (Nerve damage), treat cautiously

a)

Quadriplegia

b)

Paraplegia

c)

Whiplash

d)

Brachial Plexus Injury

194.

Nerve bundle coming from the neck to supply the arms (Stinger/Burner/ Dead Arm Syndrome)

a)

Quadriplegia

b)

Paraplegia

c)

Whiplash

d)

Brachial Plexus Injury

195.

Main artery leaving heart

a)

Aorta

b)

Carotid Artery

c)

Brachial Artery

d)

Femoral Artery

e)

Vena Cava

196.

One of three main arteries, branches off to arms

a)

Aorta

b)

Carotid Artery

c)

Brachial Artery

d)

Femoral Artery

e)

Vena Cava

197.

One of three main arteries, branches off to legs

a)

Aorta

b)

Carotid Artery

c)

Brachial Artery

d)

Femoral Artery

e)

Vena Cava

198.

Large vein bringing oxygen to heart through diaphram

a)

Aorta

b)

Carotid Artery

c)

Brachial Artery

d)

Femoral Artery

e)

Vena Cava

199.

Lubricated tissue lining thorax to allow smooth movement of lungs

a)

Pleura

b)

Diaphragm

c)

Exhalation

d)

Inhalation

200.

Muscle separating thorax and abdomen

a)

Pleura

b)

Diaphragm

c)

Exhalation

d)

Inhalation

201.

Deep cut; Requires immediate attention due to carotid artery and jugular veins

a)

Throat Laceration

b)

Cartilage Fracture

c)

Contusions

202.

Blow to throat fracturing cartilage rings in trachea; Difficulty breathing and talking, needs EMS

a)

Throat Laceration

b)

Cartilage Fracture

c)

Contusions

203.

Injuries that occur to the throat caused by blows

a)

Contusions

b)

Solar plexus

c)

Pulmonary contusions

d)

Myocardial contusion

e)

Rib contusion

204.

Blow to the diaphragm

a)

Contusions

b)

Solar plexus

c)

Pulmonary contusions

d)

Myocardial contusion

e)

Rib contusion

205.

Bruised lung

a)

Contusions

b)

Solar plexus

c)

Pulmonary contusions

d)

Myocardial contusion

e)

Rib contusion

206.

Heart bruise

a)

Myocardial contusion

b)

Rib contusion

c)

Flail chest

d)

Pneumothorax

e)

Hemothorax

207.

Blow to chest causes bruise, watch for fracture/ punctured lung

a)

Myocardial contusion

b)

Rib contusion

c)

Flail chest

d)

Pneumothorax

e)

Hemothorax

208.

Several ribs fractured and disconnected from thorax - refer immediately

a)

Myocardial contusion

b)

Rib contusion

c)

Flail chest

d)

Pneumothorax

e)

Hemothorax

209.

Air in the pleural cavity; collapsed lung; difficulty breathing; traumatic-rib puncture, nontraumatic - weakness of lung tissue, spontaneous - due to pressure
tension - more serous problem where air leaks out of lung into the chest cavity (most severe)

a)

Myocardial contusion

b)

Rib contusion

c)

Flail chest

d)

Pneumothorax

e)

Hemothorax

210.

Blood in the chest cavity; prepare for CPR

a)

Hemothorax

b)

Chest Cavity

c)

Dorsal Aortic Rupture

d)

Pleural cavity

211.

Fluid filled space that surrounds lungs

a)

Hemothorax

b)

Chest Cavity

c)

Dorsal Aortic Rupture

d)

Pleural cavity

212.

Space inside thorax that contains your heart, lungs and other organs/tissues

a)

Hemothorax

b)

Chest Cavity

c)

Dorsal Aortic Rupture

d)

Pleural cavity

213.

Deceleration injury with severe blow to the chest, bleeds to death in seconds;
DO NOT MOVE THE ATHLETE, EMS immediately

a)

Hemothorax

b)

Chest Cavity

c)

Dorsal Aortic Rupture

d)

Pleural cavity

214.

Remember these;

a)

Emergency Action Plan (EAP)- written plan for how to respond to emergencies

b)

Automated External Defibrillators (AED)- analyze heart rhythm and shock

c)

ABC- airway, breathing, circulation

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