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Worksheets

OR (REVIEWER)

Total questions: 212

Worksheet time: 2hrs 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

the awareness of the operating room principle such as surgical asepsis and sterile techniques.

a)

Perioperative

b)

Surgical Procedures

c)

Surgical Conscience

2.

The whole surgical procedure that has three phases, which are preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative phases.

a)

A. Surgical Procedures

b)

B. Perioperative

c)

C. Invasive Procedure

3.

a method that is either invasive, minimally invasive or non-invasive procedures.

a)

Medical Asepsis

b)

Surgical Procedure

c)

Perioperative

4.

penetration to the body by the means of an opening in the integrity of the body.

a)

Minimally Invasive/Invasive Procedure

b)

Surgical Procedure

c)

Operative Phase

5.

these are usually diagnostics procedures that are only to assess and do not enter the body.

a)

Non-invasive

b)

Surgical Asepsis

c)

Surgical procedures

6.

a place in the hospital that provides sterile area for invasive procedures

a)

Medical Asepsis

b)

Surgical procedures

c)

Operating room

7.

clean technique designed to reduce the number of pathogens

a)

Medical Asepsis

b)

Surgical Asepsis

c)

Operating room

8.

sterile technique designed to remove all microorganism

a)

Medical Asepsis

b)

Surgical Asepsis

c)

Non-invasive

9.

a nurse who works inside the sterile field and primarily assist the doctors in performing the surgery

a)

Circulating Nurse

b)

Scrub Nurse

c)

Surgeon

d)

Anesthesiologist

10.

a nurse who works outside the sterile field and renders patient care, giving supplies and assist surgical team members

a)

Circulating Nurse

b)

Scrub Nurse

c)

Surgeon

d)

Anesthesiologist

11.

leader of the surgical team and has the ultimate responsibility of the surgery

a)

Circulating Nurse

b)

Surgeon

c)

Anesthesiologist

12.

part of the unsterile team that administers anesthesia and ensures the normal physiological status of the patient.

a)

Circulating Nurse

b)

Surgeon

c)

Anesthesiologist

d)

Scrub Nurse

13.

to obtain a body sample from the body such as biopsy tissue sample

a)

Exploration

b)

Diagnostic

c)

Excision

14.

to inspect and visualize internal structures

a)

Diagnostic

b)

Exploration

c)

Excision

d)

Debridement

15.

to treat the disease by removing the tissue or organ. Example: inflamed gallbladder with stones

a)

Diagnostic

b)

Exploration

c)

Debridement

d)

Excision

16.

To remove traumatized tissue and structures.

a)

Repair

b)

Excision

c)

Debridement

d)

Exploration

17.

repairing malformations such as cleft lip, cleft palate, and/or hernia.

a)

Palliative

b)

Repair

c)

Debridement

d)

Excision

18.

- to lessen the pain or discomfort by removing obstruction around the tissue or organ


- to alleviate distressing signs and symptoms or a medical condition, however, it does not cure or manage the disease itself

a)

Aesthetics

b)

Prophylactic

c)

Augmentation

d)

Palliative

19.

improving the appearance by the means of surgery. Example: facelift

a)

Aesthetics

b)

Prophylactic

c)

Augmentation

20.

used as a preventive measure for possible occurrence of medical condition. Example: breast removal for breast cancer.

a)

Aesthetics

b)

Augmentation

c)

Prophylactic

d)

Procurement

21.

to add new tissues and improve it. Example: breast implants.

a)

Prophylactic

b)

Aesthetics

c)

Procurement

d)

Augmentation

22.

harvesting an organ for donation

a)

Augmentation

b)

Procurement

c)

Bypass

23.

creation of new pathway. Example: coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)

a)

Bypass

b)

Augmentation

c)

Stabilization

24.

fixing and promoting stability of alignment of the body. Example: repair of fracture

a)

Bypass

b)

Procurement

c)

Diversion

d)

Stabilization

25.

to divert a body part to a new opening. Example: colostomy

a)

Procurement

b)

Diversion

c)

Bypass

26.

These are pathologic condition that gives an obstruction to a tissue or organ.

a)

OBSTRUCTION

b)

PERFORATION

c)

EROSION

d)

TUMOR

27.

These are pathologic condition that arises a new tissue or mass. These can either be benign or malignant.

a)

EROSION

b)

PERFORATION

c)

TUMOR

d)

OBSTRUCTION

28.

These are pathologic condition that causes the discontinuity in the integrity of tissues or organs

a)

PERFORATION

b)

OBSTRUCTION

c)

TUMOR

d)

EROSION

29.

These are pathologic condition that causes the tissue or body organ to erode or wear down.

a)

OBSTRUCTION

b)

EROSION

c)

TUMOR

d)

PERFORATION

30.

FOUR MAJOR TYPES OF PATHOLOGIC PROCESSES REQUIRING SURGICAL INTERVENTION

a)

Perforation

b)

Tumor

c)

Aortic Dissection

d)

Erosion

e)

Obstruction

31.

to determine and validate the medical condition or diagnosis

a)

Exploratory procedure

b)

Diagnostic procedure

c)

Curative procedure

32.

to identify the extent of disease process

a)

Diagnostic procedure

b)

Exploratory procedure

c)

Curative procedure

33.

to provide therapeutic intervention

a)

Diagnostic procedure

b)

Exploratory procedure

c)

Curative procedure

34.

removal of tissue or organ.

a)

Constructive procedure

b)

Reconstructive procedure

c)

Ablative

35.

repair of damage organs or tissue

a)

Reconstructive procedure

b)

Constructive procedure

c)

Ablative

36.

repair of congenital malformation organs or tissue

a)

Constructive procedure

b)

Repair

c)

Reconstructive procedure

37.

removal of tissue or organ that may cause medical condition such as cancer formation.

a)

Preventive

b)

Mastectomy

c)

Transplantation surgery

38.

minor surgeries. select all that apply

a)

Suturing of wounds

b)

Hemorrhoidectomy

c)

Bowel surgery

d)

Removal of warts

e)

Transplantation surgery

39.

major surgeries. select all that apply

a)

Suturing of wounds

b)

Thoracic surgery

c)

Transplantation surgery

d)

Hemorrhoidectomy

e)

Bowel surgery

40.

needs to be done immediately to save life or limb

a)

Imperative

b)

Planned/Required

c)

Elective

d)

Emergency

e)

Optional

41.

needs to be done within 24 to 48 hours

a)

Emergency

b)

Planned/Required

c)

Optional

d)

Elective

e)

Imperative

42.

this may be done in succeeding weeks or months. This procedure is necessary for promoting of total well-being

a)

Emergency

b)

Imperative

c)

Planned/Required

d)

Elective

e)

Optional

43.

(ACCORDING TO URGENCY) a delay or omission will not cause an untoward event, therefore it is not needed for daily lives and survival. This is not a medical emergency

a)

Emergency

b)

Imperative

c)

Planned/Required

d)

Elective

e)

Optional

44.

(ACCORDING TO URGENCY) commonly for aesthetic purposes and requested by the patient.

a)

Emergency

b)

Optional

c)

Imperative

d)

Aesthetic

e)

Elective

45.

Cut into the tissue to form an opening

a)

Excision

b)

Endoscopy

c)

Amputation

d)

Incision

46.

To inspect a body cavity or hollow organ by the means of endoscope.

a)

Endoscopy

b)

Amputation

c)

Excision

d)

Incision

47.

Removal of a body part

a)

Incision

b)

Repair

c)

Excision

d)

Amputation

48.

Suffixes: - ectomy

a)

to cut or excise

b)

to open

c)

to create an opening

d)

to strip out

49.

- otomy

a)

to create an opening

b)

puncture or perforate

c)

to open

50.

- ostomy

a)

puncture or perforate

b)

to create an opening

c)

to open

51.

- centesis

a)

to open

b)

to create an opening

c)

puncture or perforate

52.

- exeresis

a)

to cut or excise

b)

to open

c)

to strip out

d)

puncture or perforate

53.

- scopy

a)

To inspect

b)

to cut or excise

c)

to strip out

54.

- plasty

a)

fixate a body part

b)

binding a body part

c)

anastomosis/opening

d)

shape or form/grafting

55.

- desis

a)

shape or form/grafting

b)

anastomosis/opening

c)

binding a body part

d)

fixate a body part

56.

- pexy

a)

anastomosis/opening

b)

fixate a body part

c)

shape or form/grafting

57.

Breaking down of tissues

a)

Destruction

b)

Suturing

c)

Endoscopy

d)

Excision

58.

Stitching together using a sterile material

a)

Manipulation

b)

Destruction

c)

Suturing

59.

Performed by the physician for assessment and serves as a baseline data. such as:

- Vital signs, height, weight and review of systems

- Allergies (Drugs and/or foods)

a)

Laboratory examination

b)

Blood type and crossmatching

c)

Assessment of Medical History and Physical Examination

60.

Usually done 24 hours prior to procedure


- CBC, Renal function test, Glucose monitoring, Urinalysis, Clotting and Bleeding time

a)

Laboratory examination

b)

Assessment of Medical History and Physical Examination

c)

Blood type and crossmatching

61.

Diagnostic for better visualization


- X-Ray, Ultrasounds, CT-Scans, and/or MRI

a)

Electrocardiogram (ECG)

b)

Radiologic examination

62.

To rule out cardiac disease and to accomplish a cardiopulmonary clearance prior to surgery

a)

Electrocardiogram (ECG)

b)

Radiologic examination

c)

Blood type and crossmatching

63.

Used prophylactically to prevent the occurrence of infection. It aids the immune system to against microorganism’s contamination.

a)

PREANESTHETIC MEDICATIONS

b)

ANTIBIOTIC WASH

c)

ORAL PROPHYLAXIS

64.

These are consent needed for admission and authorizing the healthcare team to perform standard care to the patient.

a)

GENERAL CONSENT

b)

INFORMED CONSENT

65.

- Consists of explanation of procedure, risk, benefits, and alternative therapy to the patient.

- Protective act for the patient and physician and should properly documented.

- The nurse (circulating nurse) should document the presence of informed consent prior to transfer to operating room.

- This must be accomplished prior to premedicating the patient.

a)

GENERAL CONSENT

b)

INFORMED CONSENT

66.

main responsible for explaining the surgical procedure and answering the questions arises from the explanation and the procedure matter itself. The __________ should also obtain the consent from the patient.

a)

Surgeon

b)

Anesthesiologist

c)

Nurse

d)

Patient and Family Members

67.

main responsible in obtaining consent for anesthesia and sedation

a)

Nurse

b)

Surgeon

c)

Patient and Family Members

d)

Anesthesiologist

68.

may witness the consent if the patient understands the procedure. The ______ verifies the understanding of the patient regarding the procedure

a)

Anesthesiologist

b)

Nurse

c)

Surgeon

69.

In life threatening emergency, the consent to treat and stabilized IS essential. However, the consent should still be acquired during procedure or after the procedure. Patient’s life is the priority rather than the consent.

a)

TRUE; IS ESSENTIAL

b)

FALSE; IS NOT ESSENTIAL

70.

Emergency procedures: Telephone consent from legal guardian or power of attorney is accepted. There should be two nurses should witness the call and sign the form and have it signed later. Document the telephone consent.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

71.

It aids the assessment of the nurses to the patient if the patient is prepared for the surgical operation.

a)

INFORMED CONSENT

b)

PREOPERATIVE CHECKLIST

c)

GENERAL CONSENT

72.

- street clothes

– serves as a transition zone from ________ area to semi restricted area

a)

RESTRICTED AREA:

b)

UNRESTRICTED AREA

73.

- For authorized personnel that are properly attired with scrub suits, head covers.

- Includes the peripheral support area, central processing and access to corridors

- Patient is also dressed and the head is covered.

a)

SEMI RESTRICTED AREA

b)

UNRESTRICTED AREA

74.

- Properly attired personnel equipped with mask which the sterile items and sterile team are in the field.

- Substerile room consist of scrub sink

- Personnel who will temporarily enter the this area may wear surgical cover gowns or jumpsuits to cover street clothes together with mask and head cover

a)

UNRESTRICTED AREA

b)

RESTRICTED AREA:

c)

SEMI RESTRICTED AREA:

75.

Restricted area to maintain controlled environment such as sterility and minimal traffic.

a)

OPERATING ROOM

b)

HOLDING ROOM

c)

RECOVERY ROOM

76.

indicated for endovascular stenting, balloon angioplasty, cardiac catheterization and other fluoroscopic examination and management.

a)

OPERATING ROOM

b)

HOLDING ROOM

c)

INTERVENTIONAL RADIOGRAPHY ROOM

77.

indicated for laparoscopic procedures with video monitors inside for visualization but has the capability to convert the room into an open procedure room if an untoward event noted.

a)

MINIMALLY INVASIVE SURGERY ROOMS

b)

INTERVENTIONAL RADIOGRAPHY ROOM

c)

OPERATING ROOM

78.

these members perform surgical asepsis and apply sterile accessories such as gown and gloves so that these personnel may have a direct contact in the sterile field. All the equipment needed for the procedure that is not currently at the sterile field must be given in a sterile manner.

a)

FIRST ASSIST TEAM

b)

CIRCULATING TEAM

c)

UNSTERILE TEAM

d)

STERILE TEAM

79.

STERILE TEAM COMPOSED OF:

a)

CIRCULATING NURSE

b)

SURGEON

c)

SCRUB NURSE

d)

ANESTHESIOLOGIST

e)

FIRST ASSISTANT

80.

team are not allowed to have a direct contact in the sterile field. They give sterile supplies to the sterile field in an aseptic manner. Further, they manage any complication or untoward events during the perioperative care.

a)

UNSTERILE TEAM

b)

STERILE TEAM

81.

UNSTERILE TEAM COMPOSED OF:

a)

MEDICAL REPRESENTATIVE/ LAB & RADIOLOGY PERSONNNEL

b)

SURGEON

c)

CIRCULATING NURSE

d)

ANESTHESIOLOGIST

e)

PERIANESTHESIA NURSE

82.

Absence of microorganism that cause disease; freedom from infection

a)

ASEPSIS

b)

Aseptic Technique

c)

STERILE

83.

free from any microorganism including spores.

a)

asepsis

b)

Sterile

c)

Sterile Technique

84.

These are ways to protect the healthcare workers from bodily fluids of patients.

a)

STERILE TECHNIQUE

b)

ASEPTIC TECHNIQUE

c)

STANDARD PRECAUTIONS

85.

Worn in the semi-restricted and restricted areas

a)

Masks

b)

Shoe Cover

c)

Sterile Gown

d)

Head Cover

e)

Body cover (Scrub Suit)

86.

Worn in the sterile field

a)

Masks

b)

Sterile Gown

c)

Shoe cover

d)

Surgical Gloves

e)

Body cover

87.

method of removing as many microorganisms as possible from the skin before donning the sterile suit.

a)

Core Scrub

b)

Surgical Scrub

88.

This procedure to prepare the skin site to reduce the number of any microorganisms as possible. This, however, cannot keep the skin free from any microorganism. Also, to remove any visible dirt, hair, oils that can interfere with the surgery.

a)

Mechanical Cleansing

b)

Aseptic Technique

c)

Skin Prepping

89.

reduce the number of microorganisms on the body by the means of bathing and shampooing.

a)

Mechanical cleansing

b)

Clipping

c)

Depilatory Cream

90.

less traumatic as compared to shaving however, this leaves a small hair on the skin that does not affect the surgery.

a)

Depilatory Cream

b)

Clipping

91.

chemical means of removing the hair strands on the surgical site. Cannot be used in the sensitive area such as the genitalia and might cause irritation due to the chemicals

a)

Shaving

b)

Clipping

c)

Depilatory Cream

92.

Method to cover the patient in a sterile manner and to create an adequate sterile field over the patient.

a)

Skin Prepping

b)

Draping

93.

To clean inanimate objects and noncritical surfaces by physical or chemical means.

a)

Disinfection

b)

Decontaminating

c)

Sterilization

94.

Destroying most of the pathogens except spores using physical or chemical means.

a)

Disinfection

b)

Sterilization

c)

Decontamination

95.

Eliminates all pathologic and non-pathologic microorganisms including spores. This is the only method in destroying all microbial life. This method can be done either physical or chemical means.

a)

Disinfection

b)

Decontamination

c)

Sterilization

96.

(Levels of Disinfection)

- destroys all bacteria, viruses and fungi. Spores may be destroyed depending on the contact time. This should be used when an item cannot be sterilizes such as endoscopes.

a)

Low-level disinfection

b)

Intermediate-level disinfection

c)

High-level disinfection

97.

(Levels of Disinfection)

- removes vegetative bacteria, fungi and

least resistant viruses on non-critical items such as HIVs.

a)

Low-level disinfection

b)

Intermediate-level disinfection

c)

High-level disinfection

98.

(Levels of Disinfection)

- kills most bacteria, viruses and fungi on non-critical items but does not affect spores. It also inactivates mycobacterium tuberculosis.

a)

low-level disinfection

b)

Intermediate-level disinfection

c)

High-level disinfection

99.

(Methods of Disinfection)

- high level disinfection that is indicated for reusable respiratory devices and anesthesia breathing circuits by hot water decontamination with chlorine agents

a)

Chemical Disinfection

b)

Physical Disinfection (Pasteurization)

c)

Ultraviolet Irradiation

100.

(Methods of Disinfection)

- Indicated for materials that cannot be heated.

a)

Chemical Disinfection

b)

Physical Disinfection (Pasteurization)

c)

Ultraviolet Irradiation

101.

(Methods of Disinfection)

- This can be used in surgical environments to decrease the airborne microorganism to low level, however, this can cause skin irritation.

a)

Chemical Disinfection

b)

Physical Disinfection (Pasteurization)

c)

Ultraviolet Irradiation

102.

Methods of Sterilization:

- ethylene oxide (EO) gas, ozone gas. Hydrogen peroxide plasma

a)

Thermal

b)

Chemical

c)

Radiation

103.

Methods of Sterilization:

- X-ray (ionizing) and Microwave (nonionizing)

a)

Thermal

b)

Chemical

c)

Radiation

104.

Methods of Sterilization:

- steam with pressure, hot air/dry heat, autoclaving

a)

Thermal

b)

Chemical

c)

Radiation

105.

Most common and best method of sterilization; works like a pressure cooker that uses steam and pressure to achieve the temperature.

a)

Hydrogen Peroxide Plasma Sterilization

b)

Ethylene Oxide

c)

Autoclaving

106.

Indicated for items that are sensitive to heat or moisture.

a)

Autoclaving

b)

Ethylene Oxide

c)

Hydrogen Peroxide Plasma Sterilization

107.

- Highly sporicidal even at a low temperature and concentration.

- Converts the hydrogen peroxide into plasma or vapor,

- Indicated for metal and nonmetal surgical devices.

a)

Autoclaving

b)

Hydrogen Peroxide Plasma Sterilization

c)

Ethylene Oxide

108.

- dorsal position, natural position when at rest

- palms extend alongside the body, legs are straight and parallel with head and spine.

a)

Trendelenburg position

b)

Lithotomy

c)

Reverse Trendelenburg position

d)

PRONE

e)

Supine Position

109.

upper torso is lowered and feet are raised. Decreased the lung expansion due to gravity

a)

Supine Position

b)

Lithotomy

c)

Trendelenburg position

d)

Reverse Trendelenburg position

110.

Head is elevated and feet is lowered; promotes better respiratory clearance

a)

Reverse Trendelenburg position

b)

Supine Position

c)

Trendelenburg position

d)

Lithotomy

111.

Buttocks are place on the back and the legs are placed on the stirrups (usually 90 degrees) and adjusted the height according to the patient’s legs and maintain symmetry.

a)

Prone

b)

Supine

c)

Jackknife (Kraske)

d)

Lithotomy

112.

Lawn chair position; the head of bed is raised to 45 degree angle; improves chest expansion

a)

Semi Fowlers

b)

Prone

c)

Jackknife

d)

Lithotomy

113.

Lies the body on their abdomen.

a)

Prone

b)

Lithotomy

c)

Supine Position

114.

Hips are raised at a 90 degree angle and lowering the trunk; arms are extended on arm boards and flexed and palm down; head is placed on the side and supported by a pillow or donut.

a)

Prone

b)

Lithotomy

c)

Jackknife (Kraske)

d)

Supine

115.

Extension is attached to the foot part, the table is flexed at the center. Leg section is lowered and legs flexed at right angle

a)

Supine Position

b)

Knee chest

c)

Reverse Trendelenburg position

d)

Semi Fowlers

116.

- Lateral decubitus or sims position

- Anesthetized supine on the operating table and turn to unaffected side. The ankle and foot are of the upper leg are supported to prevent foot drop. Arms are placed on a padded arm board. Cervical part should be aligned with the spine and supported by a pillow.

a)

Supine Position

b)

Lateral Position

c)

Prone

117.

Exposes the upper thoracic cavity and easier visualization; arms are extended on a double arm board

a)

Knee Chest

b)

Jackknife

c)

Lateral Chest

d)

Lateral Kidney

118.

The flank region is positioned over the operating table elevator and turned into the unaffected side.

a)

Knee Chest

b)

Lateral Chest

c)

Lateral Kidney

d)

Supine

119.

broadest category; used to cut away tissues or open cavities

a)

Cutting/Dissecting

b)

Clamping/Occluding

c)

Grasping/Holding

d)

Retracting/Exposing

120.

seal or occlude hollow vessels

a)

Retracting/Exposing

b)

Cutting/Dissecting

c)

Clamping/Occluding

121.

grasping or moving things

a)

Grasping/Holding

b)

Retracting/Exposing

c)

Cutting/Dissecting

122.

pull back surgical wound edges to provide visualization; classified as manual or self-retaining

a)

Cutting/Dissecting

b)

Grasping/Holding

c)

Clamping/Occludinh

d)

Retracting/Exposing

123.

movable parts that are manipulated by the surgeon; precised drilling, cutting, or shaping tissues or bones

a)

Scalpel

b)

Powered Instruments

c)

Hemostat

124.

Knife-like instrument; oldest surgical instrument

a)

Scissors

b)

Hemostat

c)

Clamp

d)

Scalpel

125.

Blade Number:

- rounded tip and used commonly for skin

a)

15

b)

12

c)

11

d)

10

126.

Blade Number:

- curved cutting edge; tonsillectomy

a)

11

b)

12

c)

13

d)

14

127.

Blade Number:

-linear edge and sharp; initial skin puncture

a)

9

b)

10

c)

11

d)

15

128.

Blade Number:

- short rounded edge for shallow short controlled incision

Photo

a)

15

b)

14

c)

13

d)

12

129.

Composed of two opposing blades;

Length of the body is determined by the depthness of surgical site.

a)

hemostat

b)

scissors

c)

Mosquitoes

130.

Used to block vessel and prevent blood loss and pooling with a minimal tissue damage to prevent loss of visibility during surgery.

a)

Hemostat

b)

Scissors

c)

MIXTER OR RIGHT ANGLED FORCEPS

131.

To reach deep tissues or blood vessels

a)

Mosquitoes

b)

Hemostat

c)

MIXTER OR RIGHT ANGLED FORCEPS

132.

clamp down small blood vessels

a)

Mosquitoes

b)

Hemostat

c)

MIXTER OR RIGHT ANGLED FORCEPS

133.

Occlude deep blood vessels

a)

Burlishers

b)

Kelly

c)

Mosquitoes

134.

Larger blood vessels and tissues

a)

Burlishers

b)

Mosquitoes

c)

Kelly

135.

Small inter-digiting teeth at the tip to prevent slippage of tissue while holding tissue.

a)

Allis

b)

Hemostat

c)

Forceps

136.

Teethless, rounded, atraumatic holder to grasp tubular structure, ovaries and intestines.

a)

Allis

b)

Babcock

c)

Kocher

137.

Transverse serration with large teeth to

handle large slippery tissues such as fascia

a)

Allis

b)

Koscher

c)

Foersters

138.

Grasps sponges. Sponge forceps

a)

Hemostat

b)

Clamp

c)

Foersters

139.

Atraumatic, groove at the tip.

it used to grasp the skin and tissues

a)

toothed tissue forceps

b)

Thumb tissue forceps

c)

Needle holder

140.

instead serrated or groove at the tip, it has teeth at the tip hold a firm grasp on the skin and tissues.

a)

Toothed tissue forcep

b)

Thumb tissue forcep

c)

Needle holder

141.

Used to hold the needle for suturing

a)

Toothed tissue forceps

b)

Thumb tissue forceps

c)

Needle handle

142.

Chest incision and abdominal incisions

a)

ARMY-NAVY AND RAKE RETRACTORS

b)

MALLEABLE

c)

Deaver & Richardson

143.

Shallow incisions

a)

ARMY-NAVY AND RAKE RETRACTORS

b)

MALLEABLE

c)

Deaver & Richardson

144.

deep incisions; bendable according to the shape of the body part

a)

WEITLANER & GELPI RETRACTORS

b)

MALLEABLE

c)

ARMY-NAVY AND RAKE RETRACTORS

145.

Self-retaining and shallow incisions

a)

Malleable

b)

BALFOURS

c)

WEITLANER & GELPI RETRACTORS

146.

self retaining and used for deep abdominal incisions

a)

Malleable

b)

Balfours

c)

WEITLANER & GELPI RETRACTORS

147.

It is needed to achieve hemostasis. Wound includes deep and superficial structure.

a)

WOUND CLOSURE

b)

Tensile Strength and diameter

c)

Knot strength

148.

Counts sponges, instruments and sharps before the procedure

a)

Scrub Nurse

b)

Circulating Nurse

c)

Both

d)

Neither

149.

Scalpel

a)

Sterile

b)

Unsterile

150.

Drapes

a)

Sterile

b)

Unsterile

151.

Assumes all the responsibility for all medical actions and management of the patient

a)

Scrub Nurse

b)

Circulating Nurse

c)

Both

d)

Neither

152.

Washes used instruments and prepares them for sterilization.

a)

Scrub Nurse

b)

Circulating Nurse

c)

Both

d)

Neither

153.

Saves tissue/organ specimens.

a)

Scrub Nurse

b)

Circulating Nurse

c)

Both

d)

Neither

154.

Stockinette cuffs of the gown after gloving

a)

Sterile

b)

Unsterile

155.

Intravenous bottles

a)

Sterile

b)

Unsterile

156.

Electrocautery

a)

Sterile

b)

Unsterile

157.

Above the waist

a)

Sterile

b)

Unsterile

158.

Anticipates the surgeon’s needs

a)

Scrub Nurse

b)

Circulating Nurse

c)

Both

d)

Neither

159.

After-care of the operating theater.

a)

Scrub Nurse

b)

Circulating Nurse

c)

Both

d)

Neither

160.

Cardiac monitor

a)

Sterile

b)

Unsterile

161.

Endorses patient to the recovery room

a)

Scrub Nurse

b)

Circulating Nurse

c)

Both

d)

Neither

162.

Performs the surgical safety checklist

a)

Scrub Nurse

b)

Circulating Nurse

c)

Both

d)

Neither

163.

Focuses overhead operating light on the operative field.

a)

Scrub Nurse

b)

Circulating Nurse

c)

Both

d)

Neither

164.

Above the head

a)

Sterile

b)

Unsterile

165.

First assist

a)

Sterile

b)

Unsterile

166.

Facemask

a)

Sterile

b)

Unsterile

167.

Practices surgical conscience within the OR

a)

Scrub Nurse

b)

Circulating Nurse

c)

Both

d)

Neither

168.

Specimen bottle

a)

Sterile

b)

Unsterile

169.

Scrub suit

a)

Sterile

b)

Unsterile

170.

Basin for povidone iodine

a)

Sterile

b)

Unsterile

171.

- Fever, dyspnea, crackles, cough resulting from infection or aspiration

- inflammation of the alveoli that arises 3-5 days postoperatively as a result of infection, aspiration or immobility.

a)

Hemorrhage

b)

Pneumonia

c)

Pulmonary embolism

d)

Atelectasis

172.

Abrupt sharp chest pain and difficulty of breathing resulting from a dislodged blood clot causing blockage to the pulmonary artery

a)

Pulmonary embolism

b)

Hemorrhage

c)

Constipation

d)

Thrombophlebitis

173.

Usually occurs 3-5 days after surgery; presents with fever, warm, painful and tender incision site with or without pus

a)

Hemorrhage

b)

Wound evisceration

c)

Infection

d)

Thrombophlebitis

174.

Injury or irritation of the phrenic nerve resulting in diaphragm spasm and sudden closure of epiglottis

a)

Paralytic ileus

b)

Urinary retention

c)

Hiccups

175.

Airway obstruction resulting in collapsed alveoli

a)

Psychosis

b)

Atelectasis

c)

Paralytic ileus

176.

Treated with Metoclopromide

a)

Hiccups

b)

Malignant hyperthermia

c)

Thrombophlebitis

177.

Pain and inflammation of veins in the lower extremities with accompanying thrombus formation

a)

Urinary retention

b)

Thrombophlebitis

c)

Constipation

178.

Hypoactive to absent bowel sounds and movement, abdominal distention

a)

Pulmonary embolism

b)

Constipation

c)

Paralytic ileus

d)

Psychosis

179.

Treated with Dantrolene

a)

Malignant hyperthermia

b)

Hypovolemic shock

c)

Atelectasis

180.

 

Sudden change in mental function resulting from medications, infection or electrolyte imbalances post-operatively

a)

Hypovolemic shock

b)

Psychosis

c)

Malignant hyperthermia

181.

Lower abdominal pain with inability to void and tympanitic bladder

a)

Paralytic ileus

b)

Wound evisceration

c)

Urinary retention

182.

Protrusion of internal organs through surgical incision

a)

Wound evisceration

b)

Thrombophlebitis

c)

Hypovolemic shock

183.

Dorsiflexion can elicit a sign that indicates presence of this complication

a)

Thrombophlebitis

b)

Psychosis

c)

Atelectasis

184.

Hypotension, weak pulse, anuria resulting from extravasation of blood

a)

Malignant hyperthermia

b)

Psychosis

c)

Hemorrhage

185.

Dyspnea, cyanosis, low oxygen saturation resulting from shallow breathing

a)

Psychosis

b)

Hypoxemia

c)

Constipation

186.

If vomiting occurs in post-operative patients, position to semi-fowler’s while vomiting to prevent the occurrence of aspiration.

a)

TRUE

b)

False

187.

The environment of the operating theater, exposure of skin and organ during surgical procedure and anesthesia puts the patient at risk for hyperthermia during the post-operative period.

a)

True

b)

False

188.

According to WHO, antibiotics should be started immediately post-operatively to prevent infections.

a)

True

b)

False

189.

Wound drainage from surgical site should be patent and free flowing and should have no signs of obstruction.

a)

True

b)

False

190.

Aldrete’s score assesses for nerve block of the lower extremities and is a criteria for discharge.

a)

True

b)

False

191.

The goal of health care providers in the postoperative phase is to promote healing of surgical wound and overall health status and to prevent the occurrence of postoperative complications.

a)

True

b)

False

192.

The post-operative patient should always be placed in a supine position since the pharyngeal reflexes are still depressed.

a)

True

b)

False

193.

Only the patient can press the delivery system of a patient-controlled analgesic infusion.

a)

True

b)

False

194.

The circulating nurse endorses the hand-off report to the PACU nurse

a)

True

b)

False

195.

Extended postoperative care and interventions are given to the patient in the patient’s room and focuses on the patient’s comfort and well-being.

a)

True

b)

False

196.

Pinkish-colored drainage

a)

Sanguineous

b)

Serous

c)

Seropurulent

d)

Purulent

197.

Thick, milky, yellowish, greenish drainage/pus

a)

Sanguineous

b)

Serous

c)

Seropurulent

d)

Purulent

198.

- Clear, slightly yellow drainage, appears after 2 – 3 days

a)

Sanguineous

b)

Serous

c)

Seropurulent

d)

Purulent

199.

Yellow, cloudy or tan that indicates possible infection/colonization

a)

Sanguineous

b)

Serous

c)

Seropurulent

d)

Purulent

200.

rapid onset and offset of volatile anesthesia

a)

Desflurane

b)

Isoflurane

c)

Sevoflurane

201.

given simultaneously with oxygen and nitrous oxide; serves as an analgesic and relaxes muscles.

a)

Desflurane

b)

Isoflurane

c)

Sevoflurane

202.

Use for adults and children; rapid induction and emergencies and rapid elimination

a)

Desflurane

b)

Isoflurane

c)

Sevoflurane

203.

short acting IV sedation; rapid induction and recovery; can be used for short procedures.

a)

- Propofol

b)

- Fentanyl

c)

Midazolam

d)

Ketamine

204.

high narcotic used with oxygenation; respiratory depressant

a)

Propofol

b)

- Fentanyl

c)

Midazolam

d)

- Ketamine

205.

conscious sedation

a)

Midazolam

b)

Ketamine

c)

Propofol

d)

Fentanyl

206.

- dissociative drug

– induces amnesia and analgesia; rapid induction and for short procedures. promotes bronchodilation to promote oxygenation.

a)

Propofol

b)

Fentanyl

c)

Midazolam

d)

Ketamine

207.

Combination of different medication to achieve stable physiologic status

a)

Spinal or Epidural Anesthesia

b)

Balanced Anesthesia

c)

Local/Regional Anesthesia

208.

Parameter to test if the patient can be safely discharged from the PACU to the surgical unit

a)

BROMAGE SCALE

b)

ALDRETE’S SCORE

209.

It is an assessment tool to measure the motor block. It assesses the intensity of motor block and the ability to voluntarily move the patient’s lower extremities.

a)

BROMAGE SCALE

b)

ALDRETE’S SCORE

210.

- Loss of circulatory fluid volume and plasma secondary to hemorrhage, gastrointestinal fluids such vomiting and diarrhea, diaphoresis.

- Prolonged decrease blood volume results into a decreased blood flow to organ and causing dysfunctions.

a)

Hypovolemic Shock

b)

Thrombophlebitis

c)

Urinary Retention

211.

separation of wound edges at the suture line. 6 to 8 days after surgery

a)

Wound evisceration

b)

Wound dehiscence

212.

Anesthesia machine

a)

Sterile

b)

Unsterile