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Q12025, Economics Final Exam

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

One example of an entrepreneur is...

a)

a writer who is hired by a film studio to adapt a novel into a screenplay

b)

a lawyer in a high profile law firm that specializes in business law

c)

an Olympic ice skater who later decides to join a professional ice show

d)

an artist who runs a business painting murals in office buildings and restaurants

2.

What does opportunity cost refer to?

a)

The money spent on a product

b)

The value of the next best alternative given up when making a choice

c)

The total cost of producing a product

3.

What role does price play in a market with scarce goods?

a)

It ensures everyone gets the same amount of goods

b)

It acts as a rationing device allocating goods to those willing to pay

c)

It lowers demand so goods are never scarce

d)

It signals producers to adjust supply

4.

Which of the following lists would an economist consider to be land?

a)

Factories, office buildings, assembly lines, workers

b)

Farm fields, tractors, pesticides, fertilizers

c)

Dams, bridges, rock quarries, oil wells

d)

Iron ore, natural gas, fertile soil, water

5.

In a command economy, who makes most economic decisions?

a)

Individual consumers and producers

b)

Government planners

c)

Local communities

d)

Market forces

6.

In a market economy, what primarily determines what goods and services are produced?

a)

Government Orders

b)

Consumers demand and supply

c)

Religious leaders

d)

Historical Customs

7.

What is a key feature of a mixed economy?

a)

All resources are owned by the government

b)

Economic decisions are made solely by tradition

c)

Combines elements of both market and command economies

d)

There is no government involvement

8.

Which economic system relies heavily on customs, traditions, and beliefs to make economic decisions?

a)

Market Economy

b)

Command Economy

c)

Traditional Economy

d)

Mixed Economy

9.

An outward shift of a production possibilities curve can be caused by...

a)

Planting a more profitable farm crop

b)

Improving technology

c)

Using idle resources

d)

Changing consumer preferences

10.

Given the graph, which of the following is true?

a)

This business doesn’t have enough resources to produce 60 bikes and 100 skateboards.

b)

The opportunity cost of each skateboard is constant.

c)

This business should produce more bikes.

d)

Combination A results in an inefficient use of resources.

11.

On the graph, the opportunity cost of moving from combination B to combination C is?

a)

20 capital goods

b)

100 capital goods

c)

400 capital goods

d)

200 consumer goods

12.

On the graph, which combination represents an efficient use of resources?

a)

Only point A

b)

Only point B

c)

Point B and C

d)

Points A and D

13.

Marginal analysis suggests that an individual will consume one additional unit of a good if the...

a)

Additional benefit is greater than the additional cost

b)

Total benefits is less than the total cost

c)

Total benefit is great than the total cost

d)

Additional benefit is less than the additional cost

14.

Marginal benefit is:

a)

The total happiness from all units consumed

b)

The cost of producing one unit

c)

The additional benefit from consuming one more unit

d)

The price set by the government

15.

Which of the following best describes opportunity cost?

a)

It is the cost of producing those goods most desired by a given economy.

b)

It is the cost of the input mix that will lead to the greatest rate of growth for a given company.

c)

It is the amount of one product that must be given up in order to produce an additional unit of another product.

d)

It is the use of the least-cost method of production.

16.

Which of the following best describes the opportunity cost for a student who chooses to quit a full-time job to go to college?

a)

Paying state and federal income taxes

b)

Loss of current wages and benefits

c)

Having a higher level of education

d)

Paying for housing and meals

17.

Which of the following best explains why workers with the same degree may earn different salaries?

a)

All employers follow a national pay scale.

b)

Differences in location, industry demand, and job performance.

c)

Employers must base pay on gender.

d)

Salaries are set by state law.

18.

Which of the following illustrates the signaling argument about higher education and income?

a)

A. employers the applicant has valuable qualities.

b)

Education directly increases productivity.

c)

Students in college learn time management skills.

d)

Taxes are higher on college graduates.

19.

A regressive tax is considered less fair than a progressive tax because:

a)

It only applies to high-income earners.

b)

It charges a higher percentage of income for low earners.

c)

It encourages workers to earn more.

d)

It only applies to property taxes.

20.

If property values rise in a community, which group is most negatively affected?

a)

A family selling their home.

b)

A renter who pays fixed monthly rent.

c)

A homeowner on a fixed income who plans to stay in their house.

d)

A real estate agent earning commission on sales.

21.

Which type of account is least liquid?

a)

Checking account

b)

Money market account

c)

Certificate of Deposit (CD)

d)

Cash

22.

If a customer reports multiple small, unexplained charges on their account, the most responsible first step is to:

a)

Ignore them until the monthly statement arrives.

b)

Report them to the bank immediately.

c)

Cancel all accounts and withdraw all funds.

d)

Wait to see if they stop.

23.

Which of the following would be most helpful for avoiding overspending while shopping online?

a)

Debit card

b)

Price tracking tools

c)

Applying for more credit cards

d)

Using payday loans

24.

Which statement best explains why FDIC insurance builds consumer confidence in the banking system?

a)

It guarantees loans are always approved.

b)

It ensures deposits are safe up to $250,000.

c)

It prevents interest rates from rising.

d)

It lowers banking fees for all customers.

25.

Which of the following is most likely to increase a person’s credit score over time?

a)

Paying bills late but keeping balances low.

b)

Making on-time payments and keeping credit use low.

c)

Applying for several credit cards at once.

d)

Using only cash.

26.

If a borrower has a $240,000 mortgage at 7% interest and refinances to 3%, the main financial benefit is:

a)

Lower monthly payments and total interest.

b)

Paying off the house faster automatically.

c)

Avoiding property taxes.

d)

Elimination of mortgage insurance.

27.

Which credit factor is weighted most heavily in a FICO score?

a)

Types of credit used

b)

Length of history

c)

Payment history

d)

New credit

28.

Why is it risky to apply for multiple credit cards in a short time?

a)

Each inquiry lowers your score and signals possible financial distress.

b)

It automatically increases your credit score.

c)

It eliminates your payment history.

d)

It decreases lender competition.

29.

According to the 50/30/20 rule, which category includes rent, utilities, and groceries?

a)

A. Wants

b)

B. Needs

c)

C. Savings

d)

D. Debt only

30.

What is the primary advantage of a savings account compared to keeping cash at home?

a)

Easier to spend

b)

Earns interest

c)

Higher risk

d)

More liquid than cash

31.

Which of the following is an example of diversification?

a)

Investing only in one company’s stock.

b)

Buying a mix of stocks, bonds, and mutual funds.

c)

Keeping all money in a savings account.

d)

Borrowing money to buy collectibles.

32.

Why is the Rule of 72 useful to investors?

a)

It shows how taxes affect investment returns.

b)

It estimates how long money takes to double at a given interest rate.

c)

It guarantees risk-free returns

d)

It predicts stock market performance.

33.

Which of the following best explains the substitution effect?

a)

As income increases, people buy more luxury goods

b)

As prices change, consumers switch to relatively cheaper alternatives

c)

As population grows, demand increases

d)

As technology improves, supply increases

34.

When a new shopping mall opens in a town, the demand for goods at existing stores will most likely:

a)

Increase due to more consumers in the area

b)

Remain unchanged

c)

Become more elastic

d)

Decrease due to increased competition

35.

When a bakery installs new ovens that can bake twice as many loaves per hour, this represents:

a)

An increase in demand for bread

b)

A movement along the supply curve

c)

An increase in supply of bread

d)

A decrease in the cost of bread

36.

A government tax on cigarette producers will cause the supply curve for cigarettes to:

a)

Shift left

b)

Shift right

c)

Become more elastic

d)

Remain unchanged

37.

Which market structure is characterized by many small firms selling identical products?

a)

Monopoly

b)

Oligopoly

c)

Perfect competition

d)

Monopolistic competition

38.

Coffee shops like Starbucks, Dunkin', and local cafes compete in monopolistic competition because they:

a)

Sell identical products

b)

Sell similar but differentiated products

c)

Are the only sellers in their markets

d)

Can easily prevent other firms from entering

39.

In an oligopoly, firms are mutually interdependent, which means:

a)

Each firm's decisions affect and are affected by competitors' decisions

b)

They must get government approval for price changes

c)

They all charge the same price by law

d)

They cannot earn profits

40.

Compared to perfect competition, monopolies typically

a)

Charge lower prices and produce more output

b)

Charge the same prices but produce less output

c)

Charge higher prices and produce less output

d)

Cannot make any profit

41.

Market equilibrium occurs when:

a)

Quantity supplied equals quantity demanded

b)

Supply equals demand

c)

Price is at its lowest point

d)

Government sets the price

42.

A price floor set above equilibrium will result in:

a)

A surplus

b)

A shortage

c)

No change in quantity

d)

Lower prices

43.

Which product most likely has inelastic demand and why?

a)

Gasoline because people need it for daily transportation and there are few substitutes

b)

Concert tickets because they're entertainment

c)

Restaurant meals because people can cook at home

d)

Jewelry because it's expensive

44.

When quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied at the current price, the market will experience:

a)

A shortage, and price will tend to rise

b)

A surplus, and price will tend to fall

c)

Equilibrium

d)

Government intervention

45.

In the circular flow model, when households buy groceries, this represents:

a)

A flow in the factor market

b)

A flow in the product market

c)

A government transfer payment

d)

A business investment

46.

The Law of Diminishing Marginal Returns explains why:

a)

Adding more workers always increases productivity

b)

fixed resources are better than variable resources

c)

Businesses should never hire additional workers

d)

Adding more workers initially increases productivity but eventually decreases it

47.

A restaurant has 4 tables (fixed resource). With 1 server, they serve 20 customers/hour. With 2 servers, they serve 45 customers/hour. The marginal product of the second server is:

a)

20 customers/hour

b)

45 customers/hour

c)

25 customers/hour

d)

65 customers/hour

48.

If consumers demand more electric cars, what will happen to the demand for electric car factory workers?

a)

It will increase because more workers are needed to meet demand

b)

It will decrease because cars are expensive

c)

It will remain unchanged

d)

It depends on the workers' wages

49.

Which component is NOT part of the GDP formula C + I + G + (X-M)?

a)

Unemployment rate

b)

Consumer spending

c)

Investment

d)

Government spending

50.

Which combination of economic indicators would most clearly signal economic expansion?

a)

Falling GDP, rising unemployment, deflation

b)

Rising GDP, falling unemployment, controlled inflation

c)

Stable GDP, high unemployment, hyperinflation

d)

Rising GDP, rising unemployment, deflation

51.

Why are discouraged workers not counted in the official unemployment rate?

a)

They are employed part-time

b)

They are students

c)

They have stopped actively seeking work

d)

They are retired

52.

A city's air quality deteriorates because factories pollute without paying for cleanup costs. Based on the market failures discussed in your notes, why would government regulation be justified?

a)

The factories are earning too much profit

b)

There are too many competing businesses

c)

The pollution creates negative externalities that the market doesn't address

d)

The government wants to control all business activities

53.

Expansionary fiscal policy involves:

a)

Decreasing taxes and increasing spending

b)

Increasing taxes and decreasing spending

c)

Only changing interest rates

d)

Eliminating government spending

54.

During a major election year, politicians pressure the Federal Reserve to lower interest rates to boost the economy before voting begins. Why is the Fed's independence from Congress and the President important in this situation?

a)

It ensures the Fed will always lower rates when requested

b)

It allows the Fed to make decisions based on economic conditions rather than political timing

c)

It prevents the Fed from considering any political factors

d)

It guarantees that interest rates will never change during elections

55.

A small country wants to increase trade with other nations but faces high tariffs on its exports. Based on your notes, joining which organization would most likely help this country access international markets?

a)

The European Union (EU)

b)

The United States-Mexico-Canada Agreement (USMCA)

c)

The World Trade Organization (WTO)

d)

The Federal Reserve System

56.

Protectionist policies are designed to:

a)

Eliminate all trade barriers

b)

Increase imports

c)

Protect domestic industries from foreign competition

d)

Strengthen foreign currencies

57.

A quota limits:

a)

The price of imported goods

b)

The number of countries that can trade

c)

The quantity of goods that can be imported

d)

The exchange rate between currencies

58.

Liberal/Progressive economic ideology typically favors:

a)

Limited government intervention

b)

Eliminating all regulations

c)

Only private sector solutions

d)

More government intervention in the economy

59.

Conservative economic ideology generally favors:

a)

Limited government intervention in free markets

b)

Extensive government control of all industries

c)

High taxes on all businesses

d)

Government ownership of major companies

60.

The debate over raising the minimum wage from $7.25 per hour reflects disagreement about:

a)

Whether minimum wage laws should exist at all

b)

Balancing worker benefits with potential economic costs

c)

The role of state versus federal government

d)

Whether businesses have the right to set wages

61.

According to the concept of the Invisible Hand, what drives the allocation of resources in a free-market economy?

a)

Central government planning

b)

Charity and goodwill

c)

Self-Interested individuals seeking profit

d)

Random chance and luck

62.

The primary focus of microeconomics is examining...

a)

Families and how they make money

b)

Firms and how they make profits

c)

Individual units within the overall economy

d)

Government actions

63.

Which statement best explains why all countries face the problem of scarcity?

a)

Governments spend too much money

b)

Increases in inflation have an impact on economic choices

c)

Changes in demand and supply occur

d)

Peoples wants are greater than their resources

64.

The materials used to make all goods and services are referred to as the...

a)

production possibilities

b)

factors of production

c)

production trade-offs

d)

opportunity costs

65.

What is a key feature of a mixed economy?

a)

All resources are owned by the government

b)

Economic decisions are made solely by tradition

c)

Combines elements of both market and command economies

d)

There is no government involvement

66.

Which economic system relies heavily on customs, traditions, and beliefs to make economic decisions?

a)

Market Economy

b)

Command Economy

c)

Traditional Economy

d)

Mixed Economy

67.

In a market economy, what primarily determines what goods and services are produced?

a)

Government Orders

b)

Consumers demand and supply

c)

Religious leaders

d)

Historical Customs

68.

In a command economy, who makes most economic decisions?

a)

Individual consumers and producers

b)

Government planners

c)

Local communities

d)

Market forces

69.

On the graph, the opportunity cost of moving from combination B to combination C is?

a)

20 capital goods

b)

100 capital goods

c)

400 capital goods

d)

200 consumer goods

70.

On the graph, the opportunity cost of moving from combination C to combination B is?

a)

40 bikes

b)

80 bikes

c)

40 skateboards

d)

100 skateboards

71.

On the graph, which combination represents an efficient use of resources?

a)

Only point A

b)

Only point B

c)

Point B and C

d)

Points A and D

72.

Given the graph, which of the following is true?

a)

This business doesn’t have enough resources to produce 60 bikes and 100 skateboards.

b)

The opportunity cost of each skateboard is constant.

c)

This business should produce more bikes

d)

Combination A results in an inefficient use of resources.

73.

Marginal benefit is:

a)

The total happiness from all units consumed

b)

The cost of producing one unit

c)

The additional benefit from consuming one more unit

d)

The price set by the government

74.

Which of the following best describes opportunity cost?

a)

It is the cost of producing those goods most desired by a given economy.

b)

It is the cost of the input mix that will lead to the greatest rate of growth for a given company.

c)

It is the amount of one product that must be given up in order to produce an additional unit of another product.

d)

It is the use of the least-cost method of production.

75.

Marginal analysis suggests that an individual will consume one additional unit of a good if the...

a)

Additional benefit is greater than the additional cost

b)

Total benefits is less than the total cost

c)

Total benefit is great than the total cost

d)

Additional benefit is less than the additional cost

76.

Marginal cost is:

a)

The total cost of all units produced

b)

The additional cost of producing one more unit

c)

The benefit received from producing one unit

d)

The fixed cost of production

77.

Which of the following best explains why individuals with higher levels of education often earn more income?

a)

They usually work fewer hours.

b)

They have more productivity and skills.

c)

Employers must legally pay them more.

d)

They are exempt from income taxes.

78.

Which soft skill would most directly help an employee manage multiple projects with deadlines?

a)

Time management

b)

Technical knowledge

c)

Wage negotiation

d)

Education level

79.

Which of the following is an example of a progressive tax?

a)

Flat sales tax of 7% on all items

b)

Property tax based on home value

c)

Federal income tax rates that increase as income rises

d)

Gasoline tax added per gallon

80.

An independent contractor differs from a salaried employee because contractors:

a)

Are always paid more

b)

Do not have to pay taxes

c)

Work under one-time agreements instead of permanent employment

d)

Automatically receive benefits such as health insurance

81.

What is the maximum amount the FDIC insures per depositor, per bank?

a)

$100,000

b)

$250,000

c)

$500,000

d)

Unlimited

82.

Which is a disadvantage of commercial banks compared to credit unions?

a)

More ATMs

b)

More advanced technology

c)

Higher fees

d)

Wider range of products

83.

Why is it important to monitor financial accounts regularly?

a)

To avoid paying income tax

b)

To prevent fraud and errors

c)

To qualify for a credit union

d)

To receive government insurance

84.

Which of the following fees is most likely charged if you spend more money than you have in your checking account?

a)

Overdraft fee

b)

ATM fee

c)

Monthly maintenance fee

d)

Minimum balance fee

85.

Which of the following is not part of the “Three C’s of Credit”?

a)

Character

b)

Capacity

c)

Collateral

d)

Cash

86.

Which factor has the greatest impact on your FICO credit score?

a)

Length of credit history

b)

Types of credit used

c)

Payment history

d)

New credit

87.

Which of the following is a risk of credit card use?

a)

Rewards and cashback

b)

Higher level of security than cash

c)

Debt accumulation and interest charges

d)

Building good credit score

88.

A borrower with a low credit score is most likely to:

a)

Get lower interest rates on loans

b)

Have difficulty accessing credit

c)

Automatically qualify for all loans

d)

Be exempt from paying fees

89.

Which rule suggests dividing income into 50% needs, 30% wants, and 20% savings/debt repayment?

a)

Rule of 72

b)

50/30/20 Rule

c)

Law of Supply and Demand

d)

FDIC Rule

90.

Which of the following is a type of insurance that provides income if you cannot work?

a)

Life insurance

b)

Property insurance

c)

Disability insurance

d)

Auto insurance

91.

Which type of life insurance lasts only for a set period of years?

a)

Term life insurance

b)

Whole life insurance

c)

Disability insurance

d)

Property insurance

92.

What is the primary advantage of a savings account compared to keeping cash at home?

a)

Easier to spend

b)

Earns interest

c)

Higher risk

d)

More liquid than cash

93.

Which of the following best explains the substitution effect?

a)

As income increases, people buy more luxury goods

b)

As prices change, consumers switch to relatively cheaper alternatives

c)

As population grows, demand increases

d)

As technology improves, supply increases

94.

If the price of coffee increases significantly, what would likely happen to the demand for tea (assuming tea and coffee are substitutes)?

a)

Demand for tea would decrease

b)

Demand for tea would increase

c)

Demand for tea would remain unchanged

d)

Supply of tea would decrease

95.

If a new apartment building opens near a Starbucks, what would happen to the demand for Starbucks coffee?

a)

Demand would shift left

b)

Demand would shift right

c)

Supply would shift left

d)

No change would occur

96.

According to the Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility, as you consume more units of a product:

a)

Each additional unit provides more satisfaction

b)

Each additional unit provides the same satisfaction

c)

Each additional unit provides less additional satisfaction

d)

Total satisfaction decreases

97.

Which of the following best describes monopolistic competition?

a)

One firm controls the entire market

b)

A few large firms dominate the market

c)

Many firms sell identical products

d)

Many firms sell differentiated products with some control over price

98.

In which market structure do firms have the most control over price?

a)

Perfect competition

b)

Monopolistic competition

c)

Oligopoly

d)

Monopoly

99.

What is a key characteristic of an oligopoly?

a)

Many small firms

b)

Identical products only

c)

Few large producers with mutual interdependence

d)

No barriers to entry

100.

High barriers to entry are most characteristic of:

a)

Both oligopoly and monopoly

b)

Perfect competition

c)

Monopolistic competition

d)

All market structures equally

101.

At the $4 price ceiling, approximately how much quantity is demanded vs. supplied?

a)

A. Demand: 75, Supply: 33

b)

B. Demand: 60, Supply: 40

c)

C. Demand: 50, Supply: 50

d)

D. Demand: 40, Supply: 60

102.

If demand for a product is inelastic and price increases, what happens to total revenue?

a)

Total revenue decreases

b)

Total revenue increases

c)

Total revenue stays the same

d)

Cannot be determined

103.

The Law of Diminishing Marginal Returns explains why:

a)

A. Adding more workers always increases productivity

b)

B. Fixed resources are better than variable resources

c)

C. Businesses should never hire additional workers

d)

D. Adding more workers initially increases productivity but eventually decreases it

104.

If the price of robots (substitute for assembly line workers) decreases significantly, what happens to the demand for assembly line workers?

a)

Demand increases

b)

Supply increases

c)

No change occurs

d)

Demand decreases

105.

A lemonade stand has one table and pitcher (fixed resources). The owner notices that with 1 worker, 20 cups are sold per hour. With 2 workers, 45 cups are sold per hour. With 3 workers, 63 cups are sold per hour. This scenario demonstrates the Law of Diminishing Marginal Returns because:

a)

The 3rd worker produces fewer additional cups than the 2nd worker

b)

Total production decreases with each worker

c)

Fixed costs are increasing

d)

The workers are getting paid less

106.

In the factor market (resource market), which of the following is true?

a)

A. Households are buyers and businesses are sellers

b)

B. Only money flows, not resources

c)

C. Government controls all transactions

d)

D. Businesses are buyers and households are sellers

107.

The labor force includes

a)

All people over age 16

b)

Only people with full-time jobs

c)

Employed and unemployed people actively seeking work

d)

Students and retirees

108.

Which economic indicators would you expect to see at the trough of the business cycle?

a)

A. High GDP growth and low unemployment

b)

B. Peak employment and rising prices

c)

C. Stable prices and moderate growth

d)

D. Low GDP and high unemployment

109.

During which phase of the business cycle does GDP rise and unemployment fall?

a)

Peak

b)

Contraction

c)

Trough

d)

Expansion

110.

The Federal Reserve System operates:

a)

Under direct control of Congress

b)

Independently from Congress and the President

c)

As part of the executive branch

d)

Only during economic emergencies

111.

Fiscal policy involves government use of

a)

Spending and taxation

b)

Interest rates and money supply

c)

International trade agreements

d)

Banking regulations

112.

Expansionary fiscal policy involves:

a)

Decreasing taxes and increasing spending

b)

Increasing taxes and decreasing spending

c)

Only changing interest rates

d)

Eliminating government spending

113.

The main purpose of the USMCA trade agreement is to:

a)

Increase trade barriers between member countries

b)

Facilitate free trade between the United States, Mexico, and Canada

c)

Control exchange rates in North America

d)

Regulate domestic economic policies

114.

The World Trade Organization (WTO) primarily works to:

a)

Increase trade barriers

b)

Control exchange rates

c)

Reduce trade barriers between member countries

d)

Regulate domestic economies

115.

When the U.S. dollar is strong, American exports become

a)

Less expensive for foreign buyers

b)

More expensive for foreign buyers

c)

Unaffected by exchange rates

d)

Banned from international markets

116.

Unintended consequences of economic policies:

a)

Never occur with good planning

b)

Are unplanned side effects that should be considered

c)

Should be ignored by policymakers

d)

Only affect foreign countries

117.

Economists who oppose minimum wage increases typically argue that:

a)

Workers don't deserve higher pay

b)

Higher labor costs may lead employers to reduce hiring or automate jobs

c)

The government should control all wages

d)

Only large corporations benefit from wage increases

118.

Conservative economic ideology generally favors:

a)

Limited government intervention in free markets

b)

Extensive government control of all industries

c)

High taxes on all businesses

d)

Government ownership of major companies

119.

Market equilibrium occurs when:

a)

Quantity supplied equals quantity demanded

b)

Supply equals demand

c)

Price is at its lowest point

d)

Government sets the price

120.

When quantity supplied exceeds quantity demanded, this creates a:

a)

Surplus

b)

Shortage

c)

Equilibrium

d)

Price ceiling