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DFT - EMREE - 07/10/2025 - EMERGENCY MEDICINE

Total questions: 10

Worksheet time: 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 25 Y/O M is brought to the ED after an RTA resulting in a closed left tibial fracture. He c/o severe, escalating pain in his left lower leg, rated 10/10, which is poorly responsive to initial IV paracetamol. O/E, the left calf is extremely tense, swollen, and feels "woody" on palpation. He experiences excruciating pain on passive dorsiflexion of his ankle. Distal pulses are palpable, and capillary refill is normal. What is the most likely Dx?


a)

Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)

b)

Acute Compartment Syndrome

c)

Necrotizing Fasciitis

d)

Arterial Thrombosis

e)

Complex Regional Pain Syndrome

2.

A 24 Y/O M is brought to the ED after a motorcycle accident resulting in a closed fracture of the R tibia. A cast is applied. 4 hours later, the patient c/o escalating leg pain, unrelieved by IV morphine. O/E: BP 130/80, HR 110, RR 18. The R lower leg is visibly tense and swollen within the cast. Capillary refill is <2s and the dorsalis pedis pulse is palpable. He reports extreme pain when his toes are passively extended by the examiner. Which of the following is the earliest and most reliable sign of acute compartment syndrome?


a)

Pallor of the foot

b)

Paresthesia between the first and second toes

c)

Pain on passive muscle stretching

d)

Paralysis of the extensor hallucis longus

e)

Absence of a distal pulse


3.

A 24 Y/O M is brought to the ED after a high-speed motor vehicle collision. He was the unrestrained driver. O/E, he is pale, anxious, and diaphoretic. BP is 90/60 mmHg, HR 125 bpm, RR 24/min. Abdomen is tender and guarded, especially in the LUQ. He c/o sharp pain at the tip of his left shoulder. Chest examination reveals equal breath sounds bilaterally with no crepitus. The patient's left shoulder pain is most likely due to irritation of which nerve?


a)

Suprascapular nerve

b)

Axillary nerve

c)

 Phrenic nerve

d)

Long thoracic nerve

e)

Musculocutaneous nerve

4.

A 35 Y/O M is brought to the ED post-RTA. He is unresponsive. O/E: GCS 8, trachea deviated to the left, absent breath sounds & hyperresonant percussion over the right hemithorax. Vitals: BP 80/50 mmHg, HR 140/min, RR 35/min. What is the most appropriate immediate intervention?


a)

STAT chest X-ray


b)

Endotracheal intubation and ventilation

c)

Insertion of a large-bore chest tube

d)

 Immediate needle thoracostomy

e)

V bolus of 1L normal saline

5.

An 80 kg, 34 Y/O M is in the ICU 6 hours post-laparotomy for a perforated appendix. He has received 4L of Ringer's lactate. His current vitals are stable: BP 110/70 mmHg, HR 98/min. O/E, his abdomen is soft and his peripheries are warm. Labs show a serum lactate of 2.1 mmol/L (down from 4.5 mmol/L on admission). You are assessing the patient to ensure resuscitation is sufficient to prevent acute kidney injury (AKI). Which of the following is the most reliable indicator that fluid resuscitation has successfully restored adequate renal perfusion?


a)

Normalization of blood pressure

b)

Urine output of 0.5 – 1.0 mL/kg/hr

c)

Central Venous O₂ Saturation (ScvO₂) > 70%

d)

Serum lactate < 2.0 mmol/L

e)

Capillary refill time < 2 seconds

6.

A 25 Y/O M is brought to the ED after a motor vehicle accident resulting in a closed fracture of his right tibia. He is given IV morphine, but 4 hours later, his calf pain becomes progressively severe, describing it as a deep, burning pressure. O/E, the R calf is visibly swollen, tense, and firm to palpation. He reports numbness over the dorsum of his foot. Passive stretching of his toes elicits excruciating pain. Distal pulses are palpable. What is the most likely diagnosis?


a)

Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)

b)

Acute Compartment Syndrome

c)

Peroneal Nerve Neuropraxia


d)

Cellulitis with abscess

e)

Fat Embolism Syndrome

7.

A 25 Y/O M is brought to the ED following a high-speed motorcycle accident. He is agitated, c/o severe L lower leg pain, which he rates as 10/10. O/E, his L leg is visibly deformed and swollen. He is hemodynamically stable with BP 145/90, HR 115, RR 22, SpO2 98% on RA. He has no other apparent injuries and his GCS is 15. What is the most appropriate initial step in managing this patient's pain?


a)

Administer IV ketorolac

b)

Administer oral oxycodone

c)

Administer IV morphine

d)

Apply a cold compress and elevate the leg

e)

Obtain an urgent X-ray of the leg

8.

A 45 Y/O M is brought to the ED after a high-speed MVA. He is unconscious. O/E, he has central cyanosis, paradoxical movement of the right chest wall, and labored breathing. Vitals: BP 100/70 mmHg, HR 125/min, RR 32/min, SpO2 85% on room air. His GCS is 8 (E2, V2, M4). Breath sounds are ↓ on the right side. What is the most appropriate immediate step in management?


a)

High-flow O2 via non-rebreather mask

b)

Immediate needle thoracostomy in the 2nd ICS

c)

Endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation

d)

Urgent surgical fixation of rib fractures

e)

Placement of a right-sided chest tube

9.

A 34 Y/O M is brought to the ED after a high-speed MVA. He was intubated at the scene for a GCS of 7. Primary survey reveals BP 80/40 mmHg, HR 135/min, RR 20/min (ventilated), and SpO2 98%. O/E, his abdomen is rigid and markedly distended. After receiving 2L of crystalloids and 2 units of packed RBCs, his BP is transiently up to 85/50 mmHg but HR remains >130/min. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?


a)

Abdominal CT scan with IV contrast

b)

 Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST)

c)

Diagnostic Peritoneal Lavage (DPL)

d)

Immediate exploratory laparotomy

e)

Transfuse 2 more units of packed RBCs and reassess

10.

A 26 Y/O F is brought to the ED by her boyfriend for evaluation of recurrent episodes of lightheadedness & fatigue x1 week. He reports she ‘almost fainted’ today at home while getting up from the couch. This has never happened before. She has no significant past medical Hx & attributes her symptoms to work stress. O/E: Appears tired but is alert and oriented. BP 115/75 mmHg, HR 82/min, RR 16/min, SpO2 99% on RA. Cardiopulmonary and neurological exams are unremarkable. What is the most appropriate next step in management?


a)

Obtain a CT head to rule out intracranial pathology.

b)

Perform a 12-lead ECG and orthostatic vital signs.

c)

Order a complete blood count (CBC) and serum ferritin.

d)

Reassure and discharge with advice for stress management.

e)

Schedule for a 24-hour Holter monitor.