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1st 9 Weeks CJ Essentials

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What is the main idea behind the concept of "Just Desserts" in retribution?
a)
Offenders should be rehabilitated.
b)
Offenders should be forgiven.
c)
Offenders should be punished automatically because they deserve it.
d)
Offenders should be given a second chance.
2.
Which court case states that searches without probable cause is ok for officer safety?
a)
Katz vs. US
b)
Tennessee vs. Garner
c)
Mapp vs. Ohio
d)
Terry vs. Ohio
3.
When was the earliest known codified provision for child support?
a)
2000 B.C.
b)
2200 B.C.
c)
2250 B.C.
d)
2300 B.C.
4.
What percentage of all traffic fatalities are contributed by DUI?
a)
20%
b)
30%
c)
40%
d)
50%
5.
What behavior might indicate a driver is impaired?
a)
Erratic movement
b)
Proper lane usage
c)
Consistent speed
d)
Clear communication
6.
Why does DUI impact a driver's ability to divide attention?
a)
It enhances focus on a single task
b)
It causes fatigue and drowsiness
c)
It improves reaction time
d)
It impairs cognitive functions
7.
What is one of the legal standards required to pull over a vehicle?
a)
Probable cause
b)
Reasonable suspicion
c)
Clear evidence
d)
Direct observation
8.
Which smell might indicate a driver is trying to cover up alcohol or marijuana use?
a)
Fresh flowers
b)
Mints
c)
Coffee
d)
Perfume
9.
Which of the following is checked for during administrative procedures to ensure proper eye function?
a)
Color vision
b)
Pupil size and resting nystagmus
c)
Peripheral vision
d)
Depth perception
10.
How high should the raised foot be kept off the ground in the Balance and Counting Stage?
a)
Approximately 6 inches
b)
Approximately 12 inches
c)
Approximately inches
d)
Approximately 9 inches
11.
What could be a reason for challenging a DUI charge related to testing procedures?
a)
Accurate blood test
b)
Inaccurate or improperly administrated SFSTs
c)
Properly conducted breath test
d)
Option 4
12.
What is the primary use of a handheld breath testing machine?
a)
To measure blood pressure
b)
To measure body temperature
c)
To check heart rate
d)
To test blood alcohol concentration (BAC)
13.
Which organization must approve devices for them to be used as evidence?
a)
FDA
b)
NHTSA
c)
EPA
d)
CDC
14.
True or False: Only private security companies are responsible for the jail and court services.
a)
True
b)
False
15.
In early English society, crimes were viewed as what?
a)
personal wrongs
b)
crimes against the king
c)
crimes against society
d)
crimes against the queen
16.
Which department is the largest police department in the United States?
a)
Atlanta PD
b)
Chicago PD
c)
Dallas PD
d)
New York PD
17.
Who created the Metropolitan Police of London?
a)
Elliott Ness
b)
Henry Fielding
c)
Sir Robert Peel
d)
August Vollmer
18.
A serious crime generally punishable by death or imprisonment for more than 1 year.
a)
Felony
b)
Midsdemeanor
c)
Ordinance
19.
Which era are we in when it concerns law enforcement?
a)
The Reform Era
b)
The Political Era
c)
The Renaissance Era
d)
The Community Era
20.
What is an organization or company who contracts with a security company to provide security?
a)
Contractual
b)
Proprietary
21.
What does the 4th Amendment talk about?
a)
Double Jeopardy
b)
Search & Seizure
c)
Right to Bear Arms
d)
Freedom of Speech
22.
Where was the watch & ward system used?
a)
Urban Areas
b)
Rural Areas
23.
Who created the position of Circuit Judge?
a)
King Louis V
b)
King Henry I
c)
King Henry II
d)
King Edward I
24.
Who heads the Justice Department?
a)
US Attorney General
b)
DEA
c)
FBI
d)
US Marshals
25.
What does the 1st Amendment talk about?
a)
Search & Seizure
b)
Double Jeopardy
c)
Right to Bear Arms
d)
Freedom of Speech
26.
What are problems that police have had both then and now?
a)
Lack of control
b)
Proper training
c)
Proper education
d)
Proper ettiquette
27.
When was the Texas Rangers established?
a)
1833
b)
1834
c)
1835
d)
1832
28.
Which amendment deals with self-incrimination?
a)
1st Amendment
b)
4th Amendment
c)
5th Amendment
d)
8th Amendment
29.
Who created created strict department rules, high levels of training & education, & was a strong proponent of professionalism?
a)
Elliott Ness
b)
Sir Robert Peel
c)
Henry Fielding
d)
August Vollmer
30.
Henry Fielding created the first police organization to actually patrol the streets. What were they called?
a)
Watchmen
b)
Bow Street Runners
c)
Bootleggers
d)
Constables
31.
When did uniforms become widely accepted?
a)
after World War I
b)
After the Amnerican Civil War
c)
After the War of 1812
d)
After the American Revolution
32.
What year was uniforms first used in the United States?
a)
1854
b)
1852
c)
1851
d)
1853
33.
What refers to the physical act of committing a crime?
a)
Actus Reus
b)
Mens Rea
c)
Corpus Delecti
d)
Habeus Corpus
34.
Which amendment discusses due process, that laws must be fair, & fairly applied?
a)
4th amendment
b)
5th amendment
c)
6th amendment
d)
8th amendment
35.
True or False: The prosecutor does not have to provide defense counsel with any exculpatory evidence.
a)
True
b)
False
36.
How many justices are on the US Supreme Court?
a)
13
b)
11
c)
9
d)
7
37.
What does the Federal Court System include?
a)
Supreme Court, Courts of Appeals, District Courts, Military Court
b)
Military Court & Supreme Court
c)
Federal Court of Appeals & Federal District Courts
d)
Military Court, Supreme Court, Federal Courts of Appeals, Federal District Courts
38.
What is a peremptory challenge?
a)
Excuse a juror by providing a reason
b)
Excuse a juror without having to provide a reason
c)
Excuse a juror due to medical condition.
d)
Excuse a juror because they appear biased
39.
Which court case states that evidence found unlawfully may not be used in court.
a)
Terry vs. Ohio
b)
Mapp vs. Ohio
c)
Katz vs. US
d)
Tennessee vs. Garner
40.
Plea bargaining has what benefits?
a)
Defendants get lighter sentences, prosecutors get lower conviction rates, judges increase their caseload, & avoid expensive trials
b)
Defendants get lighter sentences, prosecutors get higher conviction rates, judges increase their caseload, & avoid expensive trials.
c)
Defendants get lighter sentences, prosecutors get higher conviction rates, judges decrease their caseload, & expensive trials.
d)
Defendants get lighter sentences, prosecutors get higher conviction rates, judges degrease their caseload, & avoid expensive trials.
41.
Who are excluded from the death penalty?
a)
Mentally disabled, Juveniles (under 17), Defendants who have become insane
b)
Mentally abled, Juveniles (under 17), Defendants who have become insane
c)
Mentally disabled, Juveniles (under 18), Defendants who have become insane
d)
Mentally abled, Juveniles (under 17), Defendants who are sane
42.
Historically, how was incapacitation achieved?
a)
Through exile, banishment, or death
b)
Through community service
c)
Through counseling and therapy
d)
Through fines and penalties
43.
How can judges adjust a "presumptive" sentence?
a)
They can only decrease it for minor offenses
b)
They can give more or less time based on mitigating or aggravating factors
c)
They cannot adjust it at all
d)
They can only increase it for serious crimes
44.
In what year did the U.S. Supreme Court set aside death sentences for the first time?
a)
1968
b)
1970
c)
1972
d)
1974
45.
According to the U.S. Supreme Court, capital punishment is limited to offenders of what minimum age at the time of the crime?
a)
16 yo
b)
17 yo
c)
18 yo
d)
19 yo
46.
Prisoners have the right to observe which of the following?
a)
Public holidays
b)
Sporting events
c)
Political rallies
d)
Religious occasions
47.
What protection is a prisoner entitled to while incarcerated?
a)
The right to carry personal weapons
b)
The right to be protected from attacks by other inmates
c)
The right to refuse any form of security check
d)
The right to choose their cellmates
48.
What protection is lost by inmates under the 4th Amendment while incarcerated?
a)
Protection against double jeopardy
b)
Protection against self-incrimination
c)
Protection against cruel and unusual punishment
d)
Protection by the "probable cause" requirement for searches
49.
According to federal law, what are convicted felons prohibited from owning or possessing?
a)
vehicles
b)
firearms
c)
real estate
d)
pets
50.
Which of the following is a function of a jail or detention center?
a)
Detaining individuals for long-term sentences
b)
Detaining individuals for international crimes
c)
Detaining arrested persons waiting to post bail
d)
Detaining individuals for life sentences
51.
What is one of the functions of a jail?
a)
To hold individuals for contempt
b)
To provide educational programs
c)
To manage public transportation
d)
To conduct scientific research
52.
Which of the following is NOT a problem associated with many jails?
a)
Adequate staffing
b)
Lack of services and programs
c)
Unsanitary conditions
d)
Old infrastructure
53.
Which type of crime is typically addressed by diversion programs?
a)
Cybercrimes
b)
Low-level crimes
c)
High-level crimes
d)
Violent crimes
54.
What is a requirement for someone to be eligible for a jail diversion program?
a)
They must have committed a serious crime.
b)
They must refuse treatment for their mental illness.
c)
They must be a risk to the public.
d)
They must have a serious mental illness.
55.
What is one of the outcomes of successfully completing a diversion program?
a)
Increased fines
b)
Longer probation
c)
Community service
d)
Dismissal of charges
56.
What can happen to felons regarding their home country?
a)
They can be granted asylum
b)
They can be deported
c)
They can receive citizenship
d)
They can be given a visa
57.
Under what condition can guards use physical force on prisoners?
a)
If acting in good faith to control or regulate a precarious situation
b)
For any reason
c)
To punish bad behavior
d)
Option 4
e)
To maintain discipline
58.
What was the main issue addressed in the Furman decision by the U.S. Supreme Court?
a)
The legality of life imprisonment
b)
The rights of prisoners on death row
c)
The constitutionality of capital punishment itself
d)
The way the death penalty was administered
59.
What is a life sentence with parole?
a)
Inmate is released immediately
b)
Inmate is executed by the state
c)
Inmate stays in prison for the rest of their life
d)
Inmate is eligible for parole or early release
60.
What does a gubernatorial moratoria on death penalties mean?
a)
Death penalties are enforced
b)
Death penalties are temporarily suspended
c)
Death penalties are abolished
d)
Death penalties are increased
61.

What type of proactive technique uses various undercover methods to apprehend criminal usually involved in burglaries & thefts?

a)

decoy operations

b)

stakeout operations

c)

sting operations

d)

saturation patrols

62.

When conducting a high-risk vehicle stop, how many feet should patrol vehicles be positioned behind the suspect vehicle?

a)

15-25 ft.

b)

35-50 ft.

c)

25-40 ft.

d)

40-65 ft.

63.

What type of proactive techique uses a group of heavily armed officers waiting for anticipated crime to occur usually a robery?

a)

decoy operations

b)

stakeout operations

c)

sting operations

d)

saturation patrol

64.

What are the 3 important objectives in high risk contacts?

a)

communication, coordination & control

b)

control, constant, coordination

c)

control, collaboration, communication

d)

collaboration, coordination, control

65.

What was the main finding of the Kansas City Study conducted in 1972 regarding police patrols?

a)

increasing patrols significantly reducedcrime

b)

eliminating patrols increased crime rates

c)

random patrols were the most effective

d)

patrol type did not have an impact on crime

66.

Which of the following is NOT a basic component of rapid response?

a)

response time

b)

investigation time

c)

time between crime & call to police

d)

dispatch time

67.

What is a reason for vehicle contacts by police?

a)

field notes

b)

community policing

c)

to ask for the driver's information

d)

issue a citation

68.

What is considered the single most important factor in retroactive investigation?

a)

the number of officers on duty

b)

the information victim supplies to responding patrol

c)

the speed of response

d)

the technology used in investigation

69.

What is one of the primary goals of maintaing a visible presence according to the American Bar Association?

a)

to promote tourism

b)

to increase public fear

c)

to deter crime

d)

to reduce traffic congestion

70.

What is not an option when dealing with an occupant refusing to cooperate?

a)

call SWAT

b)

negotiate

c)

swarm

d)

time

71.

What did O.W. Wilson believe the police should give the impression of?

a)

kindness

b)

omnipresence

c)

efficiency

d)

authority

72.

According to O.W. Wilson, how should patrol officers be distributed?

a)

randomly

b)

based on seniority

c)

according to a workoad formula

d)

by geographical area

73.

According to patrol activity studies, what is the nature of the majority of police calls?

a)

criminal in nature

b)

traffic violations

c)

related to violent crime

d)

non-criminal in nature

74.

What type of proactive technique allows blending officers dressed in civilian clothes to blend into an area or in an unmarked car? Officers play the role of potential victims or fellow criminals.

a)

sting operations

b)

saturation patrol

c)

decoy operations

d)

stakeout operations

75.

What vehicle position is this?

a)

in-line

b)

off-set

c)

left angle

d)

high risk

76.

What benefits do foot patrol police experience?

a)

greater job satisfaction, more fear, & lower morale

b)

greater job satisfaction, less fear, & higher morale

c)

lower job satisfaction, more fear, & lower morale

d)

no change in job satisfaction, fear, or morale

77.

What vehicle position is this?

a)

high risk

b)

in-line

c)

left angle

d)

off-set

78.

In centralized CID organization, what is the role of detectives?

a)

operate a central office & specialize in particular types of crime

b)

focus on community outreach

c)

operate independently in various precints

d)

handle a variety of crimes

79.

What is a characteristic of a decentralized CID organization?

a)

detectives focus on administrative tasks

b)

detectives specialize in one type of crime

c)

detectives work out of a central office

d)

detectives work out of precincts & handle a variety of crimes

80.

Which vehicle position is this?

a)

off-set

b)

left angle

c)

in-line

d)

high risk

81.

What type of proactive technique uses a uniform tactical operation that utilizes a larger number of uniform officers than normal to a particular area to deal with a particular crime?

a)

decoy operations

b)

saturation patrol

c)

sting operations

d)

stakeout operations

82.

Why are directed patrols considered effective?

a)

They focus on specific problems or complaints

b)

they reduce the number of officers needed

c)

they eliminate the need for crime analysis

d)

they increase the number of arrests

83.

what is the trafic officer responsible for in a high risk stop?

a)

keeps eyes on car

b)

searching, interviewing, & cuffing

c)

controls contact

d)

maintains perimeter

84.

What vehicle position is this?

a)

high risk

b)

left angle

c)

off-set

d)

in-line

85.

What is the contact officer responsible for in a high risk stop?

a)

keeps eyes on car

b)

controls contact

c)

searching, interviewing, & cuffing

d)

maintains perimeter

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