WorksheetsUnit 4 - Test1
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 50mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What is test coverage?
a)
Number of releases
b)
A measure of how much of the system is exercised by tests
c)
The number of team members
d)
Lines of code in repo
e)
Percentage of budget spent
2.
Why have test data handling policies?
a)
To increase log verbosity
b)
To reduce RAM usage
c)
To speed up compilation
d)
To protect sensitive data used during testing
e)
To delete test cases
3.
Which attachment documents known limitations?
a)
Team photos
b)
Invoice copies
c)
Contract templates
d)
Known issues or limitations log
e)
Marketing slogans
4.
Which practice improves locating test items in large projects?
a)
Hiding items in folders
b)
Removing metadata
c)
Using random names
d)
Sharing passwords openly
e)
Maintainable naming and clear traceability
5.
A good defect reporting policy should include:
a)
Steps to reproduce, observed and expected results
b)
Client testimonials
c)
Employee salary details
d)
Invoice numbers
e)
Release date only
6.
Why include sample defect reports as attachments?
a)
To reduce test count
b)
To delete defects
c)
To encrypt logs
d)
To standardize reporting format
e)
To entertain readers
7.
How should test items be uniquely identified?
a)
Using unique identifiers like IDs or tags
b)
Using same names for all
c)
Using random images
d)
Using calendar dates
e)
Using colors only
8.
What is a primary objective of software testing?
a)
To increase development speed
b)
To replace documentation
c)
To encrypt data
d)
To detect defects
e)
To improve compiler behavior
9.
What's a test strategy within the plan?
a)
Database schemas
b)
A list of coding conventions
c)
Vendor invoices
d)
User onboarding flow
e)
High-level approach to achieve testing objectives
10.
Who are typical recipients of test reports?
a)
Project managers, developers, stakeholders and QA leads
b)
Random public
c)
Competitors only
d)
Children
e)
Catering staff only
11.
Which of these is a common attachment to a test plan?
a)
Recruitment ads
b)
Test cases and test scripts
c)
Bank statements
d)
Sales leads
e)
Employee contracts
12.
Which component defines test entry criteria?
a)
Entry criteria section
b)
Release tagline
c)
Meeting agenda
d)
Salary structure
e)
Printer queue
13.
Test planning should consider which resource?
a)
Parking spots
b)
Employee lunch preferences
c)
Vacation histories
d)
Personal email accounts
e)
Test environment and tools
14.
Which component details roles and responsibilities?
a)
Organization and staffing
b)
Meeting minutes
c)
Test scripts
d)
Hardware specs
e)
License keys
15.
A testing policy typically provides:
a)
Market analysis
b)
High-level rules and objectives for testing activities
c)
End-user training
d)
Detailed test scripts
e)
Source code comments
16.
Why is a test item list needed?
a)
To delay release
b)
To reduce test quality
c)
To ensure all modules are covered by tests
d)
To increase expenses
e)
To publish marketing
17.
What does 'test oracle' refer to?
a)
A deployment script
b)
A mechanism to determine expected outcomes
c)
An encryption module
d)
A build tool
e)
A code linter
18.
Why include reproducible steps in defect reports?
a)
To delete test cases
b)
To increase bugs
c)
To speed up meetings
d)
To confuse them
e)
So developers can reliably reproduce and fix issues
19.
When are test items typically reviewed?
a)
During vacation
b)
Only at deployment
c)
During test planning and before execution
d)
When hardware fails
e)
After project closure only
20.
Traceability in test planning helps to:
a)
Calculate salaries
b)
Manage office keys
c)
Design icons
d)
Encrypt source code
e)
Map requirements to test cases
21.
What is a test suite?
a)
A team of developers
b)
A bug tracker
c)
A server cluster
d)
A collection of test cases intended to be executed together
e)
A graphical theme
22.
How should confidential test data be handled in reports?
a)
Publish as-is
b)
Mask or exclude sensitive information as per policy
c)
Email to all
d)
Print publicly
e)
Post to social media
23.
The main goal of debugging is to:
a)
Perform acceptance tests
b)
Create test plans
c)
Identify the root cause and fix the defect
d)
Document user stories
e)
Schedule testing activities
24.
Why attach installation guides to the test plan?
a)
To use in marketing
b)
To hide code
c)
To ensure proper setup of the test environment
d)
To publish to customers
e)
To increase downloads
25.
Which component handles risk and contingency?
a)
Chair ergonomics
b)
Color contrast
c)
Font choices
d)
Snack rotation
e)
Risk assessment and mitigation
26.
Which item is usually included in a test plan?
a)
Server serial numbers
b)
User personal data
c)
Test scope and objectives
d)
Marketing strategy
e)
Detailed source code
27.
What does 'locating test items' involve?
a)
Hiring testers
b)
Writing press releases
c)
Identifying the components to be tested
d)
Allocating budgets
e)
Signing contracts
28.
When should test planning start?
a)
When project ends
b)
As early as possible, ideally during requirements analysis
c)
Only after deployment
d)
After release notes are written
e)
After forgetting requirements
29.
Who is responsible for maintaining the test item inventory?
a)
Office admin
b)
Graphic designer
c)
Payroll officer
d)
Security guard
e)
QA lead or test manager
30.
Which section is essential in a test report?
a)
Executive summary of test status
b)
Birthday list
c)
Office maintenance notes
d)
Lunch menu
e)
Team bios only
31.
What attachment helps when reproducing environment issues?
a)
Press kits
b)
System configuration snapshots
c)
Client testimonials
d)
Holiday images
e)
Promotional codes
32.
Which of these is NOT a test item?
a)
Database schema
b)
Office furniture
c)
API endpoint
d)
Software module
e)
User interface component
33.
What should a good defect summary include?
a)
Defect counts by severity and status
b)
Only timestamps
c)
Only file sizes
d)
Only colors
e)
Only names of testers
34.
Which attachment helps reproduce defects reliably?
a)
Invoice PDFs
b)
Holiday photos
c)
Sample test data and logs
d)
Marketing slides
e)
Press releases
35.
What is regression testing?
a)
Documentation writing
b)
Unit-level compilation
c)
Final system delivery
d)
Team recruitment
e)
Re-testing to ensure changes didn't introduce new faults
36.
What belongs in the configuration management component?
a)
Cafeteria rules
b)
Holiday calendar
c)
Versioning of test artifacts and environments
d)
Promotional images
e)
Gift registry
37.
Black-box testing is primarily concerned with?
a)
Algorithm efficiency
b)
External functional behavior
c)
Database tuning
d)
Server provisioning
e)
Code coverage metrics
38.
Which component may specify suspension criteria?
a)
Employee roles
b)
Budget approval
c)
Training plans
d)
Suspension and resumption criteria
e)
Test data only
39.
What is a smoke test?
a)
A stress test to maximum capacity
b)
A deep code review
c)
A quick check to determine whether basic functionality works
d)
A performance optimization run
e)
A security penetration test
40.
Which attachment helps with performance testing?
a)
Load profiles and baseline metrics
b)
Meeting minutes
c)
Birthday lists
d)
Travel itineraries
e)
Payroll records
41.
White-box testing focuses on which of these?
a)
Internal code structure
b)
Project budgeting
c)
Network configuration
d)
User interface aesthetics
e)
Contract terms
42.
Which of the following is a core component of a test plan?
a)
UI color palette
b)
Test objectives
c)
Office address
d)
Payroll list
e)
Team vacation schedule
43.
The test schedule is part of which component?
a)
Office infrastructure
b)
Configuration files
c)
Printer settings
d)
Test management and schedule
e)
Customer complaints
44.
Which metric helps evaluate testing effectiveness?
a)
Color of UI buttons
b)
Server uptime in years
c)
Lines of code per file
d)
Defect detection percentage
e)
Number of meetings held
45.
Which part of a test plan details communication protocols?
a)
Art assets
b)
Code snippets
c)
Design stencils
d)
Communication and escalation paths
e)
Test data
46.
What should a good test item repository provide?
a)
Only spreadsheets
b)
Only videos
c)
Only images
d)
Only audio
e)
Searchable metadata and version history
47.
Which attachment is useful for automated tests?
a)
Automation scripts and runners
b)
Catering menus
c)
Event invites
d)
Employee directories
e)
Financial forecasts
48.
Why include contact lists as attachments?
a)
To quickly reach stakeholders during issues
b)
To create backups
c)
To decorate report
d)
To ignore calls
e)
To fill pages
49.
Which component lists test deliverables?
a)
Commit history
b)
Marketing emails
c)
User credentials
d)
Error logs only
e)
Deliverables section
50.
A well-defined bug lifecycle feature is:
a)
Status updates such as new, open, fixed, verified
b)
Daily standups
c)
Performance graphs
d)
Company mission statements
e)
Invoice approvals
51.
Which attachment helps testers follow coding standards?
a)
Office handbook
b)
Coding convention reference (if tests touch code)
c)
Timesheets
d)
Lunch menu
e)
Parking map
52.
Why include configuration documents as attachments?
a)
To increase file size
b)
To remove accountability
c)
To allow testers to replicate the environment
d)
To hide defects
e)
To confuse stakeholders
53.
What should a test escalation policy define?
a)
Which fonts to use
b)
How to close bank accounts
c)
How to hire interns
d)
Who to contact when critical defects are found
e)
How to design UI icons
54.
Which statement correctly contrasts testing and debugging?
a)
Testing finds faults; debugging locates and removes faults
b)
Testing is done after deployment only
c)
Testing is only manual, debugging is only automated
d)
They are identical processes
e)
Debugging finds faults; testing removes them
55.
Which artifact helps map code modules to test items?
a)
Traceability matrix
b)
Office map
c)
Holiday planner
d)
Expense claims
e)
Lunch menu
56.
Which schedule element is part of a test plan?
a)
Birthday lists
b)
Conference schedules
c)
Salary payment dates
d)
Milestones for test phases
e)
Office maintenance
57.
Which component addresses tools and environment?
a)
CRM details
b)
Payroll system
c)
Contact directory
d)
Holiday list
e)
Test environment and tools
58.
Which content improves the usefulness of test reports?
a)
Only source code
b)
Random screenshots
c)
Only error logs without context
d)
Personal photos
e)
Clear recommendations and risk assessment
59.
Security testing policy primarily addresses:
a)
Risks and controls for protecting the system
b)
Parking rules
c)
User interface colors
d)
Snack provisions
e)
Phone extensions
60.
What is the primary purpose of a test report?
a)
Archive meeting photos
b)
Store marketing slogans
c)
Show financial audits
d)
List team holidays
e)
Communicate test findings and support release decisions
61.
Which is an example of non-functional testing?
a)
Unit testing
b)
Peer review
c)
Statement coverage
d)
Syntax checking
e)
Performance testing
62.
Which of the following best describes verification?
a)
Finding and fixing bugs
b)
Checking if the product meets specified requirements
c)
Writing user manuals
d)
Optimizing runtime performance
e)
Deploying software to production
63.
Which component describes defect management process?
a)
Defect tracking and lifecycle
b)
Lunch menu
c)
Hardware disposal
d)
Payroll details
e)
Recruiting plan
64.
Which metric is commonly included in test reports?
a)
Number of open and closed defects
b)
Server room temperature
c)
Number of chairs
d)
Employee lunch preference
e)
Color theme used
65.
Which factor increases confidence in software quality?
a)
Frequent restarts
b)
Comprehensive test coverage
c)
Larger team size
d)
More lines of code
e)
Longer meetings
66.
What role do requirement IDs play in locating test items?
a)
They manage payroll
b)
They store user passwords
c)
They schedule meetings
d)
They design the UI
e)
They link requirements to test cases
67.
What is the role of peer reviews in debugging policy?
a)
Legal sign-off
b)
Budget allocation
c)
User training
d)
Early detection of defects before execution
e)
Final approval for release
68.
Why include entry criteria in a plan?
a)
To avoid writing tests
b)
To change requirements mid-cycle
c)
To publish marketing materials
d)
To stop testing immediately
e)
To define conditions required before tests start
69.
What action often follows a critical defect in a report?
a)
Changing fonts
b)
Escalation to the appropriate manager
c)
Ordering lunch
d)
Printing badges
e)
Scheduling holiday
70.
Which is a common debugging technique?
a)
Tracing and breakpoints
b)
Budget forecasting
c)
Acceptance criteria
d)
Smoke testing
e)
Release management
71.
What is included in the reporting component?
a)
Team socials
b)
Supply contracts
c)
Format and frequency of test reports
d)
Code style guides
e)
Design patents
72.
A test plan primarily documents:
a)
Hosting provider invoices
b)
Employee resumes
c)
Programming languages used
d)
Company financial statements
e)
Scope, approach, resources and schedule for testing
73.
What is a test milestone?
a)
A checkpoint marking completion of major test activities
b)
A variable name
c)
A bug severity level
d)
A configuration file
e)
A unit test
74.
Why estimate test effort during planning?
a)
To remove test cases
b)
To increase bugs
c)
To allocate sufficient time and resources
d)
To postpone deployment
e)
To fire testers
75.
Which is a common deliverable of test planning?
a)
Press releases
b)
Compiled binaries
c)
Master test schedule
d)
Design prototypes
e)
Marketing brochures
76.
Which goal is associated with regression testing policy?
a)
Lower security checks
b)
Prevent previously fixed defects from reappearing
c)
Mandate new languages
d)
Increase team vacations
e)
Remove documentation
77.
Entry and exit criteria belong to which component?
a)
Contact list
b)
Release notes
c)
Test completion and start criteria
d)
Database index
e)
Design mockups
78.
What should be attached for compliance testing?
a)
Maintenance log
b)
Snack list
c)
Design mockups
d)
Regulatory requirements and evidence
e)
Color swatches
79.
Which visualization helps stakeholders quickly grasp test status?
a)
Dashboards with key metrics and charts
b)
Decorative images
c)
Only text paragraphs
d)
Random emoji
e)
Unformatted logs
80.
Why define exit criteria in testing policy?
a)
To delay release indefinitely
b)
To reduce testing to one test
c)
To outsource debugging
d)
To know when testing can be stopped reliably
e)
To eliminate documentation
81.
How do configuration changes affect locating test items?
a)
They only change fonts
b)
They alter coffee machines
c)
They never affect tests
d)
They reset developer accounts
e)
They can change which items need testing
82.
What does 'pass/fail rate' indicate in a test report?
a)
Average salary
b)
Client count
c)
Proportion of tests meeting expected results
d)
Number of deployments
e)
Browser market share
83.
Why include trends in test reports?
a)
To change team composition
b)
To hide defects
c)
To increase file size
d)
To show progress or regress over time
e)
To decorate report
84.
Which policy reduces false positives in automated tests?
a)
Office layout policy
b)
Hiring policy
c)
Vacation policy
d)
Flaky test mitigation and stability rules
e)
Code obfuscation policy
85.
Which planning activity helps control scope creep?
a)
Removing stakeholders
b)
Ignoring requirements
c)
Regular scope reviews and approvals
d)
Deleting test cases
e)
Changing codebase daily
86.
What is the purpose of a test environment?
a)
To host marketing materials
b)
To provide controlled conditions for test execution
c)
To run continuous payroll
d)
To store backups permanently
e)
To audit financials
87.
What is a test case?
a)
A set of inputs, execution conditions and expected results
b)
A project plan
c)
A software module
d)
A code optimization
e)
A bug report
88.
Which attachment provides quick test execution steps?
a)
Hiring checklist
b)
Holiday checklist
c)
Maintenance checklist
d)
Marketing checklist
e)
Test execution checklist
89.
Validation in testing ensures what?
a)
All code is optimized
b)
Team members are trained
c)
Licenses are valid
d)
The software meets user needs
e)
Hardware requirements are met
90.
When should test reports be delivered?
a)
Whenever someone asks casually
b)
Never
c)
According to the frequency specified in the test plan
d)
Only after deployment
e)
Only at project end
91.
Which activity is not typically part of testing?
a)
Logging defects
b)
Reviewing results
c)
Designing test cases
d)
Executing test cases
e)
Writing business requirements
92.
What is a master test plan?
a)
A code linter
b)
A top-level plan that outlines testing across the project
c)
A deployment script
d)
A test runner
e)
A bug ID generator
93.
What is 'test closure report' used for?
a)
Documenting overall testing outcomes and lessons learned
b)
Product invoices
c)
Marketing campaigns
d)
Onboarding new hires only
e)
Holiday announcements
94.
What is risk-based testing in planning?
a)
Testing only UI themes
b)
Prioritizing tests based on business risk
c)
Archiving old tests
d)
Randomly selecting tests
e)
Hiring for QA team
95.
Who typically approves the formal test plan?
a)
Graphic designer
b)
End user only
c)
Marketing intern
d)
Project manager or QA lead
e)
Cafeteria manager
96.
Test matrices attached to a plan typically show:
a)
Office layout
b)
Salary breakdown
c)
Meeting notes
d)
Holiday roster
e)
Mapping between features and tests
97.
Where are test case identifiers documented?
a)
Test identification component
b)
Legal documents
c)
Office map
d)
UI guidelines
e)
Expense sheet
98.
Which attachment documents test data privacy handling?
a)
Data privacy and masking guidelines
b)
Office map
c)
Travel policy
d)
Badge access list
e)
UI color guide
99.
Which goal is primarily a testing objective?
a)
Reduce server count
b)
Automate payroll
c)
Generate marketing leads
d)
Detect failures before release
e)
Hire more developers
100.
What does 'defect severity' describe?
a)
Number of users
b)
Impact of a defect on system operation
c)
Programming language used
d)
File size
e)
Age of the tester
100 %
