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JEPBN'24 (51-100)

Total questions: 51

Worksheet time: 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In metabolic process vitamin D is absorbed in

a)

Stomach

b)

Small intestine

c)

Large intestine

d)

Starts from the stomach and ends in large intestine

2.

To prevent neural tube defect in a baby which nutrient is given as supplementation for the mother during pregnancy?

a)

Calcium

b)

Iron

c)

Folic acid

d)

Magnesium

3.

Which is also known as the "Accessory dietary factor"?

a)

Fats

b)

Vitamins

c)

Proteins

d)

Hormones

4.

Index of duration of malnutrition is

a)

Weight for height

b)

Height for age

c)

Weight for age

d)

None

5.

The response to iron replacement therapy is indicated by an increase in Hb at the rate of

a)

2 gm/week

b)

1 gm/week

c)

1 gm/month

d)

2 gm/month

6.

The ability of a class of microbes to produce disease is referred as

a)

Virulence

b)

Pathogenicity

c)

Commensals

d)

Infection

7.

Koplik's Spot on the buccal mucosa is a characteristic feature of

a)

Mumps

b)

Measles

c)

Rubella

d)

Respiratory Syncytial Virus

8.

IPV is a ___ injectable vaccine.

a)

Killed

b)

Live Attenuated

c)

Inactivated

d)

Toxoid

9.

Ophthalmia neonatorum in newborn is caused by

a)

Neisseria gonorrhea

b)

Neisseria meningitidis

c)

Hemophilus influenza

d)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

10.

___ mediates Type-I hypersensitivity reaction.

a)

IgA

b)

IgD

c)

IgE

d)

IgG

11.

In the natural history of disease, the pathogenesis phase is deemed to start upon

a)

Entry of the disease agent in the human host

b)

Interaction between agent, host and environmental factors

c)

Appearance of signs and symptoms

d)

Appearance of complications

12.

Morbidity in a community can best be estimated by

a)

Active surveillance

b)

Sentinel surveillance

c)

Passive surveillance

d)

Monitoring

13.

Which is the most peripheral public health center where safe blood services are envisaged under IPHS?

a)

PHC

b)

CHC

c)

Sub-district hospital

d)

District hospital

14.

Which of the following schemes provides cash assistance?

a)

Janani Sishu Suraksha Yojana (JSSK)

b)

Rashtriya Kishore Swasthya Karyakram (RKSK)

c)

Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY)

d)

Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK)

15.

The emergency contraceptive pill should be used within a maximum period of

a)

24 hours

b)

48 hours

c)

72 hours

d)

96 hours

16.

VIA is a method of screening for cancer of

a)

Oral cavity

b)

Cervix

c)

Gastric

d)

Prostate

17.

Which of the following centers are now known as Health and Wellness Center (HWC)?

a)

CHC

b)

District Hospital

c)

Sub-center

d)

Rural Hospital

18.

'Endemic Disease' means that a disease

a)

Occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy

b)

Is constantly present in a given population group

c)

Exhibits seasonal pattern

d)

Is prevalent among animals

19.

Live attenuated vaccine is

a)

COVID-19

b)

Typhoid

c)

IPV

d)

OPV

20.

Hansen's disease is also known as

a)

Leprosy

b)

Filaria

c)

Yellow Fever

d)

Plague

21.

As per national immunization schedule at which age OPV Booster to be given?

a)

14–16 weeks of age

b)

10–12 months of age

c)

12–15 months of age

d)

16–24 months of age

22.

A 2-year-old child having respiratory rate 50 breaths/min with cough and cold. At which classification of pneumonia does the child belong to?

a)

No pneumonia

b)

Pneumonia

c)

Severe pneumonia

d)

Very severe pneumonia

23.

"Pavlik Harness" brace is most commonly used for

a)

Knee deformity

b)

Finger deformity

c)

CDH (Congenital Dislocation of Hip)

d)

Spinal deformity

24.

Vitamin K given to a newborn weighing 900 g is

a)

0.5 mg

b)

1.5 mg

c)

1.0 mg

d)

2.0 mg

25.

The hormone responsible for milk ejection is

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Estrogen

c)

Progesterone

d)

Prolactin

26.

Patent Ductus Arteriosus is an abnormal communication between

a)

Pulmonary artery and pulmonary veins

b)

Pulmonary artery and aorta

c)

Pulmonary veins and aorta

d)

Pulmonary veins and coronary artery

27.

The red coloured inverted triangle at the centre of the under-five logo represents

a)

Care in illness

b)

Immunisation

c)

Early diagnosis

d)

Family planning

28.

The red coloured inverted triangle at the centre of the under-five logo represents

a)

Care in illness

b)

Immunisation

c)

Early diagnosis

d)

Family planning

29.

'Flag sign' is a sign in which of the following nutritional disorders?

a)

Marasmus

b)

Kwashiorkor

c)

Underweight

d)

Nutritional dwarfism

30.

FLACC scale is used to assess which of the following parameter in children?

a)

Pain

b)

Dehydration

c)

Anxiety

d)

Consciousness

31.

Under POSHAN Abhiyaan, the focus is on

a)

Health and nutrition

b)

Education

c)

Vaccine promotion

d)

Early treatment and referral

32.

An example of non-therapeutic communication technique is

a)

Validating

b)

Belittling

c)

Reflecting

d)

Listening

33.

Patient believes that the nurse and doctor are talking about him; this could best be described as

a)

Obsession

b)

Delusion of reference

c)

Delusion of persecution

d)

Idea of influence

34.

Nurse can minimize agitation in a disturbed client by

a)

Increasing stimulation

b)

Limiting unnecessary interaction

c)

Increasing appropriate sensory perception

d)

Ensuring constant client and staff contact

35.

In schizophrenia, the term anhedonia refers to

a)

Inability to enjoy food

b)

Inability to express empathy

c)

Inability to react to pleasurable events

d)

Inability to react appropriately to social cues

36.

The 4 A’s of schizophrenia are

a)

Anxiety, ambivalence, autism, affective disturbance

b)

Amnesia, ambivalence, autism, affective disturbance

c)

Autism, affective disturbance, anxiety, amnesia

d)

Autism, ambivalence, affective disturbance, associative disturbance

37.

The nurse is assigned to a client with catatonic schizophrenia. Which intervention should be included in the care plan?

a)

Giving the client an opportunity to express concerns

b)

Maintaining safe distance from the patient

c)

Administering lithium carbonate as prescribed

d)

Providing a quiet environment where the client can be alone

38.

The nurse is caring for a client who experiences false sensory perceptions with no basis in reality. These perceptions are known as

a)

Delusions

b)

Hallucinations

c)

Loose association

d)

Neologism

39.

Which of the following is a major side effect of typical antipsychotics?

a)

Tardive dyskinesia

b)

Thyroid abnormality

c)

Weight gain

d)

Headache

40.

Benzodiazepines reduce anxiety by acting on which neurotransmitter?

a)

GABA

b)

Serotonin

c)

Noradrenaline

d)

Dopamine

41.

A mental disorder characterized by stereotype speech is

a)

Mannerism

b)

Cataplexy

c)

Verbigeration

d)

Negativism

42.

Seminoma testis is a

a)

Germ cell tumor

b)

Vascular tumor

c)

Mesothelial tumor

d)

Epithelial tumor

43.

Cobweb formation in the CSF is characteristically seen in

a)

Tubercular meningitis

b)

Pyogenic meningitis

c)

Astrocytoma

d)

Meningioma

44.

Prolonged infection with HPV-18 is linked with

a)

Ovarian cancer

b)

Carcinoma of the cervix

c)

Endometrial cancer

d)

Uterine polyp

45.

Which drug does not cross the placental barrier?

a)

Diazepam

b)

Heparin

c)

Pethidine

d)

Dicumarol

46.

The drug chloroquine acts on the

a)

Blood schizonts

b)

Merozoites

c)

Gametocytes

d)

Tissue schizonts

47.

The drug of choice for ventricular tachycardia is

a)

Digoxin

b)

Xylocard

c)

Propranolol

d)

Pethidine

48.

The main adverse effects of Salbutamol are

a)

Bradycardia and heart block

b)

Palpitation and muscle tremor

c)

Nausea and vomiting

d)

Diarrhea and hypotension

49.

The commonest cause of fatty liver is

a)

Starvation

b)

Alcoholism

c)

Steroid

d)

Carbon tetrachloride

50.

Major mechanism of transport of drugs across biological membranes is by

a)

Passive diffusion

b)

Facilitated diffusion

c)

Active transport

d)

Endocytosis

51.

Drug of choice for myoclonic seizures

a)

Vigabatrin

b)

Phenytoin

c)

Valproate

d)

Carbamazepine