wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

GI Midterm

Total questions: 48

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 62yo male with a history of alcohol abuse presents with bright red blood in his vomit. On physical examination, you note abdominal swelling and erythema on both palms. He is notably tachycardic. The anastomoses of which of the following has contributed to his condition?

a)

R. gastric v. and azygous v.

b)

L. gastric v. and azygous v.

c)

L. gastric v. and superficial epigastric v.

d)

Paraumbilical v. and superficial epigastric v.

e)

Paraumbilical v and azygous v.

2.

The structure indicated by the circle most likely (select all that apply):

a)

Reabsorbs Na+, releases K+ and HCO3-

b)

Reabsorbs Cl-, releases HCO3-

c)

Reabsorbs Na+, releases K+

d)

Reabsorbs K+, releases K+

e)

Reabsorbs HCO3-, releases Cl-

3.

The peak of this smooth muscle action potential is most likely due to:

a)

Na+ influx

b)

Ca2+ influx

c)

K+ influx

d)

Cl- efflux

e)

H+ influx

4.

Which of the following changes will most likely inhibit smooth muscle relaxation?

a)

Decreased MLCK

b)

Decreased L-arginine

c)

Increased cGMP

d)

Increased MLCP

e)

Increased proportion of myosin-P + actin

5.

A young female presents with significant bone loss around her teeth, but you note a lack of inflammation. The pictured culture is grown. What is the most likely pathogen associated with her presentation?

a)

Fusobacterium nucleatum

b)

Treponema spp.

c)

Veillonella spp.

d)

Actinomyces israelii

e)

Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans

6.

Which of the following is generally incompatible with life?

a)

Esophageal stenosis

b)

Esophageal atresia

c)

Pyloric stenosis

d)

Gastroschysis

e)

Diaphragmatic hernia

7.

Absence of which of the following would most impair the digestion of alpha1,6 bonds?

a)

Glucoamylase

b)

Lactase

c)

Isomaltase

d)

Sucrase

e)

Maltase

8.

Within the first 48 hours of starvation, which of the following serves as the main fuel source?

a)

Glucose

b)

Fatty acids

c)

Amino acids

d)

Ketones

9.

Which of the following does not reflect the MAIN functions of TLR signaling in the GI tract?

a)

Produce factors promoting motility and repair

b)

Promote B cell production of sIgA

c)

Maintenance of tight junctions

d)

Expression of AMPs

e)

Promote inflammatory response

10.

Which of the following is the most abundant source of dietary fat?

a)

Phospholipids

b)

Triacylglycerols

c)

Free cholesterol

d)

Cholesterol esters

e)

Phosphoglycerides

11.

Patient presents with painless, mobile mass on their parotid gland. You slice it open and observe the pictured finding. What is most likely concerning this mass?

a)

Associated with elevated risk of sterility

b)

Associated with autoimmune diseases

c)

Composed of squamous and mucus secreting cells

d)

Malignant

e)

Can result in malignant transformation

12.

In protein digestion, which of the following is active first?

a)

Trypsin

b)

Pepsin

c)

Enteropeptidase

d)

Chymotrypsin

e)

Carboxypeptidase A

13.

Elderly patient with recent history of pneumonia presents with punched out ulcerations in the esophagus and the pictured findings. You would most expect:

a)

Cytoplasmic inclusions

b)

Nuclear and cytoplasmic inclusions

c)

Presence of HPV

d)

Presence of HSV

e)

Presence of EBV

14.

Deficiency of which of the following would most likely impair the activity of glutathione peroxidase?

a)

Vitamin B9

b)

Vitamin B12

c)

Selenium

d)

Zinc

e)

Iron

15.

Which of the following cells is most responsible for stimulating secretion of pancreatic enzymes?

a)

G

b)

I

c)

S

d)

K

e)

Gr

16.

Which of the following is not a typical level of narrowing associated with foreign body obstruction?T

a)

C6

b)

C8

c)

T4

d)

T6

e)

T11

17.

Male pt presents with the complain of severe chest pain. On auscultation, you note a rasping sound synchronous with his heart beat over the precordium. The pt's condition is most likely associated with:

a)

Superficial tear in the mucous membrane of esophagus

b)

Self-resolution in 7-10 days

c)

Pyopneumothorax

d)

Hiatal hernia

e)

Caused by sudden decrease in intraesophageal pressure

18.

An elderly male patient is complaining of persistent cough, keeps regurgitating his meds, and has a feeling "like a lump in his throat." You note that his voice is hoarse and his breath is awful. What is most likely?

a)

Esophageal stricture

b)

Cafe coronary

c)

Steakhouse syndrome

d)

Esophageal web

e)

Zenker's diverticulum

19.

While traveling the Oregon Trail, Terry experiences fever, cramps, and tenesmus. He violently covers the entire wagon in bloody stool, teeming with PMNs. If you had modern tools, what would you discover?

a)

A toxin that inactivates the 60s ribosomal subunit

b)

Pink colonies on MacConkey agar

c)

Motile, spore forming bacteria

d)

Facultative intracellular aerobe

e)

Yellow colonies on TCBS agar

20.

You obtain the pictured findings from a pt complaining of watery diarrhea. The patient notes that he was recently treated for a UTI. What is true regarding the likely pathogen?

a)

Catalase +

b)

Oxidase +

c)

Gram positive bacilli

d)

Immotile

e)

Produces alpha toxin

21.

You cultured a pathogen on MacConkey agar and found pink colonies. The picture results also occurred on SS agar. What is true regarding the likely pathogen?

a)

Possesses H antigen

b)

Often vancomycin resistant

c)

Symptoms mimic appendicitis

d)

Has LPS associated with autoimmune nerve damage

e)

Distinct gull-wing shape

22.

18mo old presents w/ vomiting, fever, diarrhea, and shows signs of severe dehydration. What else is true regarding this strain of E. coli?

a)

Zoonotic

b)

Primarily intracellular

c)

Expresses EAF

d)

Associated w/ HUS

e)

Emerging cause of traveler's diarrhea

23.

The pictured finding (pt sample on the right) came from a patient with diarrhea after eating a large amount of chicken. What is true regarding the causative agent?

a)

Grows on TCBS agar

b)

Cannot be transmitted zoonoticatlly

c)

No growth on MacConkey agar

d)

Growth on Skirrow agar

e)

Culture requires cold enrichment

24.

Which of the following endotoxins does not produce diarrhea on its own?

a)

LT1

b)

LT2

c)

STa

d)

STb

e)

EAST1

25.

Which of the following is associated with severe burns?

a)

Stress ulcer

b)

Curling ulcer

c)

Cushing ulcer

d)

Perforation ulcer

e)

Shock ulcer

26.

Pt presents with nausea and upper abdominal discomfort. You perform a urea breath test and it is positive. Where did this biopsy most likely come from?

a)

Fundus of stomach

b)

Body of stomach

c)

Cardia of stomach

d)

Antrum of stomach

e)

Proximal duodenum

27.

Middle aged male pt presents with complaints of epigastric burning sensation. He has a history of renal disease and mentions that he has gained 5lbs this month because eating seems to help his pain. What is most likely?

a)

Gastric peptic ulcer

b)

Duodenal peptic ulcer

c)

Acute gastritis

d)

Chronic gastritis

e)

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

28.

You are treating a pt with a history of heart disease for peptic ulcer disease and he begins complaining of nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and yellowed vision. What side effects are associated with the drug you gave him for PUD?

a)

Inhibition of 5 alpha reductase

b)

Inhibition of multiple CYP P450 isoforms

c)

Vitamin B12 deficiency

d)

Short duration

e)

Teratogenic

29.

Pt has begun a new drug regimen and calls you complaining about dizziness and headache. She seems very confused and keeps yelling about the milk. THE MILK! What did you give this patient?

a)

Colloidal bismuth

b)

Cimetidine

c)

Magnesium hydroxide

d)

Aluminum hydroxide

e)

Sodium bicarbonate

30.

You are treating a pt with an H. pylori infection that was unresponsive to the first line therapy. What do now?

a)

Omeprazole QD, Clarithromycin BID, Amoxicillin BID

b)

Omeprazole QD, Clarithromycin BID, Metronidazole BID

c)

Omeprazole QD, Bismuth subsalicylate QID, Metronidazole QID, Tetracycline QID

d)

Famotidine BID, Bismuth subsalicylate QID, Metronidazole QID

e)

Omeprazole QD, Bismuth subsalicylate QID

31.

Pt with type A blood that has a steady diet of smoked foods comes in for a gastric biopsy. Based on the pictured finding, what do you think?

a)

Diffuse gastric adenocarcinoma

b)

Intestinal gastric adenocarcinoma

c)

Carcinoid tumor

d)

Gastrointestinal stromal cell tumor

32.

The pictured neoplasm is most likely associated with:

a)

Elevated 5H1AA in urine

b)

Increased production of IL-1Beta

c)

Germ line mutation of CDH1

d)

KIT gain of function mutation

e)

PDGFRA loss of function mutation

33.

This biopsy was taken from a mass found in the proximal duodenum of a patient with symptoms similar to peptic ulcer disease, biliary obstruction, and abdominal pain. The tumor most likely secretes:

a)

Histamine

b)

Serotonin

c)

Gastrin

d)

Substance P

e)

Polypeptide YY

34.

You are treating a pt on chemotherapy for N/V with dolasetron. What drug could you add to this to enhance is efficacy?

a)

Diphenhydramine

b)

Dimenhydrinate

c)

Dexamethasone

d)

Droperidol

e)

Dronabinol

35.

Pregnant pt w/ N/V in the 1st trimester. Blood work is negative for ketosis and she reports no significant weight changes. Which treatment would present the greatest risk?

a)

Promethazine

b)

Odansetron

c)

Metoclopramide

d)

Diphenhydramine

e)

Doxylamine/pyridoxine

36.

You are treating a pt with diarrhea using ciprofloxacin. They complain of recent nausea, so why not toss a few more drugs at them? You include odansetron and dexamethasone. What DDI is most concerning?

a)

CYP3A4 inhibtion

b)

CYP3A4 induction

c)

Prolonged QT interval

d)

Increased risk of tendon rupture

e)

Respiratory depression

37.

Which of the following is the GOLD standard for assessing body fat and lean body mass?

a)

BIA

b)

DEXA

c)

MRI

d)

Bod Pod

e)

CT Scan

38.

Which of the following is true regarding Kwashiokor vs Marasmus?

a)

Elevated protein intake

b)

Lower mortality

c)

Mildly catabolic

d)

Takes months to develop

e)

Well-nourished appearance

39.

What is the minimum daily protein intake?

a)

0.4 g/kg body wt

b)

0.5 g/kg body wt

c)

0.65 g/kg body wt

d)

0.8 g/kg body wt

e)

1.5 g/kg body wt

40.

Pt w/ N/V and diarrhea. He said that he's been eating lots of salad to lose weight lately. The cultures show off-white colonies on MacConkey agar and black colonies on SS agar. What else is true about this pathogen?

a)

Immotile

b)

Gram + rod

c)

Aerobic

d)

Associated w/ pseudomembrane formation

e)

Enters only M cells

41.

Pt w/ blurred vision and droopy eyelids. You have the pictured findings. What is true about this organism?

a)

No association w/ food intoxication

b)

Toxin cannot cross BBB

c)

Promotes release of ACh

d)

Does not form spores

e)

Grows on MacConkey agar

42.

Pt w/ watery diarrhea and abdominal pain. She mentions having leftover fried rice for breakfast. How does the enterotoxin from the most likely pathogen function?

a)

Stimulation of vagus n.

b)

Upregulation of cAMP

c)

Cleavage of SNARE proteins

d)

Inhibition of gastric acid secretion

e)

Forms pores in phagolysosomal membrane

43.

You work in a geriatric ward and a patient has recently developed diarrhea, vomiting, and a mild fever. You determine that the infectious agent has 11 segments (don't ask me why you did that first) and diagnosed the pt using electron microscopy. What segment of this pathogen's genome stimulates a change in intracellular Ca2+ concentration?

a)

VP3

b)

NSP1

c)

NSP2

d)

NSP3

e)

NSP4

44.

A pt has awful gastroenteritis after eating at a cruise ship buffet in December on a Wednesday and 5:39 PM. What is true regarding the immune response to this pathogen?

a)

Immunity conferred via live oral attenuated vaccine

b)

Immunity conferred via killed injectable vaccine

c)

Exposure elicits short term immunity

d)

Exposure elicits long term immunity

e)

It completely evades the immune response

45.

A patient returns from a lovely vacation in the tropics with some uninvited guests. She has loose, bloody stools, stomach pain, and cramps. You note the presence of cysts and trophozoites in her stool. The best option for treatment would be:

a)

Rehydration and bed rest

b)

Metronidazole

c)

Metronidazole and paromycin

d)

Nitazoxanide

e)

Iodoquinol

46.

An obese, 55yo pt with a history of SVT complains of heartburn, difficulty swallowing, and drooling. Barium swallow indicates an incompetent LES. Which of the following would be the gold standard surgical treatment for this condition?

a)

Transoral incisionless fundoplication

b)

Titanium esophageal ring

c)

Bariatric surgery

d)

Laproscopic Nissen fundoplication

e)

Gastric bypass

47.

Pt (BMI 23) with history of asthma has complaints of chronic hoarseness, non-productive cough, difficultly swallowing, and a feeling like a lump in their throat. What is true regarding the suspected condition?

a)

Heartburn is a defining characteristic

b)

HCl plays the most important role in pathogenesis

c)

Damage to larynx/oropharynx occurs after only 3 episodes/day

d)

Reflux is nocturnal or in supine position

e)

Dysfunction of the LES

48.

The majority of patients with GERD symptoms are found to have _______ upon EGD.

a)

Erosive esophaitis

b)

Non-erosive reflux disease

c)

Barrett's Esophagus

d)

Laryngopharyngeal reflux

e)

Esophageal webs