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Antibiotics P1

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines a health care–associated infection (HAI)?

a)

Infection present at admission

b)

Infection occurring >48 hours after admission

c)

Infection acquired in the community

d)

Infection present with colonization only

2.

Empiric antibiotic therapy refers to:

a)

Using narrowest drug after cultures return

b)

Immediate broad coverage based on likely pathogens

c)

Withholding therapy until sensitivities result

d)

Prophylaxis before clean procedures

3.

Which pair shares the same mechanism of action?

a)

Macrolides and tetracyclines

b)

Penicillins and cephalosporins

c)

Quinolones and aminoglycosides

d)

Sulfonamides and monobactams

4.

A patient reports throat swelling with penicillin. Which antibiotic is most concerning?

a)

Azithromycin

b)

Cefazolin

c)

Doxycycline

d)

Ciprofloxacin

5.

Sulfonamides are commonly used for which infection due to high renal concentrations?

a)

Otitis media

b)

Urinary tract infection

c)

Cellulitis

d)

Pharyngitis

6.

Which macrolide effect can be therapeutically useful in gastroparesis?

a)

QT shortening

b)

GI motility stimulation

c)

Calcium channel blockade

d)

Beta-lactamase inhibition

7.

Which carbapenem-related precaution is priority?

a)

Seizure risk

b)

Red man syndrome

c)

Ototoxicity

d)

Photosensitivity

8.

Aztreonam is most active against:

a)

Anaerobes

b)

Gram-positive cocci

c)

Aerobic gram-negative rods

d)

Fungi

9.

Which organism is typically treated with vancomycin as drug of choice?

a)

MRSA

b)

ESBL E. coli

c)

CRE Klebsiella

d)

Pseudomonas

10.

Which lab/monitoring is essential with daptomycin therapy?

a)

Lipase weekly

b)

CPK levels

c)

TSH monthly

d)

Amylase only

11.

Gentamicin should be held and prescriber notified if trough is:

a)

0.6 mcg/mL

b)

1.0 mcg/mL

c)

1.8 mcg/mL

d)

2.4 mcg/mL

12.

Which teaching for ciprofloxacin is correct?

a)

Take with antacids for absorption

b)

Avoid separating from iron

c)

Space doses from calcium/magnesium

d)

No effect with zinc supplements

13.

Linezolid food interaction to avoid:

a)

High-fiber foods

b)

Tyramine-rich foods like aged cheese

c)

High-fat meals only

d)

Grapefruit juice

14.

Which adverse effect is strongly associated with clindamycin?

a)

Neutropenia

b)

Pseudomembranous colitis

c)

QT prolongation

d)

Dose-dependent tinnitus

15.

Nitrofurantoin key counseling includes:

a)

Safe in severe hepatic disease

b)

Crush tablets for better absorption

c)

Take with food and fluids

d)

Primarily for skin infections

16.

Which statement about aminoglycosides is true?

a)

Time-dependent killing

b)

Bind 50S ribosome

c)

Concentration-dependent killing with postantibiotic effect

d)

Primarily gram-positive monotherapy

17.

Quinolone IV infusions should generally be administered over:

a)

<15 minutes rapidly

b)

1 to 1.5 hours

c)

3 hours

d)

Only by IV push

18.

Red Man Syndrome during vancomycin infusion is best managed by:

a)

Stopping and never restarting

b)

Immediate epinephrine

c)

Slowing infusion rate

d)

Giving IV push to finish faster

19.

CRE infections are generally susceptible to:

a)

Meropenem

b)

Tigecycline

c)

Amoxicillin

d)

Ceftriaxone

20.

Which pairing demonstrates synergy for serious gram-positive infections?

a)

Gentamicin + penicillin

b)

Macrolide + tetracycline

c)

Ciprofloxacin + antacid

d)

Vancomycin + zinc

21.

Features of ESBL-producing organisms include: (Select all that apply.)

a)

Resistance to many beta-lactams

b)

Susceptibility to aztreonam

c)

Often require carbapenems

d)

Easily treated with amoxicillin alone

e)

Can evolve further to carbapenemase production

22.

Aminoglycoside toxicity surveillance should include monitoring for: (Select all that apply.)

a)

Tinnitus and dizziness

b)

Rising creatinine

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Ataxia and nystagmus

e)

Photosensitivity

23.

Macrolides are effective for intracellular pathogens such as: (Select all that apply.)

a)

Chlamydia

b)

Legionella

c)

Listeria

d)

Mycoplasma

e)

Campylobacter

24.

Nursing actions for vancomycin therapy: (Select all that apply.)

a)

Draw trough before 4th dose

b)

Administer via IV push for faster effect

c)

Monitor for hypotension/flushing

d)

Combine routinely with aminoglycosides to reduce nephrotoxicity

e)

Check renal function regularly

25.

Quinolone major precautions include: (Select all that apply.)

a)

Separate from Ca/Mg/Fe/Zn

b)

Risk of QT prolongation

c)

Peripheral neuropathy risk

d)

Contraindicated in all pediatric patients absolutely

e)

Potential liver injury in older adults

26.

First action when a patient develops wheezing and hives during piperacillin infusion:

a)

Slow the infusion rate

b)

Stop the infusion and notify the provider

c)

Document and reassess in 30 min

d)

Give acetaminophen

27.

Which task can be delegated to NAP for a patient on IV gentamicin?

a)

Assess for tinnitus

b)

Measure intake and output

c)

Interpret trough levels

d)

Monitor for nystagmus

28.

Before starting empiric antibiotics for sepsis, the priority is to:

a)

Start maintenance IV fluids

b)

Obtain blood and site cultures

c)

Administer acetaminophen

d)

Order an ECG

29.

During vancomycin infusion the patient becomes flushed with mild hypotension. Best immediate action:

a)

Stop permanently and label allergic

b)

Slow the infusion and continue monitoring

c)

Bolus NS and IV push vanco

d)

Administer IM epinephrine immediately

30.

Patient teaching points for tetracyclines include: (Select all that apply.)

a)

Avoid dairy/antacids close to dose

b)

Use sunscreen due to photosensitivity

c)

Safe during pregnancy

d)

Take with iron to improve effect

e)

May cause tooth discoloration in children