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Antibiotics P2

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

An ED patient with fever and hypotension is started on IV cefepime before cultures. This represents:

a)

Definitive therapy

b)

Empiric therapy

c)

Prophylaxis

d)

Subtherapeutic therapy

2.

A hospitalized patient on day 4 develops new productive cough and fever. Best classification:

a)

Community-acquired pneumonia

b)

Nosocomial pneumonia

c)

Colonization

d)

Viral URI

3.

A patient on warfarin begins TMP-SMX for UTI. Which lab is priority to monitor within 48–72 hours?

a)

Serum potassium

b)

INR

c)

TSH

d)

ALT/AST only

4.

Which cephalosporin has MRSA coverage?

a)

Cefazolin

b)

Ceftriaxone

c)

Ceftaroline

d)

Cefepime

5.

A 6-year-old with cystic fibrosis has Pseudomonas lung infection. Which statement about quinolones is most accurate?

a)

Absolutely contraindicated in all children

b)

May be used judiciously when benefits outweigh risks

c)

Only topical forms are allowed

d)

Safe without monitoring

6.

Patient on imipenem/cilastatin becomes confused and has myoclonic jerks. History includes epilepsy. Priority action:

a)

Administer antiemetic

b)

Check dosing/renal function and notify provider

c)

Give antidiarrheal

d)

Reassure and continue

7.

Patient on azithromycin complains of palpitations. Next best step:

a)

Stop drug and check ECG for QT prolongation

b)

Ignore if BP is normal

c)

Give calcium to offset effect

d)

Start beta-blocker immediately

8.

Post-op patient receiving clindamycin develops profuse watery diarrhea. Initial nursing response:

a)

Administer loperamide

b)

Collect stool for C. difficile testing and notify provider

c)

Encourage dairy products

d)

Hold fluids to rest bowel

9.

Gentamicin plus piperacillin is ordered for suspected enterococcal endocarditis. The rationale is:

a)

Antagonism to reduce toxicity

b)

Synergy to enhance bacterial killing

c)

Coverage duplication only

d)

Prevent QT prolongation

10.

A patient with MRSA pneumonia is being considered for daptomycin. Best nursing statement:

a)

This is appropriate because daptomycin concentrates in the lungs

b)

Daptomycin is inactivated by surfactant and not used for pneumonia

c)

We must give it as an IV push

d)

Oral daptomycin is preferred

11.

Vancomycin trough is ordered. The nurse should draw it:

a)

Any time after infusion

b)

Immediately after infusion

c)

Just before the 4th dose, within 30 minutes prior to next dose

d)

12 hours after dose regardless of frequency

12.

Patient on linezolid is also taking sertraline (SSRI). Major concern?

a)

Serotonin syndrome

b)

Nephrotoxicity

c)

Ototoxicity

d)

Seizure risk

13.

Which instruction is correct for nitrofurantoin therapy?

a)

Crush tablets to improve absorption

b)

Take with food/milk and plenty of fluids

c)

Stop if urine becomes darker immediately

d)

Skip doses if asymptomatic

14.

Patient receiving levofloxacin asks about a daily multivitamin with iron. Best response:

a)

Take together in the morning

b)

Separate the levofloxacin and vitamin by several hours

c)

Stop the vitamin during therapy

d)

Take with milk to help absorption

15.

An older adult on moxifloxacin develops neuropathic symptoms. The nurse recognizes:

a)

This is unrelated

b)

Quinolones can cause peripheral neuropathy that may be permanent

c)

Stop antibiotics altogether

d)

Switch to an aminoglycoside for neuropathy

16.

A patient colonized with MRSA in the nares but asymptomatic requires:

a)

IV vancomycin treatment

b)

Standard precautions and hand hygiene; no systemic antibiotics

c)

Isolation at home

d)

Aminoglycoside prophylaxis

17.

A culture returns ESBL-producing Klebsiella. Which empiric drug should be de-escalated when sensitivities confirm ESBL?

a)

Piperacillin/tazobactam

b)

Meropenem

c)

Ciprofloxacin

d)

Amoxicillin/clavulanate

18.

During vancomycin infusion the patient reports pruritus and facial flushing; BP is stable. Next step:

a)

Stop permanently

b)

Slow the infusion and continue monitoring

c)

Give IV push to finish quickly

d)

Administer epinephrine IM immediately

19.

Which statement about tigecycline is correct?

a)

Oral dosing is standard

b)

Effective for complicated skin/abdominal infections; given IV

c)

Contraindicated in all gram-positive infections

d)

Used for pneumonia only

20.

Which drug is preferred for CRE infection when susceptible?

a)

Colistimethate (colistin)

b)

Ceftriaxone

c)

Azithromycin

d)

Cefazolin

21.

Appropriate steps to reduce antibiotic resistance in the hospital include: (Select all that apply.)

a)

Antimicrobial stewardship involvement

b)

De-escalation to narrow-spectrum agents when possible

c)

Routine use of broad-spectrum agents for all fevers

d)

Hand hygiene and contact precautions

e)

Completing antibiotic courses as ordered

22.

Signs of aminoglycoside toxicity the nurse should report immediately: (Select all that apply.)

a)

Tinnitus

b)

Fullness in the ears

c)

Vertigo/ataxia

d)

Bradycardia

e)

Rising serum creatinine

23.

When teaching a patient taking doxycycline, include: (Select all that apply.)

a)

Use additional contraception

b)

Avoid taking with dairy/antacids

c)

Expect photosensitivity

d)

Safe in pregnancy

e)

Discard if expired

24.

Which statements about macrolides are accurate? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Often cause GI upset (erythromycin)

b)

Active against Chlamydia and Mycoplasma

c)

Always bactericidal

d)

May prolong QT interval

e)

Useful to promote gastric motility

25.

Key nursing points for linezolid include: (Select all that apply.)

a)

Monitor platelets

b)

Avoid tyramine foods

c)

Check for serotonergic co-medications

d)

IV protection from light and timed infusion

e)

Mix IV bag with other medications to reduce line use

26.

Appropriate management of suspected C. difficile includes: (Select all that apply.)

a)

Contact precautions

b)

Stop unnecessary antibiotics

c)

Send stool assay

d)

Give antidiarrheals first

e)

Perform hand hygiene with soap and water

27.

Septic patient: which comes first?

a)

Draw cultures and start antibiotics promptly

b)

Wait for sensitivities

c)

Start probiotics then antibiotics

d)

Obtain chest x-ray before cultures

28.

Patient on gentamicin with new tinnitus and dizziness. First action:

a)

Hold the gentamicin and notify provider

b)

Reassure and continue

c)

Increase infusion rate

d)

Give meclizine and continue

29.

During quinolone education the patient insists on taking antacids simultaneously. Best response:

a)

It's fine with food

b)

Separate by several hours to avoid reduced absorption

c)

Stop quinolone instead

d)

Double the quinolone dose

30.

Vancomycin extravasation suspected at IV site (pain, swelling). First action:

a)

Slow rate

b)

Stop infusion and assess site, follow extravasation protocol

c)

Dilute with NS and continue

d)

Warm compress and continue