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Company Law Quiz

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to Section 2(20) of the Companies Act, 2013, what is the primary requirement for an entity to be legally recognized as a 'company' in India?

a)

It must have a minimum of seven shareholders

b)

It must undergo formal registration under the Companies Act

c)

It must have a minimum paid-up capital of ₹1 crore

d)

It must be listed on a recognized stock exchange

2.

Which feature of a company ensures that its existence continues regardless of changes in membership, death of members, or transfer of shares?

a)

Limited Liability

b)

Separate Legal Entity

c)

Perpetual Succession

d)

Common Seal

3.

What is the fundamental characteristic that distinguishes a company from a sole proprietorship or partnership?

a)

Higher capital requirements

b)

Separate legal entity status

c)

Government ownership

d)

Unlimited liability

4.

In a company limited by shares, what is the maximum liability of a shareholder?

a)

Unlimited personal liability for all company debts

b)

Limited to the total assets owned by the member

c)

Limited to the unpaid amount on shares held

d)

Limited to twice the share capital invested

5.

What does the saying 'Members may come and members may go, but the company goes on forever' illustrate?

a)

Limited Liability

b)

Perpetual Succession

c)

Common Seal

d)

Transferability of Shares

6.

According to the Companies Act, 2013, the use of a common seal is now:

a)

Mandatory for all companies

b)

Optional, with documents signed by two directors or a director and company secretary as an alternative

c)

Prohibited for private companies

d)

Required only for public companies

7.

Which innovative legal structure introduced by the Companies Act, 2013, allows a single individual to form a company with limited liability benefits?

a)

Sole Proprietorship

b)

One Person Company (OPC)

c)

Micro Company

d)

Single Member Private Limited

8.

What is the mandatory CSR spending requirement for companies meeting specific financial thresholds under the Companies Act, 2013?

a)

1% of average net profits from preceding three years

b)

2% of average net profits from preceding three years

c)

5% of total turnover

d)

3% of paid-up share capital

9.

What are the financial thresholds for mandatory CSR spending? (Select the correct combination)

a)

Net worth ₹100 crore OR turnover ₹500 crore OR net profit ₹10 crore

b)

Net worth ₹500 crore OR turnover ₹1000 crore OR net profit ₹5 crore

c)

Net worth ₹250 crore OR turnover ₹750 crore OR net profit ₹7.5 crore

d)

Net worth ₹1000 crore OR turnover ₹2000 crore OR net profit ₹10 crore

10.

Which specialized tribunal was established by the Companies Act, 2013, to consolidate corporate dispute resolution?

a)

Company Law Board (CLB)

b)

Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR)

c)

National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)

d)

Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT)

11.

What is the primary advantage of e-governance initiatives under the Companies Act, 2013?

a)

Increases paperwork requirements

b)

Promotes transparency

c)

Reduces compliance costs

d)

Simplifies tax filing

12.

Which provision of the Companies Act, 2013, deals with punishment for fraud and imposes severe penalties?

a)

Section 100

b)

Section 250

c)

Section 447

d)

Section 500

13.

What is the minimum and maximum number of members required for a private company?

a)

Minimum 1, Maximum 50

b)

Minimum 2, Maximum 200

c)

Minimum 3, Maximum 100

d)

Minimum 7, Maximum 200

14.

What suffix must be used in the name of a private company?

a)

Limited

b)

Private Limited

c)

Pvt. Ltd.

d)

Either B or C

15.

What is the minimum number of members required to form a public company?

a)

2 members

b)

3 members

c)

7 members

d)

10 members

16.

A private company that is a subsidiary of a public company is deemed to be:

a)

Still a private company for all purposes

b)

A public company for legal purposes

c)

An unlimited company

d)

A dormant company

17.

A holding company is defined as one that:

a)

Holds more than 25% of equity share capital

b)

Holds more than 50% of equity share capital or controls the Board composition

c)

Holds 100% of equity share capital

d)

Is registered as a holding company by the ROC

18.

A company in which not less than 51% of paid-up share capital is held by the Central Government or State Government(s) is classified as:

a)

Public Sector Undertaking

b)

Government Company

c)

Statutory Corporation

d)

State Enterprise

19.

What defines 'significant influence' in the context of an Associate Company?

a)

Control of at least 10% of voting power

b)

Control of at least 20% of voting power or control over business decisions under agreement

c)

Control of at least 30% of voting power

d)

Control of at least 51% of voting power

20.

What are the revised thresholds for a Small Company under the Companies Act, 2013?

a)

Paid-up capital ≤ ₹50 Lakhs and turnover ≤ ₹2 crore

b)

Paid-up capital ≤ ₹2 crore and turnover ≤ ₹20 crore

c)

Paid-up capital ≤ ₹4 crore and turnover ≤ ₹40 crore

d)

Paid-up capital ≤ ₹10 crore and turnover ≤ ₹100 crore

21.

Which of the following companies CANNOT be classified as a Small Company?

a)

A newly incorporated private company

b)

A holding or subsidiary company

c)

A company with paid-up capital of ₹3 crore

d)

A company with turnover of ₹30 crore

22.

A foreign company is defined as one that:

a)

Is incorporated outside India but has a place of business in India

b)

Is incorporated in India but operates abroad

c)

Has only foreign directors

d)

Has only foreign shareholders

23.

A listed company is one that:

a)

Has more than 500 shareholders

b)

Has any of its securities listed on a recognized stock exchange

c)

Has a turnover exceeding ₹1000 crore

d)

Is registered with SEBI only

24.

What is a dormant company under Section 455?

a)

A company that has ceased all operations permanently

b)

A company formed for future projects with no significant accounting transactions

c)

A company in liquidation

d)

A company with no employees

25.

What is the key distinction between "Body Corporate" and "Company" as per the Companies Act, 2013?

a)

They are identical terms with no distinction

b)

Every company is a body corporate, but not every body corporate is a company

c)

Body corporate only refers to foreign companies

d)

Company is a broader term than body corporate

26.

Which of the following is NOT included in the definition of "Body Corporate"?

a)

Companies incorporated under the Companies Act

b)

Foreign companies operating in India

c)

Co-operative societies registered under co-operative laws

d)

Statutory corporations like LIC or SBI

27.

In a company limited by guarantee, when does the liability of members primarily arise?

a)

During normal operations

b)

When the company is being wound up

c)

When dividends are declared

d)

When shares are transferred

28.

Which type of company is most commonly used for non-profit purposes like promoting arts, sports, or education?

a)

Company limited by shares

b)

Company limited by guarantee

c)

Unlimited company

d)

One Person Company

29.

What is the primary disadvantage of an unlimited company?

a)

Limited access to capital

b)

Personal assets of members can be used to pay company debts

c)

Cannot enter into contracts

d)

Must have more than 100 members

30.

A One Person Company (OPC) must appoint:

a)

At least two directors

b)

A nominee who will become the member in case of the sole member's death or incapacity

c)

A minimum of three shareholders

d)

A board of at least five directors

31.

How many stages are involved in the formation of a company?

a)

Two stages

b)

Three stages

c)

Four stages

d)

Five stages

32.

Which stage involves conception of business idea, market research, and feasibility studies?

a)

Incorporation Stage

b)

Promotion Stage

c)

Capital Subscription Stage

d)

Commencement of Business Stage

33.

According to Section 2(69), a promoter is defined as a person who:

a)

Only invests money in the company

b)

Is named in the prospectus, has control over company affairs, or whose advice the Board acts upon

c)

Is appointed as the first auditor

d)

Registers the company with ROC

34.

Which of the following is NOT a typical function of a promoter?

a)

Conducting feasibility studies

b)

Drafting MOA and AOA

c)

Auditing the company's financial statements

d)

Entering into preliminary contracts

35.

What is the full form of RUN service provided by MCA?

a)

Register Unique Name

b)

Reserve Unique Name

c)

Request Unique Name

d)

Regulate Unique Name

36.

How many alternative names can typically be submitted in a RUN application?

a)

1-2 names

b)

2-6 names

c)

5-10 names

d)

10-15 names

37.

What is the typical validity period of a Digital Signature Certificate (DSC)?

a)

6 months to 1 year

b)

2-3 years

c)

5 years

d)

Lifetime validity

38.

What is the full form of DIN?

a)

Director Identity Number

b)

Director Identification Number

c)

Director Information Number

d)

Director Index Number

39.

Once allotted, what is the validity of a Director Identification Number (DIN)?

a)

5 years

b)

10 years

c)

Lifetime validity

d)

Valid until resignation from all directorships

40.

How many essential clauses must the Memorandum of Association (MoA) contain?

a)

Four clauses

b)

Five clauses

c)

Six clauses

d)

Eight clauses

41.

Which clause of the MOA specifies the state where the company's registered office will be situated?

a)

Name Clause

b)

Registered Office (Situation) Clause

c)

Objects Clause

d)

Capital Clause

42.

Which clause of the MOA defines the primary business activities for which the company is incorporated?

a)

Name Clause

b)

Liability Clause

c)

Objects Clause

d)

Association Clause

43.

What does the Capital Clause of the MOA specify?

a)

The company's paid-up capital

b)

The company's authorized share capital

c)

The company's reserve capital

d)

The company's borrowed capital

44.

Which table in Schedule I of the Companies Act provides the model form of MOA for companies limited by shares?

a)

Table A

b)

Table B

c)

Table C

d)

Table F

45.

Altering the Objects Clause of the MOA generally requires:

a)

Ordinary Resolution

b)

Special Resolution

c)

Board Resolution

d)

Written Resolution

46.

Changing the company's registered office from one state to another requires approval from:

a)

Only shareholders through Special Resolution

b)

Shareholders, Regional Director, and NCLT

c)

Only the Board of Directors

d)

Only the Registrar of Companies

47.

The Articles of Association (AOA) is subordinate to:

a)

Only the Memorandum of Association

b)

Only the Companies Act

c)

Both the MOA and the Companies Act

d)

Neither the MOA nor the Companies Act

48.

Which document governs the internal management and operations of a company?

a)

Memorandum of Association

b)

Articles of Association

c)

Prospectus

d)

Certificate of Incorporation

49.

The Articles of Association can be altered by passing a:

a)

Ordinary Resolution

b)

Special Resolution

c)

Board Resolution

d)

Written Resolution

50.

What is the full form of SPICe+?

a)

Simple Proforma for Incorporating Company Electronically Plus

b)

Simplified Proforma for Incorporating Company Electronically Plus

c)

Standard Proforma for Incorporating Company Electronically Plus

d)

Special Proforma for Incorporating Company Electronically Plus

51.

Which form is used for the SPICe+ integrated application?

a)

Form INC-1

b)

Form INC-7

c)

Form INC-32

d)

Form DIR-3

52.

What is the typical timeline for ROC verification of incorporation documents?

a)

1-3 working days

b)

7-15 working days

c)

21-30 working days

d)

45-60 working days

53.

What is the most vital document issued by the ROC confirming a company's legal existence?

a)

Incorporation Application

b)

Certificate of Incorporation

c)

MOA

d)

AOA

54.

What is the full form of CIN?

a)

Company Identity Number

b)

Corporate Identification Number

c)

Corporate Identity Number

d)

Company Index Number

55.

How many digits does a Corporate Identity Number (CIN) contain?

a)

11 digits

b)

15 digits

c)

21 digits

d)

25 digits

56.

A misstatement in a prospectus includes:

a)

Only untrue statements

b)

Only material omissions

c)

Both untrue/misleading statements and material omissions

d)

Minor typographical errors

57.

What is the minimum imprisonment term for criminal liability due to misstatement in a prospectus?

a)

3 months

b)

6 months

c)

1 year

d)

2 years

58.

What is the maximum imprisonment term for criminal liability due to misstatement in a prospectus?

a)

5 years

b)

7 years

c)

10 years

d)

14 years

59.

Within what timeframe must a company hold its first Board Meeting after incorporation?

a)

15 days

b)

21 days

c)

30 days

d)

45 days

60.

Within what timeframe must a company hold its first AGM from the closing of its first financial year?

a)

3 months

b)

6 months

c)

9 months

d)

12 months

61.

According to Section 2(84), a "share" fundamentally means:

a)

A bond issued by the company

b)

A share in the share capital of a company, including stock

c)

A debenture of the company

d)

A loan to the company

62.

What is the primary characteristic that distinguishes equity shares from preference shares?

a)

Equity shares have fixed dividends; preference shares have variable dividends

b)

Equity shares have voting rights and variable dividends; preference shares have preference in dividends and capital repayment

c)

Equity shares cannot be traded; preference shares can be traded

d)

There is no difference between them

63.

Equity shares with differential voting rights (DVRs) provide:

a)

Higher voting rights with lower dividends

b)

Different voting rights compared to normal equity shares, often limited or no voting but compensating features

c)

No dividends but maximum voting rights

d)

Equal voting and dividend rights

64.

Cumulative preference shares differ from non-cumulative preference shares in that:

a)

They can be converted to equity shares

b)

Unpaid dividends accumulate and must be paid in future profitable years

c)

They have higher voting rights

d)

They are always redeemable

65.

Redeemable preference shares are:

a)

Never repaid by the company

b)

Repaid after a fixed period or upon specified conditions

c)

Converted into debentures

d)

Only issued by private companies

66.

What is a private placement in the context of share issuance?

a)

Inviting the general public to subscribe

b)

Issuing shares to a select group of identified persons through a private offer letter

c)

Selling shares on stock exchanges

d)

Distributing shares to employees only

67.

What is an Initial Public Offer (IPO)?

a)

The second time a company offers shares to the public

b)

The first time a company offers its shares to the general public

c)

A private sale of shares

d)

A buyback of shares

68.

In the book building process, what is the purpose of establishing a price band?

a)

To fix the exact share price before bidding

b)

To allow price discovery based on investor demand during the bidding period

c)

To prevent any bidding

d)

To eliminate underwriters

69.

What is allotment of shares?

a)

The initial application for shares

b)

The formal process of accepting applications and assigning shares to successful applicants

c)

The cancellation of share applications

d)

The transfer of shares between investors

70.

When a share issue is oversubscribed, shares are often allotted on a:

a)

First-come, first-served basis

b)

Pro-rata (proportionate) basis

c)

Random selection basis

d)

Highest bidder basis

71.

What is the primary purpose of an Employee Stock Ownership Plan (ESOP)?

a)

To reduce company profits

b)

To motivate employees, align their interests with shareholders, and aid in retention

c)

To exclusively benefit directors

d)

To eliminate salary payments

72.

Under Section 68, what is a buyback?

a)

The company selling its assets

b)

The company repurchasing its own shares from the market or shareholders

c)

The company issuing new shares

d)

The company declaring dividends

73.

What is the maximum buyback value limit that requires only a Board Resolution?

a)

5% of paid-up capital and free reserves

b)

10% of paid-up capital and free reserves

c)

25% of paid-up capital and free reserves

d)

50% of paid-up capital and free reserves

74.

Sweat equity shares are issued to directors or employees:

a)

At market price for cash

b)

At a discount or for non-cash consideration like know-how or intellectual property

c)

Only for cash payments

d)

At a premium to market price

75.

Bonus shares are:

a)

Shares sold at a discount to employees

b)

New shares issued free of cost to existing shareholders from accumulated profits or reserves

c)

Shares issued only to new investors

d)

Shares that must be purchased at market price

76.

What is the primary purpose of issuing bonus shares?

a)

To raise fresh capital

b)

To capitalize accumulated profits, conserve cash, and increase market liquidity

c)

To reduce the number of shareholders

d)

To eliminate reserves

77.

Right shares are offered:

a)

Only to new investors

b)

Exclusively to existing shareholders in proportion to their current shareholding

c)

To the general public

d)

Only to institutional investors

78.

The primary purpose of right shares is to:

a)

Dilute existing shareholders' ownership

b)

Protect existing shareholders' proportionate ownership and prevent dilution

c)

Force shareholders to invest more

d)

Transfer ownership to new investors

79.

The key difference between right shares and bonus shares is:

a)

Both are free of cost

b)

Right shares are offered for a price; bonus shares are issued free of cost

c)

Bonus shares require payment; right shares are free

d)

There is no difference

80.

Capital reduction under Section 66 requires confirmation by:

a)

Only the Board of Directors

b)

Only the shareholders through Special Resolution

c)

Special Resolution and confirmation by NCLT

d)

Only the Registrar of Companies

81.

A share certificate must be issued within how many months from the date of allotment?

a)

1 month

b)

2 months

c)

3 months

d)

6 months

82.

What is the Demat system?

a)

A system for physical share certificates

b)

A process of converting physical share certificates into electronic form

c)

A system for issuing new shares

d)

A system for calculating dividends

83.

The two main depositories in India are:

a)

BSE and NSE

b)

NSDL and CDSL

c)

SEBI and RBI

d)

MCA and ROC

84.

What is the key difference between transfer and transmission of shares?

a)

Both are voluntary processes

b)

Transfer is voluntary; transmission occurs by operation of law

c)

Transmission is voluntary; transfer is involuntary

d)

There is no difference

85.

When preference shares are redeemed out of distributable profits, a sum equal to the nominal amount must be transferred to:

a)

General Reserve Account

b)

Dividend Account

c)

Capital Redemption Reserve (CRR) Account

d)

Profit and Loss Account

86.

According to Section 123, from which sources can a company declare and pay dividends?

a)

Only from current year's profits

b)

From current year's profits, previous years' profits, or money provided by government for dividends

c)

From borrowed funds

d)

From share capital

87.

Declared dividend must be paid to shareholders within how many days?

a)

15 days

b)

30 days

c)

45 days

d)

60 days

88.

If dividend remains unpaid or unclaimed for 7 years, it must be transferred to:

a)

Company's General Reserve

b)

State Government Treasury

c)

Investor Education and Protection Fund (IEPF)

d)

Shareholder's bank account

89.

According to Section 2(30), a debenture is:

a)

An ownership certificate in the company

b)

A debt instrument evidencing a debt of the company

c)

A voting right document

d)

A dividend entitlement certificate

90.

The key difference between debenture holders and shareholders is:

a)

Debenture holders are owners; shareholders are creditors

b)

Debenture holders are creditors with no voting rights; shareholders are owners with voting rights

c)

Both have equal rights

d)

Debenture holders have voting rights; shareholders do not

91.

Corporate meetings are formal gatherings primarily to:

a)

Discuss only social matters

b)

Make decisions on company affairs, ensure accountability, and comply with statutory requirements

c)

Distribute refreshments

d)

Conduct employee training

92.

An Annual General Meeting (AGM) must be held by every company:

a)

Once every two years

b)

Once in every financial year

c)

Twice in every financial year

d)

Only when required

93.

The first AGM must be held within how many months from the closing of the first financial year?

a)

3 months

b)

6 months

c)

9 months

d)

12 months

94.

Subsequent AGMs must be held within how many months from the closing of the financial year?

a)

3 months

b)

6 months

c)

9 months

d)

12 months

95.

What is the maximum interval allowed between two consecutive AGMs?

a)

6 months

b)

9 months

c)

12 months

d)

15 months

96.

The ordinary business transacted at an AGM includes all EXCEPT:

a)

Consideration of financial statements

b)

Declaration of dividends

c)

Appointment of auditors

d)

Alteration of Memorandum of Association

97.

An Extraordinary General Meeting (EGM) is convened to transact:

a)

Ordinary business

b)

Special business that cannot wait until the next AGM

c)

Only auditor appointments

d)

Social events

98.

Members holding at least what percentage of paid-up share capital can requisition an EGM?

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

15%

d)

20%

99.

If the Board fails to call an EGM after a valid requisition, the requisitionists can call the meeting within:

a)

One month

b)

Two months

c)

Three months

d)

Six months

100.

A company must hold at least how many Board Meetings in each calendar year?

a)

2 meetings

b)

3 meetings

c)

4 meetings

d)

6 meetings